The primary worry of chiropractors is breaches of scope of practice. Several massage therapists were employed by a chiropractor before being sacked.
What does a chiropractor actually do when someone interviews them for a massage?A chiropractor is qualified to use spinal adjustments to ease joint and muscle discomfort in order to ensure your body is operating as efficiently as possible. To the joints and muscles that are in discomfort, these spinal adjustments will improve blood flow and nerve conductivity.
How are physiotherapists and chiropractors different from one another?You can increase your mobility with the assistance of a physical therapist by doing stretches, exercises, and, in some cases, getting some manipulations done. To assist your body in healing itself, chiropractors manipulate and adjust your spine.
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What is the ICD-10 code for osteomyelitis of foot?
Acute osteomyelitis also affected the right foot and ankle. ICD-10-CM code M86.171 is an invoicing code that can be used to identify a diagnosis for reimbursement.
What is the term for diagnostic in medicine?
The process of identifying the disease or condition that accounts for a person's signs and symptoms is known as medical diagnostic (abbreviated Dx[1] or DS). It is most frequently referred to as a diagnostic, with the implied medical context. A person's physical exam and history are often used to gather the data needed for diagnosis.
A diagnostic test is what?
Any medical test carried out to assist in the identification or diagnosis of disease is referred to as a diagnostic test. Prognostic information about patients with diagnosed diseases can also be obtained from diagnostic tests. processing of the solutions, discoveries, or other outcomes.
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A client has a closed chest drainage system in place. How would the nurse determine the amount of chest tube drainage?
1 Aspirate the drainage from the collection chamber.
2 Clamp the chest tube and empty the fluid from the collection chamber.
3 Refer to the date and time markings on the outside of the collection chamber.
4 Replace the existing system with a new one to access the drainage in the existing system.
the nurse determine the amount of chest tube drainage by Clamp the chest tube and empty the fluid from the collection chamber.
What is the purpose of a closed chest drainage system?A closed chest drainage system is used to remove excess air, blood, or fluid from the pleural space.
What are some potential complications of a chest tube?Complications of a chest tube can include infection, dislodgement, blockage, or injury to surrounding tissues or organs.
What could be the potential risks associated with aspirating the drainage from the collection chamber?Aspirating the drainage from the collection chamber could introduce air into the chest tube, leading to a pneumothorax, or cause infection if the sterile technique is not followed. It is not recommended to aspirate the drainage from the collection chamber.
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what maneuver should be used to open the airway of an unresponsive patient with suspected trauma?
Place 1 hand on the person's forehead and elevate the tip of their chin with 2 fingers to open the airway. Back towards the neck. Avoid pressing on the mouth's floor as so will cause the tongue to rise and restrict the airway.
What exactly is trauma?Trauma is an emotional response to a tragic event, such an accident, a murder, or a natural disaster. Shock and denial are normal feelings after an occurrence. Over time, reactions may result in unstable feelings, foggy memory, strained relationships, and perhaps even physical pain like headaches or nausea.
What brings on trauma?An extraordinarily stressful experience that resulting in emotional and psychological trauma severely impairs daily functioning. This could involve incidents like a physical attack, psychological or verbal abuse, a serious illness, a terrorist act, or a natural disaster.
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Which approach should the nurse take when interacting with a caregiver of a child with suspected maltreatment?
]A. Convey genuine concern and understanding.
B. Ask questions that require yes or no answers.
C. Agree with the caregiver's statements to obtain more information.
D. Document the details of the conversation by paraphrasing.
The correct option A. Convey genuine concern and understanding, is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the maltreatment of child.
Explain about the cure for the maltreatment of child?In the context of a connection of responsibility, trust, or power, it includes all forms of physical and/or emotional maltreatment, sexual abuse, neglect, carelessness, and commercial or even other exploitation that have the actual or potential effect of harming the child's health, continued existence, development, or dignity.
The ultimate objective is to halt child abuse before it occurs. Techniques that help parents and impart good parenting techniques are crucial. Good communication, effective discipline, and attending to children's emotional and physical needs are all examples of positive parenting techniques.Thus, convey genuine understanding and concern is the strategy the nurse should employ while speaking with a parent of a kid who has been the victim of alleged abuse.
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This software development methodology is more appropriate when user specifications are unclear or are constantly changing. a. Agile b. Waterfall. Agile.
a. Agile. By encouraging developers to accept changes in customer needs, even if they come in the final phases of the development cycle, this practise promotes trust.
