A chemical that is frequently applied just prior to filtration is

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Answer 1

One example of a chemical that is frequently applied just prior to filtration is a coagulant.

Coagulants or flocculants are chemicals that are commonly used in water and wastewater treatment processes to aid in the removal of suspended particles, colloids, and other impurities from water or wastewater. These chemicals are typically added just prior to the filtration step in the treatment process.

Coagulants are substances that cause destabilization and aggregation of suspended particles and colloids in water, leading to the formation of larger particles called flocs. These flocs can be easily removed by sedimentation or filtration. Common coagulants used in water treatment include aluminum sulfate (alum), ferric chloride, and polyaluminum chloride (PAC).

Flocculants, on the other hand, are substances that promote the aggregation of smaller flocs into larger, settleable flocs. They help to speed up the sedimentation process and improve the efficiency of solid-liquid separation. Flocculants are typically used in conjunction with coagulants to enhance the overall performance of the water treatment process.

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Related Questions

Which kind of transportation service provider provides convenient door-to-door service between two locations and is capable of carrying most any form of freight? a. Air carrierb. Pipeline carrierc. Truckload carrierd. Railroad carriere. Less-than-truckload carrier

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Transportation service provider provides convenient door-to-door service between two locations and is capable of carrying most any form of freight is (c).Truckload carried is correct option.

A truckload carrier is a kind of transport company that provides door-to-door service between two sites and has the ability to transport almost any kind of freight. These transporters frequently make use of sizable trucks that can handle full truckload (FTL) or less-than-truckload (LTL) delivery of heavy items.

They have the ability to move a variety of commodities, such as bulky items, perishable goods, and other kinds of cargo. Truckload carriers are frequently employed for long-distance transportation and are renowned for their adaptability, convenience, and capacity to move freight directly between two locations without making any stops in between or requiring transfers.

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a heat engine operates by group of answer choices usually having an efficiency equal to the maximum efficiency. transferring energy from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir. always having an efficiency of 100% to conserve energy. usually having an efficiency less than the maximum efficiency. using a temperature difference between two thermal reservoirs.

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The heat engine operates by using a temperature difference between two thermal reservoirs and transferring energy from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir. Usually, the efficiency of a heat engine is less than the maximum efficiency, which is the theoretical limit for the efficiency of the engine.

The important to keep the engine operating within a safe temperature range to prevent damage or failure.  A heat engine operates by using a temperature difference between two thermal reservoirs, transferring energy from a hot reservoir to a cold reservoir. In this process, it usually has an efficiency less than the maximum efficiency, as no engine can achieve 100% efficiency due to energy losses, primarily in the form of heat.

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In a one-dimensional perfectly elastic collision, an object of mass m is traveling with speed v0 in the +x-direction when it strikes an object with mass 3m that is at rest. What are the objects' velocities following the collision?

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In a one-dimensional completely flexible collision, a substance of mass m travels with velocity v0 in the +x direction for mass m and V/2 in an -x direction for mass 3m.

What exactly is motion direction?

This direction of action" is simply the direction of an object's displacement over a short period of time. Because displacement split by this very short time interval approaches instantaneous speed (see Illustration 2.3), instantaneous the speed must point to the path of motion.

Which are the four physics directions?

The four fundamental rules are the east, north, south, and west, which are often denoted by initials such as N, E, S, and W. The east and west directions are perpendicular to the south and the north.

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The head of a golf club moving at 45. 0 m/s strikes a golf ball (mass 46. 0 g) resting on a tee. The effective mass of the clubhead is 220 g. (a) with what speed does the ball leave the tee? (b) with what speed would it leave the tee if you doubled the mass of the clubhead? if you tripled it? what conclusions can you draw about the use of heavy clubs? assume that the collisions are perfectly elastic and that the golfer can bring the heavier clubs up to the same speed at impact. See question 13

Answers

Answer:

We can use the conservation of momentum and energy to solve this problem. Since the collision is perfectly elastic, both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.

Let's first find the initial velocity of the combined club and ball system:

m_clubhead = 220 g = 0.22 kg  (effective mass of the clubhead)

m_ball = 46.0 g = 0.046 kg

v_clubhead = 45.0 m/s

The initial momentum of the system is:

p_i = m_clubhead * v_clubhead = 0.22 kg * 45.0 m/s = 9.90 kg·m/s

Since momentum is conserved, the final momentum of the system is also equal to 9.90 kg·m/s:

p_f = m_clubhead * v_clubhead' + m_ball * v_ball'

where v_clubhead' and v_ball' are the velocities of the clubhead and ball after the collision, respectively.

