If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than its current price for a 10-year bond with a 9% annual coupon which has a yield to maturity of 8%.
A is the correct answer.
According to their maturity, or the deadline by which the issuer must return investors' money, bonds can be categorized. Less than three years, four to ten years, or more than ten years are considered short-term, medium-term, and long-term maturities, respectively.
The United States government issues 10-year Treasury notes, which have a 10-year maturity after initial issuance. The face amount of a 10-year Treasury note is paid to the bearer at maturity along with a predetermined rate of interest that is paid once every six months.
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The complete question is:
A 10-year bond with a 9% annual coupon has a yield to maturity of 8%. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
a. If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond's price one year from now will be lower than its current price.
b. If the yield to maturity remains constant, the bond's price one year from now will be higher than its current price.
c. The bond is selling at a discount.
d. The bond is selling below its par value.
e. The bond's current yield is greater than 9%
in trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders, when the expansion occurs in the coding sequence of the gene, the repeat sequence is usually ______.
In trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders, when the expansion occurs in the coding sequence of the gene, the repeat sequence is usually translated into a long stretch of a particular amino acid, leading to the formation of abnormal protein aggregates.
These disorders are caused by the abnormal expansion of a repeated DNA sequence within a gene, leading to a change in the protein structure and function. The repeat sequence is usually composed of three nucleotides, and the number of repeats can vary from a few to hundreds or even thousands, depending on the specific disorder.
The abnormal protein aggregates can lead to a range of clinical symptoms, depending on the affected tissue or organ. Some examples of trinucleotide repeat expansion disorders include Huntington's disease, fragile X syndrome, and myotonic dystrophy.
Understanding the molecular basis of these disorders can aid in the development of new treatments and therapies.
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Which autonomic division increases heart rate?A) cranial B) parasympatheticC) sympathetic D) somatic
The autonomic division that increases heart rate is the sympathetic division, as it prepares the body for situations requiring heightened physical activity or mental alertness. So the correct option is C.
The autonomic nervous system (ANS) is divided into two main branches: the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions. The sympathetic division is responsible for activating the body's "fight or flight" response, while the parasympathetic division works to conserve energy and maintain bodily functions during rest. When the sympathetic division is activated, it releases neurotransmitters like norepinephrine, which stimulates the heart to beat faster and stronger. This increased heart rate allows for increased blood flow, providing oxygen and nutrients to the body's tissues during times of stress or physical exertion.
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A 20-year-old man decided to jump into a very cold lake. What is the MOST likely way in which his circulatory system will respond after he jumps into the water?
A 20-year-old man made the decision to plunge into the icy lake. In order to keep more blood in the warm centre of his body, many of the capillaries in the extremities will close down.
Who presented the hypothesis regarding how cells function?Two scientists, Schleiden (1838) and Schwann, put out the cell idea (1839). The basic unit if life, the cell, is described as being present in all plants and animals. Virchow (1855) added to the cell theory by proposing that all cells originate from pre-existing cells.
Which cell is largest in the world?The largest cells are seen in ostrich eggs. The largest cell is the zebra egg, which is between 15 and 18 centimeters in length in width. Its longest cell type is the nerve cell. The largest cell in the human body is the female ovum.
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The chemical energy used by most organisms for metabolism and growth ultimately comes from __________. the sun heat carbon dioxide the decomposition of plants
While heat and the decomposition of plants can also provide energy for some organisms, they are not the primary source of energy for most organisms. The correct answer is a. the sun.
The ultimate source of energy for almost all life on Earth is the sun. Through photosynthesis, green plants, algae, and some bacteria use the energy from sunlight to convert carbon dioxide and water into organic molecules such as sugars and starches. These organic molecules contain stored chemical energy that can be used by organisms as a source of energy for metabolism and growth. Other organisms obtain this stored chemical energy by consuming plants or other organisms that have consumed plants. While heat and the decomposition of plants can also provide energy for some organisms, they are not the primary source of energy for most organisms.