Testing should prioritise features if needs are constantly changing; it should also make sure that all common flows are tested to the greatest extent possible.The method prioritises prompt delivery, flexibility, and collaboration over top-down management and adherence to a predetermined plan. Agile approaches involve continuous feedback, giving team members the chance to adapt to problems as they appear and stakeholders the chance to communicate consistently.
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The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of what percentage of a healthy population group?
a) 33%
b) 50%
c) 75%
d) 97-98%
The Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) are estimated to meet the nutrient needs of 97-98% of a healthy population group
Define Recommended Dietary Allowances.
The Food and Nutrition Board has determined the amounts of essential nutrient intake known as Recommended Dietary Allowances (RDAs) to be sufficient to satisfy the known nutrient requirements of nearly all healthy individuals.
The value to be used in guiding healthy people to attain adequate nutrient intake is the Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA). It is intended to be an average intake over time; daily variance should be anticipated. RDAs are determined independently for groups of people in particular life stages, and they occasionally vary between men and women.
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when red blood cells are misshapen with pointed ends, the disorder is known as:
When red blood cells are misshapen with pointed ends, the disorder is known as Sickle cell anemia.
Sickle cell anemia is an inherited blood disorder that affects the hemoglobin in red blood cells, causing them to become stiff, sticky, and crescent-shaped. Sickle cell anemia is caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene. This change in shape can cause the red blood cells to clump together and block small blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow and oxygen delivery to various organs and tissues in the body. Sickle cell anemia can cause a range of complications, including pain, anemia, organ damage, and increased risk of infections.
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A retrospective review as part of quality improvement activities are conducted after the patient has been ____.
admitted
released from the surgical recovery room
cleared for surgery
discharged
A retrospective review which is the part of quality improvement activities is conducted after the patient has been (4) discharged.
Retrospective review is another name for the medical record review. In this process a revision of all the medical records is carried out after the provision of all the medical services to the patient. This review is conducted to estimate the amount of coverage that will be provided to the patient after the treatment.
Quality improvement in the healthcare organizations is the process of performing several actions in order to monitor, assess and especially improve the quality standards of the healthcare process. These improvements are done in both functional and operational areas.
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what is the main purpose of an ebp poster?
The goal is to instantly apply the most recent research to clinical practice, along with clinical expertise and patient preferences, so that nurses may make informed decisions about patient care.
What is ebp poster?In order to advance clinical practice, an evidence-based practice poster should detail the methods used to find and apply the evidence that guides practice change, as well as the outcomes of those efforts.
'Evidence-Based Practice (EBP) mandates that decisions on medical treatment be supported by the best currently accessible, valid, and pertinent evidence.
These choices should be made by the individuals receiving care, guided by the implicit and explicit knowledge of those providing care, and taking into account the resources that are available.
The objective is to immediately incorporate the most up-to-date research into clinical practice, coupled with clinical knowledge and patient preferences, so nurses can make knowledgeable patient-care decisions (Dang et al., 2022).
Therefore, the goal is to instantly apply the most recent research to clinical practice, along with clinical expertise and patient preferences, so that nurses may make informed decisions about patient care.
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A nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of varicose veins. Which clinical findings can the nurse expect to identify when assessing this client? (Select all that apply.)
Discolored toenails
Correct 2
Reports of leg fatigue
3
Localized heat in a calf
4
Reddened areas on a leg
Correct 5
Tortuous veins in the legs
Correct 6
Pain in lower extremities when standing
When evaluating a client who has been diagnosis with varicose veins, a nurse should look for the following clinical findings: Complaints of leg weariness, Reddened patches on a leg, and Tortuous veins in the legs.
While examining a client who has varicose veins, what clinical findings might the nurse anticipate seeing?Clinical examination of swelling, discolouration, and skin ulcerations is used to make the first diagnosis. Leg heaviness is one of the signs of varicose veins. Itching.
How are venous disorders identified?A doctor may advise a test called a venous Doppler ultrasonography of the leg to identify varicose veins.
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Based on this assessment, what is the most important nursing intervention? A. Establish rapport and trust. B. Assess for hallucinations. C. Maintain adequate
The most important nursing intervention in this assessment is to establish rapport and trust. This is essential for providing the patient with a safe and comfortable environment in which to discuss their mental health concerns and any potential issues they may have.