The initial kinetic energy of the system is:

KE_i = 1/2 * m_clubhead * v_clubhead^2 = 0.5 * 0.22 kg * (45.0 m/s)^2 = 222.75 J

Since kinetic energy is conserved, the final kinetic energy of the system is also equal to 222.75 J:

KE_f = 1/2 * m_clubhead * v_clubhead'^2 + 1/2 * m_ball * v_ball'^2

Now we can solve for v_ball':

p_f = m_clubhead * v_clubhead' + m_ball * v_ball'

9.90 kg·m/s = 0.22 kg * v_clubhead' + 0.046 kg * v_ball'

KE_f = 1/2 * m_clubhead * v_clubhead'^2 + 1/2 * m_ball * v_ball'^2

222.75 J = 0.5 * 0.22 kg * v_clubhead'^2 + 0.5 * 0.046 kg * v_ball'^2

We have two equations and two unknowns (v_clubhead' and v_ball'), so we can solve for v_ball':

v_ball' = (p_f - m_clubhead * v_clubhead') / m_ball

Substituting this expression into the energy conservation equation and solving for v_clubhead', we get:

v_clubhead' = sqrt(2/m_clubhead * (m_ball * v_ball'^2 + KE_i - KE_f))

Now we can use this equation to answer the questions:

(a) With the given data, we get:

v_ball' = (9.90 kg·m/s - 0.22 kg * 45.0 m/s) / 0.046 kg = 93.70 m/s

v_clubhead' = sqrt(2/0.22 * (0.046 kg * (93.70 m/s)^2 + 222.75 J - 222.75 J)) = 45.0 m/s

Therefore, the ball leaves the tee with a speed of 93.70 m/s.

(b) If we double the mass of the clubhead, the effective mass becomes 440 g = 0.44 kg, and the initial momentum of the system doubles to 19.80 kg·m/s. Using the same equations as before, we get:

v_ball' = (19.80 kg·m/s - 0.44 kg * 45.0 m/s) / 0.046 kg = 187.41 m

Explanation:

Given a parallel runtime of 20s on eight cores and a serial runtime of 80s, what is the runtime in seconds on 16 cores assuming the same efficiency (do not include any units in the answer)?

Answers

If we assume the same efficiency, then we can use Amdahl's Law to calculate the new runtime on 16 cores.

Amdahl's Law states that the speedup of a parallel program is limited by the portion of the program that must be executed sequentially. In this case, the portion that must be executed sequentially is (80-20)/80 = 0.75 or 75%. This means that only 25% of the program can be parallelized. Therefore, the speedup we can expect from doubling the number of cores is limited to 1/((1-0.25) + 0.25/8) = 1.85.
Using this speedup, we can calculate the new runtime on 16 cores as 20/1.85 = 10.81 seconds.

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Compression is to crest as rarefaction is to _________.


A. Peak

B. Trough

C. Amplitude

D. Wavelength

Answers

Compression is to crest as rarefaction is to Trough.

Hence, the correct option is B.

Because

In a longitudinal wave, compression refers to the region where the particles are closer together, while rarefaction refers to the region where the particles are farther apart.

The crest and trough, on the other hand, are terms used in transverse waves to describe the highest and lowest points of the wave, respectively. Therefore, in this analogy, rarefaction is equivalent to the trough.

Hence, the correct option is B.

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950-kg satellite orbits the earth at a constant altitude of 90-km. (b) what is the change in the system's kinetic energy?

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The change in the system's kinetic energy of the 950-kg satellite orbiting the earth at a constant altitude of 90 km is zero.

This is because the satellite is orbiting at a constant altitude, meaning its distance from the Earth's center is constant, and therefore, its potential energy remains constant.  When the altitude is constant, there is no change in the system's kinetic energy, as the satellite maintains the same speed and distance from the Earth. Therefore, the change in kinetic energy is 0. Since the total energy of a satellite in orbit is constant, any change in potential energy is compensated by an equal and opposite change in kinetic energy. Therefore, since the potential energy is constant, the kinetic energy must also be constant.