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17) Which shark structure is closest in function to a swim bladder full of gas?A) its lateral line systemB) its spiral valveC) its liverD) its gills
The shark structure closest in function to a swim bladder full of gas is C) its liver. The liver in sharks is large and contains oil, which helps with buoyancy and maintaining their position in the water.
The liver of a shark contains oils that are less dense than water, which helps to provide buoyancy and allows the shark to control its depth in the water. This function is similar to the swim bladder in bony fish, which is also used to control buoyancy. The lateral line system helps sharks detect changes in water pressure and movement, the spiral valve aids in digestion, and the gills are used for respiration.
The shark structure closest in function to a swim bladder full of gas is C) its liver. The liver in sharks is large and contains oil, which helps with buoyancy and maintaining their position in the water.
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Explain why a redundant genetic code helps protect an organism from the effects of mutations.
Redundant genetic code helps protect an organism from the effects of mutations: If there is any point mutation that changes an amino acid may or may not cause a problem.
Because the genetic code is redundant, more than one codon can encode the same amino acid. There are 64 codons, of which 3 stop codons and the remaining 61 codify amino acids. There are just 20 amino acids found in nature.
Therefore, it follows that more than one codon will encode one amino acid. One codon codes just methionine (AUG for mRNA; ATG for DNA) and tryptophan (UGG for mRNA; TGG for DNA). Valine, Serine, Proline, Threonine, Alanine, and Glycine each have four cognate codons, whereas Leucine has six.
A mutation may totally eliminate the function of an enzyme or result in a dominant-negative phenotype by rendering it constitutively active or inactive if the amino is responsible for the catalytic activity or in the substrate binding site of an enzyme. The protein translation process may be halted by a new stop codon or the protein's open reading frame may alter as a result of a deletion or insertion mutation.
Silent mutations are mutations that do not alter the amino acid sequence. If the amino acid changes from CAU (which codes for histidine) to CAA (which codes glutamine), however, there is no difference if the amino acid changes from CAU to CAC.
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How are females usually affected with sex-linked disorders?
Genetic abnormalities on the X and Y chromosomes, which make up each person's sex, are the root cause of sex-related illnesses.
Sex-linked inheritance: what is it?Sex-linked inheritance is a biological process in which characteristics or features are passed down from one generation to the next via the sex chromosomes. Two sex chromosomes, X and Y, contain alleles at their gene loci. The X or Y chromosomes are responsible for carrying out these qualities that are passed down from one generation to the next.
What features distinguish sex-linked inheritance?Because they are heterozygous, males are more impacted by sex-related features than females. As they are homozygous for the X chromosome and convey the X chromosome to both offspring, the female transmits the X-linked inheritance to both son and daughter.
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Question 19
What is the primary organism identified in the fecal coli form test?
a. Fecal streptococci
b. Enterobacter aeroanes
c. Salmonella typhosa
d. Escherichia coil
The primary organism identified in the fecal coli form test is called as Escherichia coil, option D.
Your intestines often harbour a particular form of bacteria called E. coli (Escherichia coli). Some animals' guts also contain it.
The majority of E. coli species are safe and may even support the health of your digestive system. However, if you consume infected food or drink tainted water, some types can make you throw up.
While many of us connect E. coli with food poisoning, other kinds of the bacterium can also cause pneumonia and urinary tract infections. In actuality, E. coli is to blame for 75 to 95 percent of urinary tract infections. E. coli normally lives in the gut, which is how it enters the urinary system.
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Compare the textural differences observed between apples cooked in water and apples cooked in a sugar solution.
Cooking apples in water and cooking them in a sugar solution can result in different textural changes due to the effect of heat and sugar on the fruit's cellular structure and pectin content. the texture of cooked apples can vary depending on the cooking method and the presence of added sugar.
When apples are cooked in water, the heat causes the cell walls to break down, releasing the pectin molecules contained within the fruit's cell walls. Pectin is a form of soluble fibre that gives fruit structure and causes cooked fruit to thicken into a sauce or jam.
Cooking apples in water for an extended period of time may result in a softer texture because the heat and water break down the cell walls and soften the fruit. The flavour of the cooked apples may be less sweet and less prominent if no sugar is used.