What is health concerns ?Health concerns refer to any issue or concern related to one’s physical, mental, or social wellbeing. Health concerns can range from the common cold, to more serious and chronic conditions such as heart disease, diabetes, and cancer. Mental health concerns can include depression, anxiety, stress, and addiction. Social health concerns may involve lack of access to resources such as healthcare, education, and nutrition, as well as social exclusion or isolation.
Establishing rapport and trust will also help the nurse to gain a better understanding of the patient's needs, which can then be addressed in an appropriate and effective manner.
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The action of hydrochloric acid in the stomach on protein results in _____. a. condensation b. increased alkalinity c. decreased enzyme activity
The action of hydrochloric acid in the stomach on protein results in condensation.
What are the actions of hydrochloric acid in stomach?
Hydrochloric acid, which is secreted by the stomach, lowers the pH of the stomach contents and creates an acidic environment. This acidic environment is necessary for the activation of the enzyme pepsin, which breaks down protein molecules into smaller peptides. In this process, the hydrochloric acid denatures the protein, which means it disrupts the protein's three-dimensional structure by breaking the hydrogen bonds and other weak interactions that hold the protein together.
As a result of this denaturation, the protein molecules become more susceptible to the action of pepsin, which cleaves the peptide bonds between the amino acid residues. The cleavage of these bonds leads to the condensation of the smaller peptides into larger polypeptides.
HCl activates pepsinogen, an inactive precursor of the enzyme pepsin. Pepsinogen is secreted by the chief cells of the stomach lining and gets converted into pepsin in the presence of HCl. Pepsin is a protease enzyme that breaks down the peptide bonds between amino acids in proteins. HCl is highly acidic and has a bactericidal effect on the microorganisms that may be present in the food we eat. This is an important defense mechanism that protects us from harmful bacteria, viruses, and other pathogens.
HCl helps to convert the ferrous form of dietary iron into a more absorbable form called ferric iron. This is important for the body to absorb iron from the food we eat. HCl in the stomach stimulates the release of secretin, a hormone that regulates the pH of the duodenum (the first part of the small intestine) and pancreatic secretions.
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a nurse is caring for a 16-year-old client who reports dysmenorrhea and asks about alternative therapies for treatment. which of the following statements should the nurse make?
Answer:
Explanation:
As a nurse, when a 16-year-old client reports dysmenorrhea and asks about alternative therapies for treatment, you could provide the following statement:
"There are several alternative therapies that have been shown to help alleviate menstrual pain. Some of these include heat therapy, massage, acupuncture, and herbal supplements such as ginger or turmeric. However, it is important to note that the effectiveness of these treatments can vary depending on the individual and the severity of their symptoms. It is also important to talk to your healthcare provider before trying any new treatments, especially if you are taking other medications or have any medical conditions. Your healthcare provider can help you determine the best course of action for your individual needs and provide guidance on the use of alternative therapies."
It is important to provide the client with accurate information and to encourage them to speak with their healthcare provider before trying any new treatments. This will help ensure that the client receives safe and effective care that is tailored to their individual needs.
Which auxiliary label should be applied to a Flagyl Rx?
A Flagyl Prescription should have the following auxiliary label: When using this medication, avoid drinking alcohol.
What is the purpose of a Flagyl?An antibiotic called metronidazole (Flagyl) is used to treat a wide range of bacterial and parasite illnesses. The common cold, the flu, or other viral infections won't be helped by it. It is offered as a less expensive generic.Flagyl is what kind of antibiotic?Metronidazole belongs to the group of medications known as nitroimidazole antimicrobials. It acts by preventing bacterial development. The common cold, the flu, or any other viral diseases will not be treated by this medication, which solely treats bacterial infections.What negative consequences does Flagyl have?There may be symptoms such as lightheadedness, headaches, nausea, vomiting, loss of appetite, diarrhea, constipation, or a metallic taste in your mouth. Inform your doctor or pharmacist as soon as possible if any of these side effects persist or get worse. Your urine's color may darken as a result of this drug.learn more about auxiliary label here
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The nurse is reviewing the care of patients with Alzheimer's disease (AD). Which factors are associated with the pathophysiology of this disease? Select all that apply.
A. Beta-amyloid and neuritic plaques
B. Neurofibrillary tangles and tau
C. Autoimmune changes in the myelin sheath
D. Dilation and inflammation of cranial blood vessels
E. Neuronal degeneration and decreased acetylcholine
F. Firing of hyperexcitable neurons throughout the brain
The answer is A,B and E. AD is characterized by neuronal degeneration, reduced cholinergic transmission, beta-amyloid and neuritic plaques.