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c) What if nonconservative forces, such as friction, also act within the system? In that case, the total mechanical energy will change. The law of conservation of energy is then written as

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The law of conservation of energy is then written as the totals mechanical energy of a system, including any nonconservative forces, is conserved only if the work done by nonconservative forces is equal to the change in mechanical energy.

The law of conservation of energy states that the total energy in a system is constant, meaning that energy cannot be created or destroyed, only transferred or converted from one form to another.

However, in the presence of nonconservative forces like friction, the total mechanical energy of the system will change over time.

In such cases, the law of conservation of energy is modified to state that the total energy of the system, including both kinetic and potential energy, is conserved, but the sum of the kinetic and potential energy may decrease due to energy lost as heat or work done against nonconservative forces.

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The fusible plug that is in all chlorine containers?
a. May be used as a tap for the chlorine source
b. Should be removed after the cylinders are empty
c. Should never be removed or tampered with
d. Should be removed prior to withdrawing chlorine from the container

Answers

d. Should be removed prior to withdrawing chlorine from the container. The fusible plug is designed to melt at a specific temperature in case of a fire, releasing the pressure inside the container and preventing an explosion.

However, if the plug is still in place when chlorine is being withdrawn, it can cause the chlorine to react with the metal plug and potentially create a dangerous situation. Therefore, it is important to remove the fusible plug before withdrawing chlorine from the container. Removing or tampering with the fusible plug could lead to hazardous situations when withdrawing chlorine. Always follow proper safety guidelines and procedures when handling chlorine containers.

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A man drops a cup from cretain height which breaks in to pieces what's energy changes are involved?

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There are various energy changes that occur when a guy drops a cup from a specific height. The cup's elevation above the ground gives it potential energy.

This potential energy is transformed into kinetic energy, the energy of motion, as it descends. The kinetic energy is transmitted to the cup as it falls to the ground, breaking it into pieces. This process involves the conversion of kinetic energy into thermal energy from the collision and friction of the shattered pieces with the ground as well as potential energy of the broken pieces. When a cup breaks, energy is released in the form of sound waves, which are then transmitted from the cup to the surrounding air.

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Question 20
Which one of the following is potentially the most important in terms of global warming?
a. carbon dioxide
b. nitrous oxide
c. methane
d. chlorofluorocarbons

Answers

The correct answer is c. methane. While carbon dioxide is the most abundant greenhouse gas, methane is much more potent, with a global warming potential 28 times greater than carbon dioxide over a 100-year period.

Methane is produced by a variety of sources, including natural wetlands, livestock, landfills, and fossil fuel production. Reducing methane emissions is a crucial step in mitigating the effects of global warming.


Potentially, methane (c) can be considered the most important in terms of global warming due to its high heat-trapping capacity, although carbon dioxide is the most abundant greenhouse gas.

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Answer:

chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs)

Explanation:

It has the highest GWP (Global Warming Potential). Got it right!

Have a good one!

Question 30
Those involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted TSD facilities must receive __ of initial training.
a. 16 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 40 hours
d. 8 hours

Answers

Those involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted TSD facilities must receive 40 hours of initial training. The correct answer is (c).

Hazardous waste operations involve handling and managing potentially dangerous substances, and it is essential that employees are adequately trained to ensure their safety and the safety of others. OSHA's Hazardous Waste Operations and Emergency

Response (HAZWOPER) standard requires employees involved in hazardous waste operations at permitted Treatment, Storage, and Disposal (TSD) facilities to receive a minimum of 40 hours of initial training. This training includes topics such as hazard recognition, personal protective equipment, and emergency response procedures. Additionally, employees who are expected to respond to emergency situations must receive an additional 8 hours of specialized training. The correct answer is (c).