When apples are cooked in a sugar solution, the additional sugar helps preserve the texture and shape of the fruit by generating a syrup that coats the apple's surface.
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____________________, also known as sleepwalking, is the condition of walking or performing some other activity without awakening.
Somnambulism, also known as sleepwalking, is a condition in which an individual engages in activities such as walking or performing complex tasks while they are still asleep.
Sleepwalking:Sleepwalking typically occurs during the non-rapid eye movement (NREM) stage of sleep, particularly during the deep stages of NREM, when the brain is primarily in slow-wave sleep.
Various factors contribute to sleepwalking, including genetic predisposition, sleep deprivation, stress, and certain medications. Additionally, alcohol consumption and certain medical conditions, such as sleep apnea or restless legs syndrome, may increase the likelihood of sleepwalking episodes.
During a sleepwalking episode, the sleepwalker may exhibit behaviors like walking, talking, or even eating, without any awareness or memory of their actions upon waking up. In some cases, sleepwalkers may perform potentially dangerous activities, such as driving or leaving the house, posing a risk to themselves and others.
To manage sleepwalking, it is essential to establish a regular sleep schedule, create a calming bedtime routine, and minimize stress. Additionally, ensuring the sleep environment is safe by removing obstacles, locking doors and windows, and using alarms can help prevent sleepwalking-related accidents. In more severe cases, medical intervention, such as prescription medication or therapy, may be necessary. It is also essential to consult a healthcare professional if sleepwalking persists or presents safety concerns.
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Birthweight, head circumference, and ___ are measurements that assess newborn health status after birth.
Birthweight, head circumference, and Apgar score are measurements that assess newborn health status after birth.
Birthweight is the weight of the newborn measured immediately after birth and is an important indicator of overall health and growth in the newborn. Birthweight is influenced by various factors such as gestational age, maternal nutrition, and overall maternal health during pregnancy.
Head circumference is the measurement of the newborn's head circumference, typically taken at the widest part of the head, and is used to assess the growth and development of the newborn's brain and skull. Head circumference is an important measurement that can help detect any abnormal growth patterns or potential issues with brain development.
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Retrograde transport from the Golgi apparatus would entail a protein traveling where?
Answer:
ik its a long explanation, sorry
Explanation:
Retrograde transport from the Golgi apparatus would entail a protein traveling back to the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) or to the cis-Golgi from the trans-Golgi. This is the opposite direction of the normal flow of proteins through the secretory pathway.
During retrograde transport, proteins are transported from the Golgi back to the ER or to earlier Golgi compartments, in order to recycle or correct misfolded proteins. This process is essential for maintaining the proper function of the secretory pathway and preventing the accumulation of misfolded proteins, which can be toxic to cells.
The retrograde transport of proteins is facilitated by specialized transport vesicles that bud off from the Golgi and transport cargo back to the ER or earlier Golgi compartments. These vesicles are coated with proteins, such as COPI, that mediate the specificity of cargo selection and the formation of the vesicle.
Overall, retrograde transport plays a critical role in maintaining the proper function of the secretory pathway by recycling and correcting misfolded proteins.
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The ______________ is responsible for the movement of substances through the alimentary canal.
The process of peristalsis is responsible for the movement of substances through the alimentary canal.
Peristalsis is a coordinated muscular contraction and relaxation of the smooth muscle in the walls of the digestive tract, which propels food and other substances through the gastrointestinal tract.
When food is ingested, it is moved through the alimentary canal, which includes the esophagus, stomach, small intestine, and large intestine, by the rhythmic contractions of smooth muscle in the walls of these organs. These contractions push the food forward in a coordinated manner, allowing for the mechanical breakdown of food and the absorption of nutrients along the way. This process of peristalsis is essential for the proper movement of food and other substances through the digestive tract, facilitating digestion, absorption, and elimination.
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Question 4
In general, noise levels are directly related to the:
a. population density
b. proximity of airports
c. number of "boom boxes" sold
d. industrialization of an area
D. Industrialization of an area. Noise levels tend to increase in areas with high levels of industrialization and urbanization due to the presence of machinery, vehicles, and other sources of noise pollution.