What is the pathophysiology associated with Alzheimer's disease?
Pathophysiology of Alzheimer Disease
The beta-amyloid deposition and neurofibrillary tangles lead to loss of synapses and neurons, which results in gross atrophy of the affected areas of the brain, typically starting at the mesial temporal lobe.
What are the pathological features of dementia?
The neuropathological hallmarks of Alzheimer disease (AD) include “positive” lesions such as amyloid plaques and cerebral amyloid angiopathy, neurofibrillary tangles, and glial responses, and “negative” lesions such as neuronal and synaptic loss.
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1. Describe the four components of a legal contract. Give an example of a medical scenario where all four of those components are met
The four components of a legal contract are offer, acceptance, consideration, and mutual assent, an example of a medical scenario where all four components of a legal contract are met is when a patient agrees to undergo a surgical procedure.
What is a legal contract?An offer is a promise to do something, acceptance is the agreement by the other party to the terms and conditions, consideration is the exchange of something of value between the parties, and mutual assent means that both parties understand and agree to the terms and conditions, so when the surgeon makes an offer to perform the surgery, which is an example of a legal contract.
Hence, four components of a legal contract are offer, acceptance, consideration, and mutual assent, and an example of a medical scenario is when a patient agrees to undergo a surgical procedure.
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What is the ICD-10 2022 Dizziness?
ICD-Code R42 is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement of Dizziness and Giddiness.
When should you worry about dizziness?Generally, see your doctor if you experience any recurrent, sudden, severe, or prolonged and unexplained dizziness or vertigo. Get emergency medical care if you experience new, severe dizziness or vertigo along with any of the following: Sudden, severe headache. Chest pain.
What is the reason for dizziness?Dizziness has many possible causes, including inner ear disturbance, motion sickness and medication effects. Sometimes it's caused by an underlying health condition, such as poor circulation, infection or injury. The way dizziness makes you feel and your triggers provide clues for possible causes.
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This historic character observes that childbed fever mortality was more common among women treated by physicians and medical students compared with women treated by midwives. Based on his observations, he implemented a hand wash policy that resulted in a decrease in mortality. Name the character that we are talking about.
In this scenario, Dr. Ignaz Semmelweis is the historical figure being discussed.
What is mortality?Mortality is the total number of deaths that take place within a particular population over a specific time frame. It is commonly represented as a mortality rate, or the number of fatalities per 1,000 or 100,000 people per year, which is the number of deaths per unit of population.
Midway through the 1800s, Dr. Semmelweis noticed that compared to midwives, women treated by doctors and medical students had a considerably higher mortality rate from childbed fever. His research led him to the conclusion that the reason for the disparity in mortality rates was because physicians and medical students were doing autopsies on cadavers prior to treating patients, and they were not washing their hands in between these procedures and patient treatment.
Dr. Semmelweis created a hand washing policy for doctors and medical students to address this problem, requiring them to wash their hands with a chlorine solution both before and after each patient examination.
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a client is prescribed gastric lavage after an overdose of acetaminophen. in which position would the nurse place the client when the nasogastric tube is being inserted?
It is correct to place the client in the high fowler position to insert the nasogastric tube.
How is the high fowler position?The patient is partially seated.The seat and back of the chair must form an angle between 45º - 60º.Raised bumps should be lower than the headboard.
The nasogastric tube is a tube used for draining and feeding the patient, it is placed through the nostrils with the destination to the stoma, for this reason, the patient must be in a position that helps this movement, the best position for this is called high fowler.
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A nurse is caring for a client with diarrhea. The nurse anticipates a decrease in which clinical indicator?
A Pulse rate
B Tissue turgor
C Specific gravity
D Body temperature
B) A customer with diarrhea is being treated by a nurse. The nurse expects the clinical indicator for tissue turgor to decline.
Tissue turgor: what is it?The suppleness of your skin is known as skin turgor. Your arm's skin, for instance, should quickly return to its original position after being pinched. Your skin will take longer to restore to its normal position if you have low skin turgor. It is frequently used to determine whether someone is dehydrated.
Poor skin turgor could be a sign of dehydration. A mild squeeze of your skin, typically on your arm or abdomen, is the primary method of determining skin turgor. It could be an indication of dehydration if the skin recovers more slowly than usual. The accuracy of this approach is lacking, though.