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(II) At the top of a pole vault, an athlete actually can do work pushing on the pole before releasing it. Suppose the pushing force that the pole exerts back on the athlete is given by acting over a distance of 0.20 How much work is done on the athlete

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The question is asking for the work done on the athlete by the pushing force of the pole. The pushing force that the pole exerts back on the athlete is given as an external force. The work done by an external force is calculated using the formula W = Fd, where W is work, F is force, and d is the distance over which the force acts. In this case, the pushing force of the pole is given as an external force of unknown magnitude, but we are given the distance over which it acts, which is 0.20 meters. Therefore, we can use this distance along with the formula W = Fd to calculate the work done on the athlete:
W = Fd

We don't know the value of F, so we cannot solve for W directly. However, we do know that the pushing force of the pole is equal and opposite to the force exerted by the athlete on the pole. This is because of Newton's third law of motion, which states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. So, we can assume that the force exerted by the athlete on the pole is also equal in magnitude to the pushing force of the pole, but in the opposite direction. Therefore, we can rewrite the formula for work as:
W = -Fd
where the negative sign indicates that the work done is in the opposite direction to the force.
Now, we can substitute the given values into the formula to find the work done on the athlete:
W = -(F)(0.20)

We don't know the value of F, but we can assume that it is a positive value since the pole is pushing back on the athlete. Therefore, the negative sign in the formula will make the work done negative, indicating that it is in the opposite direction to the pushing force of the pole. Without knowing the value of F, we cannot calculate the exact amount of work done on the athlete. However, we can say that the work done will be negative and proportional to the magnitude of the pushing force of the pole, multiplied by the distance over which it acts.

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a ____ pressure usually indicates clearing weather or fair weather. a. steadily rising b. constant c. fluctuating d. steadily falling

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A steadily rising pressure usually indicates clearing weather or fair weather.

In general, changes in barometric pressure can be used to predict changes in weather conditions. A rising barometric pressure usually indicates that the weather is clearing up or will remain fair, while a falling barometric pressure often indicates that stormy weather is on the way.

A steadily rising pressure indicates that the air pressure is increasing and the weather is likely to improve or remain stable. In contrast, a steadily falling pressure indicates that the air pressure is decreasing, which could indicate an approaching storm or other atmospheric disturbance. Fluctuating pressure and constant pressure are not necessarily indicative of any specific weather conditions.

So, the correct answer is a. steadily rising.

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A steadily rising pressure usually indicates clearing weather or fair weather.

The pressure is an important factor in predicting weather conditions.

A barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure and it is typically reported in inches of mercury or millibars.

Changes in atmospheric pressure can provide important clues about the weather conditions that are expected to occur in the near future.

When the atmospheric pressure is steadily rising, it typically indicates that clearing weather or fair weather is on the way.

This is because high pressure systems generally bring with them clear skies and dry air, which can make for pleasant weather conditions.

In contrast, when the atmospheric pressure is steadily falling, it is typically an indication that stormy weather is on the way.

This is because low pressure systems generally bring with them cloudy skies and moist air, which can lead to precipitation and thunderstorms.

A constant pressure may indicate that the current weather conditions are likely to persist for a while.

However, it is important to note that changes in wind patterns or temperature can still affect the weather, even if the pressure remains constant.

Fluctuating pressure can be an indication that weather conditions are likely to change rapidly.

For example, if the pressure is dropping quickly, it may indicate that a storm is approaching.

In summary, understanding the relationship between atmospheric pressure and weather conditions can be helpful in predicting the weather.

A steadily rising pressure usually indicates clearing weather or fair weather, while a steadily falling pressure usually indicates stormy weather.

A constant pressure may indicate that the current weather conditions are likely to persist, while fluctuating pressure can be an indication that weather conditions are likely to change rapidly.

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Directions Concept Builder Charge and Charging

Answers

The foam square become charged because C, Electrons were removed from it.

What makes a fur or foam charged?

Electrons can move from one material to the other when two dissimilar materials are rubbed together, leading to an unbalanced charge. One substance may become positively charged as a result of losing electrons, while the other acquires electrons and becomes negatively charged.

The foam square and animal fur in this experiment had a negative charge on the foam and a positive charge on the fur due to the flow of electrons between the two materials due to friction.

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How will the water affect the speed at which sounds reach his ears?
A. Water will not affect the speed of sound.
B. The sound will travel faster than in air. C. The sound will travel slower than in air.​

Answers

The answer is C, because water is denser, therefore it will take a longer time to reach the ears

a first-order lag transfer function has a break frequency of 3 rad/s. what is the magnitude (in db) of the response at 6 rad/s?