Answer - Occupational noise is the amount of acoustic energy received by an employee's auditory system when they are working in the industry. Occupational noise, or industrial noise, is often a term used in occupational safety and health, as sustained exposure can cause permanent hearing damage.
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Question 11
Why is it a good practice to paint 6 inch wide white lines along walls inside a warehouse?
a. aids in detection of insects
b. aids in detection of rodents
c. serves as a reminder not to stock material next to the wall
d. all are correct
It is a good practice to paint 6-inch wide white lines along walls inside a warehouse because aids in the detection of insects, and rodents, and serves as a reminder not to stock material next to the wall, option (d) is correct.
Painting white lines along warehouse walls can help identify areas where insects and rodents are present. The white lines serve as a visual indicator of any movement, and workers can quickly spot any pests that have crossed the line.
The lines can act as a deterrent to pests, as they may be less likely to cross a visible barrier. The white lines also serve as a reminder to workers not to store materials too close to the wall, option (d) is correct.
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Although we study the citric acid cycle as the final stage in the oxidation of carbon from glucose, an in-depth look at the cycle shows intermediates entering and leavi the cycle from a number of metabolic pathways. With all of these demands on the cycle, how does it maintain a minimal level of oxaloacetate (OAA) to allow the cycl function? a The rate of the cycle increases when the cell has high levels of NADH b OAA is formed directly via the deamination of glutamate c OAA is synthesized via pyruvate carboxylase in an anaplerotic reaction that occurs when acetyl CoA is present d isocitrate dehydrogenase is allosterically inhibited by ADP, which signifies the need for more energy e OAA can be formed by the condensation of two moles of acetyl CoA and occurs when the energy charge of the cell is high
C. When acetyl CoA is present, an anaplerotic process involving pyruvate carboxylase produces OAA.
Through anaplerotic reactions, which involve the synthesis of cycle-depleting intermediates like oxaloacetate (OAA), the citric acid cycle can be replenished. An enzyme called pyruvate carboxylase helps turn pyruvate into OAA, which can subsequently be combined with acetyl CoA to complete the cycle. When acetyl CoA is present, this reaction takes place, signalling that the cycle needs to be renewed.
As we discovered, an acetyl group can be added to any molecule, even the biggest ones that we are aware of. This includes molecules as small as an OH group, which produces acetic acid. As a result of its frequent use in organic chemistry reactions, it is crucial to understand this moiety.
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Sympathetic trunk ganglia contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons and are located in the dorsalroot of the spinal cord.T/F
The sympathetic trunk ganglia do not contain the cell bodies of sensory neurons is False.
Rather, they contain the cell bodies of postganglionic sympathetic neurons. These ganglia are part of the sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response. The sympathetic trunk ganglia are located outside the dorsal root of the spinal cord, running parallel to it on either side.
They are a series of interconnected ganglia that extend from the base of the skull all the way down to the coccyx. The sympathetic nervous system helps to prepare the body for physical activity by increasing heart rate, constricting blood vessels, and dilating the bronchioles of the lungs.
In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the sensory nervous system is responsible for transmitting information from sensory receptors in the body to the brain. Sensory neurons have their cell bodies in the dorsal root ganglia, which are located just outside the spinal cord. These neurons send their axons through the dorsal root and into the spinal cord, where they synapse with other neurons before transmitting the signal to the brain.
In summary, the sympathetic trunk ganglia are part of the sympathetic nervous system and contain the cell bodies of postganglionic sympathetic neurons, not sensory neurons. They are located outside the dorsal root of the spinal cord and are responsible for preparing the body for physical activity.
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Both cilia and flagella are constructed of a ring of nine pairs of microtubules surrounding two central microtubules. TrueFalse
Answer:True.
Explanation:
sometimes in molecular comparisons, two segments of dna randomly share a high percentage of similarity, causing these organisms to appear closely related when they are not. how do scientists build confidence in their conclusions?
When scientists are comparing DNA at a molecular level, they need to take into account factors such as genetic drift and convergent evolution that can result in similarities between two organisms that are not actually closely related.