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One of the most important factors to consider when supervising a new nurse is:
A. Appropriate bedside manner
B. Knowing how to befriend fellow staff.
C. Understanding how to use the latest technology
D. The ability to recognized the subtle signs that a patient's condition is deteriorating
The ability to recognize the subtle signs that a patient's condition is deteriorating is the most important quality that should be looked at in nurse, the correct option is D.
It is seen that the nurse adopts a maternalistic expert position while the patient adopts a passive one. The ability of patients to make decisions independently is determined by this link, among other factors. One of the factors affecting the patient's autonomy is the nurse-patient connection.
By examining the many forms of interactions, we may develop fresh perspectives on how to comprehend patients' clinical decision-making abilities. Nursing records and nurse discourse analysis have demonstrated that patient-centeredness in our professional practice is not yet fully achieved.
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a client is diagnosed with cancer of the pancreas and is apprehensive and restless. which is the most appropriate initial nursing response?
Giving the client emotional support would be the best initial nursing reaction. Let them share their emotions and worries, actively listen to them, and reassure them that they are not traveling alone.
Client emotional supportA crucial protective factor for navigating the challenges of life is emotional support. A 2022 study discovered that social support increases resiliency in challenging circumstances.
Let them to share their emotions and worries, actively listen to them, and reassure them that they are not traveling alone. To assist patients in coping with their diagnosis and treatment, provide them with resources and support.
In conclusion, living alone, having a tiny social network, and having poor-quality social contacts are all linked to high levels of loneliness.
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you are part of a team responding to a cardiac arrest in the emergency department. the area near the patient's head is crowded by personnel and equipment. which pulse might you palpate to help judge the efficacy of cpr? you are part of a team responding to a cardiac arrest in the emergency department. the area near the patient's head is crowded by personnel and equipment. which pulse might you palpate to help judge the efficacy of cpr? dorsalis pedis artery carotid pulse femoral artery popliteal pulse
In this scenario, the best pulse to palpate to help judge the efficacy of CPR would be the carotid pulse. Palpating the carotid pulse allows the rescuer to assess the rate and quality of the pulse and determine if CPR is being performed effectively.
What is Cardiac arrest?
Cardiac arrest is a sudden loss of effective heart function, which can lead to cessation of blood flow to vital organs and tissues. It is a medical emergency that can be fatal if not treated promptly.
The carotid artery is located in the neck and supplies blood to the brain. During CPR, blood is being manually pumped through the circulatory system, and this can be felt as a pulse in the carotid artery.
The other pulses listed (dorsalis pedis artery, femoral artery, and popliteal pulse) are also important to assess in certain situations, but they may be more difficult to access and assess in a crowded emergency department setting. The carotid pulse is easily accessible and is the recommended pulse to assess during CPR.
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what type of procedure is performed on a tooth that is fully erupted?
A fully erupted tooth can undergo various types of procedures, including fillings, crowns, and root canals, depending on the specific needs of the tooth.
What is a dental filling?A dental filling is a common dental procedure that involves the removal of decayed or damaged tooth material and the replacement of the affected area with a filling material, such as composite resin, amalgam, or gold. Fillings are used to restore the function and integrity of the tooth, prevent further decay, and improve the appearance of the tooth.
What is a dental crown?A dental crown, also known as a cap, is a type of dental restoration that is used to cover a damaged or weakened tooth to improve its strength, shape, size, and appearance. Crowns are typically made of materials such as porcelain, ceramic, or metal, and are custom-made to fit over the existing tooth. Crowns can be used to repair a tooth that has been severely damaged by decay, trauma, or other factors, or to improve the appearance of a tooth that is misshapen or discolored.
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A nurse questions the staff about a change in a client's plan of care. What does this demonstrate? 1. Authority 2. Autonomy 3. Responsibility 4. Accountability.
It is evident that a nurse has decision-making authority when she questions a modification in a client's care plan. This is an illustration of the nurse's power over other employees.
Correct option is, 1.
What function does a nursing care plan serve?A nursing care plan's objective is to record the patient's needs, preferences, and planned medical interventions (or implementations) for addressing those needs. The treatment plan is used to ensure continuity of care and is a part of a patient's health record.
What part do nurses play in the process of change?P By evaluating the need for change, incorporating changes in educational activities, and employing cooperation, facilitation, and problem-solving abilities to assist the change process, the professional nursing development (NPD) practitioner performs the role of a change facilitator.
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The nurse admits a client to the critical care unit with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness. What is the priority nursing action for timely treatment?
a. Assess for the presence of a headache.
b. Assess the patient's general orientation.
c. Determine the patient's drug allergies.
d. Determine the time of symptom onset.