Answers

To find the magnitude of the response at 6 rad/s for a first-order lag transfer function with a break frequency of 3 rad/s, we can use the formula:

|H(jω)| = 20log(1/√(1+(ω/ωb)^2))

where |H(jω)| is the magnitude of the transfer function, ω is the frequency of interest (in this case, 6 rad/s), and ωb is the break frequency (in this case, 3 rad/s).

Plugging in the values, we get:

|H(j6)| = 20log(1/√(1+(6/3)^2))
|H(j6)| = 20log(1/√(1+4))
|H(j6)| = 20log(1/√5)
|H(j6)| = 20log(0.447)
|H(j6)| = -8.5 dB

Therefore, the magnitude of the response at 6 rad/s for a first-order lag transfer function with a break frequency of 3 rad/s is -8.5 dB.

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How would i solve this/Find the force applied

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(a). The skier slides approximately 9.89 meters along the hill before stopping.

(b). The magnitude of the force stopping the skier is approximately 12.53 N.

(a) Work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy:

[tex]W_{net} = \Delta K[/tex]

At the bottom of the hill, the skier has a kinetic energy of:

[tex]K_i = (1/2)mv^2 = (1/2)(73 kg)(4.2 m/s)^2 = 1326.18 J[/tex]

The skier has a gravitational potential energy of:

[tex]U_f = mgh = (73 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)[/tex](sin 9°)(x)

The net work done on the skier is equal to change in gravitational potential energy:

[tex]W_{net} = \Delta U = U_f - U_i[/tex]

Solving for x :

x = (K_i - U_f) / (mg sin 9°) = [tex](1326.18 J - (73 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)[/tex](sin 9°)(x)) / ([tex]73 kg[/tex])([tex]9.8 m/s^2[/tex])(sin 9°)

x = 9.89 m

(b)  Using trigonometry, we can calculate force:

F_parallel = mg sin 9° =[tex](73 kg)(9.8 m/s^2)[/tex](sin 9°) = 12.53 N

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(240) What size overcurrent protection device is required for a 45 ampere continuous load? The circuit is in a raceway with 14 current carrying conductors.

Answers

For a 45A continuous load in a circuit with 14 current-carrying conductors, a 60A overcurrent protection device is required (NEC guidelines).

To decide the size of the overcurrent security gadget expected for a 45-ampere nonstop burden in a circuit with 14 current-conveying guides, you want to think about two factors: the consistent burden and the quantity of current-conveying guides.

According to NEC rules, for a nonstop burden, the overcurrent security gadget ought to be evaluated no less than 125% of the heap, which for this situation would be:

125% x 45 amps = 56.25 amps

Furthermore, for a circuit with multiple current-conveying guides, the ampacity of the guides should be changed by a derating factor. According to NEC Table 310.15(B)(3)(a), when there are 14 current-conveying guides in a raceway, the derating factor is 70%. Subsequently, the changed ampacity of the guides would be:

45 amps x 0.7 = 31.5 amps

Since the changed ampacity of the guides is not exactly the base required size of the overcurrent assurance gadget (56.25 amps), the base size overcurrent insurance gadget expected for this circuit would be 60 amps.

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Question 21
The major impact of global warning would most likely be in:
a. a general decrease in human skin cancer
b. an increase in human skin cancer
c. an alteration of world-wide rainfall
d. a melting in the polar cap

Answers

The correct answer is option c, an alteration of world-wide rainfall. Global warming can lead to changes in weather patterns and precipitation, causing alterations in rainfall levels and distribution.

It can also lead to melting of glaciers and ice caps, which can contribute to sea level rise and affect rainfall patterns. While skin cancer rates can potentially be impacted by global warming due to increased exposure to UV radiation, it is not the major impact that would be expected. Melting of the polar cap is a consequence of global warming.


The major impact of "global warming" (not "global warning") would most likely be in:
d. a melting of the polar ice caps.


While global warming can also have effects on skin cancer rates and rainfall patterns, the most significant and widely recognized impact is the melting point .

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(240) A department store ( continuous load) feeder supplies a lighting load of 103 ampere. The minimum size overcurrent protection device permitted for this feeder is _____ ampere.

Answers

A department store ( continuous load) feeder supplies a lighting load of 103 ampere. The minimum size overcurrent protection device permitted for this feeder is 150 ampere.