To build confidence in their conclusions, scientists will often use multiple lines of evidence, such as comparing DNA sequences from multiple genes or using morphological and ecological data, to ensure that their conclusions are not based on a single piece of evidence.
Additionally, they may use statistical methods to determine the probability that the observed similarities are due to chance, which can further support their conclusions. Overall, molecular comparisons are just one tool that scientists use to understand the relationships between organisms, and it is important to use multiple lines of evidence to build a robust understanding of evolutionary relationships.
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"Ecology" is best defined as the study of ________.A. plant successionB. the relationships between parasites and their hostsC. interactions between predator and prey populationsD. the interactions between living organisms and their environments
Ecology" is best defined as the study of option D: the interactions between living organisms and their environments.
Ecology, also referred to as bionomics, bio-ecology, or environmental biology, is the study of how organisms interact with their environments. It investigates how living things—both biotic and abiotic—react to their surroundings and other beings.
Each organism engages in complex relationships with other members of its species as well as those from other species. Different evolutionary pressures are applied to organisms by these complicated interactions. The pressures combine to create a natural selection, which enables the evolution of species populations.
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Ecology refers to the study of the interactions between living organisms and their environments. It encompasses different interactions among organisms and also includes their interaction with their physical surroundings. The correct option is D.
Explanation:The term 'Ecology' is best defined as the study of the interactions between living organisms and their environments. This includes various aspects such as the relationships between parasites and their hosts, predator-prey interactions, and sequences of plant succession.
However, the broadest and most inclusive definition of ecology encapsulates all these elements by focusing on how organisms interact with each other and with their surrounding environments, both biotic (living) and abiotic (non-living).The correct option is D.
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What role does the sigma factor of RNA polymerase have in transcription?
The sigma factor plays a critical role in the regulation of transcription initiation in bacteria, and its proper functioning is essential for the proper expression of genes.
The sigma factor is a protein subunit that plays a crucial role in transcription by RNA polymerase in bacteria. RNA polymerase is an enzyme responsible for the synthesis of RNA from a DNA template.
The sigma factor is required for RNA polymerase to recognize and bind to specific promoter sequences on DNA, which are the starting points for transcription. The sigma factor facilitates the formation of a stable transcription initiation complex between RNA polymerase and DNA by promoting the correct positioning of RNA polymerase at the promoter site.
Once the RNA polymerase-sigma factor complex has bound to the promoter, the sigma factor dissociates from the complex, and the RNA polymerase proceeds with transcription. The sigma factor may also regulate the transcription of specific genes by interacting with regulatory proteins and by influencing the choice of promoter utilized by RNA polymerase.
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Why is the LD50 different for each chemical substance?
Why is it important to know the LD50 of a substance? Give one real life example.
The LD50 is different for each chemical substance because it depends on factors such as the chemical's toxicity, route of exposure, species and age of the test animals and duration of exposure.
Why is it important to know the LD50 of a substance?The LD50, or the median lethal dose, is the amount of chemical substance that is required to cause the death of 50% of population of test animals, usually within specified time period. The LD50 is different for each chemical substance because it depends on a variety of factors such as the chemical's toxicity, the route of exposure (such as ingestion, inhalation, or skin contact), the species and age of the test animals, and the duration of exposure.
It is important to know the LD50 of a substance because it helps in assessing the potential risks associated with exposure to that substance.
One real-life example of the importance of knowing the LD50 of a substance is in the field of pesticide regulation.
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recent sediment is deposited ___ older sediment.
a. on top of
b. below
c. mixed with
The correct answer is A. On top of.
Recent sediment is deposited on top of older sediment. This is because sedimentation is a process where new sediments are continuously added to the top of existing layers of sediment. As new sediment accumulates, it buries and compresses the older sediment below it. Over time, this process leads to the formation of sedimentary rock layers with the oldest layers at the bottom and the youngest layers at the top, known as the principle of superposition. Thus, recent sediment is always found on top of older sediment.
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Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the ________ center.
Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the apneustic inspiratory center.