The priority nursing action for timely treatment when a client with new onset of slurred speech and right-sided weakness is admitted to the critical care unit is option D) Determine the time of symptom onset.
Why is it important for a nurse to determine the time of symptom onset?It is critical for the nurse to determine the time of symptom onset to determine if the patient is a candidate for thrombolytic therapy. The nurse should immediately obtain this information and report it to the healthcare provider to facilitate prompt treatment.
What is thrombolytic therapy?Thrombolytic therapy is used to dissolve blood clots that have formed inside blood vessels. It is commonly used to treat acute myocardial infarction, ischemic stroke, and pulmonary embolism. It works by administering medications, such as alteplase or tenecteplase, that activate the body's natural clot-dissolving mechanisms.
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a 70-year-old patient with decompensated copd is admitted to the hospital with acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma. what diagnosis(es) code(s) is (are) reported?
A 70-year-old patient with decompensated COPD is admitted to the hospital with acute exacerbation of bronchial asthma. J44.1 and J45.901 are the diagnosis codes.
What is diagnosis code?To categorize and identify illnesses, disorders, symptoms, poisonings, negative effects of medications and chemicals, injuries, and other causes for patient contacts, diagnostic codes are employed in the medical field.
Diagnostic coding refers to the act of converting textual descriptions of ailments, injuries, and diseases into codes that fall under a certain categorization. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease is known as COPD. Search for Asthma, asthmatic in the ICD-10-CM Alphabetic Index, which will direct you to J44.1.
Another way to find the code is to search search Disease/lung/obstructive (chronic)/with/acute/exacerbation NEC leading you to code J44.1. If relevant, there is a note with instructions under category J44 to code the kind of asthma. J45.901 is a report of asthma. Check the Tabular List's code selection.
Therefore, the diagnosis codes are J44.1 and J45.901.
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The nurse is creating an education plan for a patient who underwent a nephrectomy for the treatment of a renal tumor. What should the nurse include in the teaching plan?
A) The importance of increased fluid intake
B) Signs and symptoms of rejection
C) Inspection and care of the incision
D) Techniques for preventing metastasis
The proper response from the following statements is C) Examination and care of the incision.
What is nephrectomy?An operation called a nephrectomy involves the surgical removal of the kidney. A kidney tumor, kidney disease, kidney injury, or the desire to give a kidney for transplantation are only a few of the possible causes for doing this. There are two basic types of nephrectomy: radical nephrectomy, which entails removing the entire kidney along with the tissues and structures around it, and partial nephrectomy, which only removes a portion of the kidney.
The patient will have a surgical incision following a nephrectomy, which needs to be taken care of to prevent infection and encourage healing. On how to clean the wound, what signs and symptoms to look out for in terms of infection, and when to contact the healthcare professional if there are any concerns, the nurse should give thorough instructions.
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What are challenge trials for COVID?
Challenge trials, often referred to as human challenge trials, are a form of clinical research where volunteers are purposefully exposed to a pathogen, such as the virus that causes COVID-19.
To research the effects of COVID-19 on the body, to investigate the illness and evaluate the efficacy of novel therapies or vaccinations, a challenge trial would include purposefully exposing healthy volunteers who are at low risk of serious disease or death to a tiny, controlled dose of the virus.
The COVID-19 challenge trials are contentious because they expose participants to a potentially fatal virus, even if the risk is minimal. Challenge trials, according to some experts, might expedite the development of viable medicines and vaccines.
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what is tylenol active ingredient?
Several over-the-counter (OTC) as well as prescription medications contain acetaminophen as one of their tylenol active ingredients. It lowers temperature and eases pain.
Explain about the Acetaminophen?Several over-the-counter (OTC) as well as prescription medications contain acetaminophen as one of their active ingredients.
It lowers temperature and eases pain. Moreover, acetaminophen can be found in medications that also contain other active components and are used to treat allergies, cough, common cold, flu, and insomnia. Acetaminophen is a common constituent in prescription drugs that are used to alleviate mild to severe pain. If used in excess, acetaminophen can seriously harm the liver.The three most popular painkillers available at pharmacies are Tylenol, Advil, and Aleve. The active substance in each of the three drugs varies, yet they can all make a youngster feel better. Acetaminophen is present in Tylenol, ibuprofen is present in Advil as well as Motrin, and naproxen is present in Aleve.To know more about the acetaminophen, here
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