In the event that the base size overcurrent security gadget allowed for a retail chain feeder providing a constant lighting heap of 103 amps is 150 amps, it wouldn't be consistent with the NEC rules. According to NEC, the overcurrent assurance gadget for consistent burdens ought to be evaluated somewhere around 125% of the ceaseless burden, which for this situation would be:

Least size = 125% x 103 amps

Least size = 128.75 amps

Consequently, a base size overcurrent insurance gadget of 150 amps wouldn't be satisfactory for shielding the circuit from over-burdening or short-circuiting, and it would represent a security risk. It is critical to adhere to the NEC rules to guarantee the wellbeing of the electrical framework and the structure tenants.

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A ΔV = 2.7 V battery loses E = 6 J of energy each day (t = 24 hrs) powering a cell phone.
Part (a) Input an expression for the average current, I, supplied to the phone. Expression :
I = __________________________________________
Select from the variables below to write your expression. Note that all variables may not be required. α, β, ΔV, θ, a, d, E, g, h, j, k, m, P, S, t
Part (b) What is the current in Amperes?
Numeric : A numeric value is expected and not an expression. I =

Answers

The current supplied to the phone is 93.75 milliamperes (mA) or 0.09375 Amperes (A).

Part (a) Expression for the average current, I, supplied to the phone:

We can use the formula for electrical power:

Power = current x voltage

The energy lost by the battery each day is given by:

Energy = Power x time

E = P x t

Substituting Power = I x ΔV and time t = 24 hrs, we get:

E = I x ΔV x t

I = E / (ΔV x t)

Therefore, the expression for the average current supplied to the phone is:

I = E / (ΔV x t)

Part (b) Numeric value for the current in Amperes:

Substituting the given values, we get:

I = 6 J / (2.7 V x 24 hrs)

I = 0.09375 A or 93.75 mA

Therefore, the current supplied to the phone is 93.75 milliamperes (mA) or 0.09375 Amperes (A).

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The Ptolemaic model probably persisted for all these reasons EXCEPT:
A. It had the authority of aristotle behind it
B. It explain why stellar parallax was not observed by the greeks
C. It used perfect circles, which appealed to geometry.
D. It was consistent with the doctrines of the catholic church.
E. It accounted well for galileo's observations of the phase cycle of venus

Answers

E. It accounted well for Galileo's observations of the phase cycle of Venus. It accounted well for Galileo's observations of the phase cycle of Venus. The Ptolemaic model was an Earth-centered model of the universe that persisted for centuries despite its inaccuracies.

It was supported by Aristotle's authority and its use of perfect circles in its geometry. Additionally, it was consistent with the doctrines of the Catholic Church. However, it was unable to explain why stellar parallax was not observed by the Greeks. This fact was eventually used as evidence to support the heliocentric model of the universe proposed by Copernicus. Although Galileo's observations of the phase cycle of Venus were significant in advancing the heliocentric model, they were not a reason for the persistence of the Ptolemaic model.

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(310-15(A)(16) A No. 2 TW conductor is installed in a location where the ambient temperature is expected to be 102F. The temperature correction factor for conductor ampacity in this location is _____.

Answers

2 TW conductor is installed in a location where the ambient temperature is expected to be 102F and the temperature correction factor for conductor ampacity in this location is 0.82.

The correction factor depends on the type of insulation, the size of the conductor, the number of current-carrying conductors in a raceway or cable, and the type of installation.

The ability of a conductor to carry current decreases, which can result in potential hazards such as overheating and fire. In the case of the 2 TW conductor installed in a location with an ambient temperature of 102°F, the temperature correction factor of 0.82 indicates that the ampacity of the conductor must be reduced by 18%.

This reduction helps ensure that the conductor is not overloaded and can safely carry the required current without exceeding its maximum temperature rating.

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Question 38 Marks: 1 Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated everyChoose one answer. a. 1 to 2 hours b. 12 hours c. 6 hours d. 24 hours

Answers

The correct answer is c. 6 hours. Water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every 6 hours to maintain safe and clean water conditions for children. This helps to prevent the growth of harmful bacteria and other contaminants.

Wading pools are shallow pools typically used by children for play and recreation. Because the water in these pools is often not treated with chemicals like chlorine, it is important to ensure that the water is recirculated frequently to maintain its cleanliness and prevent the spread of waterborne illnesses. According to industry standards and guidelines, the water in wading pools should be completely recirculated every 6 hours. This helps to ensure that the water is adequately filtered and treated, and that any contaminants or bacteria are removed before they can cause harm to swimmers.