Inspiration is a process of respiration. It is the process whereby a body takes in or intakes oxygen. It may also be referred to as breathing in. Prolonged inspirations can result from stimulating the apneustic center. This center is located in the lower pons of the brainstem and plays a role in controlling the respiratory system by promoting long, deep inhalations.
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Science World Color Vision
Answer:
1. The lines show where a phase change happens to a substance
2.The colour of visible light depends on its wavelength. These wavelengths range from 700 nm at the red end of the spectrum to 400 nm at the violet end.
3. visible light spectrum is the segment of the electromagnetic spectrum that the human eye can view. More simply, this range of wavelengths is called visible light. Typically, the human eye can detect wavelengths from 380 to 700 nanometers.
4. Albinos lack color pigments, so their skin, fur or feathers are very light. These animals are very susceptible to sunburn, and are more likely to get skin cancer. Their eyes are also very sensitive to light and sight is often affected.
5. Cold-blooded animals cannot generate their own body heat, but they do regulate it by changing their environment. Alligators and other reptiles often lie in the sun to warm themselves. On the other hand, they cool off by taking a dip in the water, moving into the sade of a rock or crawling into a burrow in the ground.
Explanation:
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If we wanted to join a nucleotide to another to form a polynucleotide, the sugar of the first would bind to which part of the second nucleotide? (Part B)
A. sugar
B. phosphate
C. polyphosphate
D. deoxyribose
E. base
The sugar of the first nucleotide would bind to the phosphate group of the second nucleotide to form a polynucleotide. Therefore, the correct answer is B. phosphate.
Nucleotides are the building blocks of nucleic acids, such as DNA and RNA. Each nucleotide is made up of a sugar molecule (either ribose or deoxyribose), a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base (adenine, guanine, cytosine, or thymine/uracil). When nucleotides are joined together, a phosphodiester bond is formed between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the sugar molecule of another nucleotide. This bond creates a sugar-phosphate backbone, with the nitrogenous bases extending outwards. The specific sequence of nitrogenous bases along the backbone determines the genetic information encoded by the nucleic acid.
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Describe the Hypothalamus-hypophysis (pituitary) system
A region in a blood vessel has prothrombinase in it. Which stage of hemostasis is taking place?
7) A complete protein A) contains all 20 amino acids. B) contains all 9 essential amino acids. C) has not been denatured. D) is a polypeptide.
A complete protein contains all 9 essential amino acids. The correct option is B).
Proteins are made up of chains of amino acids linked by peptide bonds. There are 20 different amino acids commonly found in proteins, each with a unique side chain.
Out of these 20 amino acids, 9 are considered essential because they cannot be synthesized by the human body and must be obtained through the diet. These essential amino acids are histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine.
A complete protein is one that contains all 9 essential amino acids in the correct proportions required by the body. This is also known as a high-quality protein. Foods that contain complete proteins include animal products such as meat, fish, eggs, and dairy, as well as soybeans and quinoa.
It is important to note that a protein can still be complete even if it has been denatured, meaning its three-dimensional structure has been disrupted. Denaturation can occur due to changes in temperature, pH, or the presence of certain chemicals. While denaturation may affect the protein's function, it does not necessarily affect its amino acid composition.
Lastly, it is worth mentioning that not all polypeptides are complete proteins. A polypeptide is simply a chain of amino acids linked by peptide bonds, whereas a complete protein refers specifically to a protein that contains all 9 essential amino acids. Therefore, the correct option is B)
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Describe the diffuse neuro-endocrine system
The diffuse-neuro-endocrine-system (DNES) is a collection of cells distributed throughout the body that have both nervous and endocrine characteristics.
The "Neuroendocrine" cells are capable of producing and secreting hormones, neurotransmitters, and neuropeptides. They are also equipped with nerve-like structures that allow them to interact with other cells in the body, including neurons, immune cells, and other endocrine cells.
The functions of the DNES include regulation of various physiological processes such as digestion, respiration, blood pressure, metabolism, and immune function. The DNES also plays a key role in the body's stress response by secreting hormones such as cortisol and adrenaline in response to stress.
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