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What type of electromagnetic radiation is light with a wavelength of 10 meters? Use the electromagnetic spectrum show.

Answers

The type of electromagnetic radiation is Radiowaves which have a wavelength of 10 meters.

Since these waves have a longer wavelength, they are used for communication over long distances. Some examples of sources that emit these radiations - radiowaves - are TV and radio stations, cell phone towers, as well as satellites.

Radio waves are very beneficial as they can travel long distances without any power losses and getting absorbed or scattered by the atmosphere. Also, radio waves are non-ionizing and generally considered safe for human exposure. They are widely used in many applications, including broadcasting, navigation, remote sensing, and medical imaging.

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A 5.00-kg sphere is moving at a speed of 4.00 m/s. An identical sphere is at rest. The two spheres collide. The first sphere moves off at a 60.0° angle to the left of its original path. The second sphere moves off in a direction 90.0° to the right of the first sphere’s final path. Assuming no friction, what are the speeds of the two spheres as they separate?

Answers

Answer:C

Explanation:

You should just have to do the math and will get you C

bob is pushing a box across the floor at a constant speed of 1.1m/s m / s , applying a horizontal force whose magnitude is 55n n . alice is pushing an identical box across the floor at a constant speed of 2.2m/s m / s , applying a horizontal force. a) what is the magnitude of the force that alice is applying to the box?

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The boxes are identical and they have the same mass. Also, since both boxes are moving at a constant speed, their acceleration is zero. Therefore, the force that Alice is applying to the box is also 55 N.

To find the magnitude of the force that Alice is applying to the box, we need to use the equation: force = mass x acceleration

Since both boxes are identical, they have the same mass. Also, since both boxes are moving at a constant speed, their acceleration is zero. Therefore, the force that Alice is applying to the box is also 55 N.

To find the magnitude of the force Alice is applying, we should first understand that the force applied is proportional to the velocity when the boxes are moving at a constant speed. Since Alice's box moves at 2.2 m/s and Bob's box moves at 1.1 m/s, Alice's box is moving twice as fast as Bob's box.

To maintain this constant speed, the force applied must also be doubled. Since Bob is applying a force of 55 N, Alice must apply a force of 2 times 55 N, which is equal to 110 N. Therefore, the magnitude of the force Alice is applying to the box is 110 N.

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a mass hangs from the ceiling by a string. if the mass is doubled, by what factor does the travel time for a wave pulse traveling from the mass to the ceiling and back decrease? type your answer here

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When a mass hangs from the ceiling by a string and the mass is doubled, the travel time for a wave pulse traveling from the mass to the ceiling and back does not decrease by any factor.

The travel time for a wave pulse traveling from the mass to the ceiling and back depends on the length of the string and the gravitational force acting on the mass. If the mass is doubled, the gravitational force acting on it will also double. This will cause the string to stretch and become slightly longer, resulting in a longer travel time for the wave pulse. Therefore, the travel time will not decrease by any factor, but will actually increase slightly due to the increased gravitational force and stretching of the string.


When a mass hangs from the ceiling by a string and the mass is doubled, the travel time for a wave pulse traveling from the mass to the ceiling and back does not decrease by any factor. This is because the wave speed on the string depends only on the tension in the string and its linear mass density, and not on the mass of the object hanging from it. Therefore, doubling the mass does not affect the travel time of the wave pulse.

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(362-2) Electrical nonmetallic tubing is composed of a material that is resistant to moisture, chemical atmospheres, and is ______.

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Electrical nonmetallic tubing is composed of a material that is resistant to moisture, chemical atmospheres, and is flame r etardant.

This statement is taken from the National Electrical Code (NEC) 362.2, which outlines the requirements for electrical nonmetallic tubing (ENT). ENT is a type of conduit that is commonly used to protect and route electrical wiring in residential and commercial buildings.

The material used in ENT is typically a type of thermoplastic polymer that is resistant to moisture, chemicals, and other environmental hazards. In addition, the material used in ENT must also be flame r etardant to prevent the spread of fire in the event of an electrical fault or other hazard. It is important to use ENT that meets the NEC requirements to ensure that it provides adequate protection and safety for electrical wiring in buildings.

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