a city's transit authority serves 187,000 commuters daily when the fare is $1.80. market research has determined that every penny decrease in the fare will result in 1,100 new riders. what fare will maximize revenue?

Answers

Answer 1

The fare that will maximize revenue is $1.701.

To maximize revenue, we need to find the fare that will generate the highest total revenue. Let's start by calculating the current total revenue:

Total revenue at $1.80 fare = 187,000 x $1.80 = $335,400

Now, we need to determine the impact on revenue of a one-penny decrease in fare. According to the problem, for every one-penny decrease in fare, we can expect an additional 1,100 new riders. Therefore, the revenue from the new riders can be calculated as:

New revenue = 1,100 x ($1.80 - $0.01) = $1,979

However, we also need to consider the revenue lost from the existing riders who switch to the lower fare. Since the fare is decreasing by one penny, the loss in revenue per rider is also one penny. Therefore, the total revenue lost from the existing riders can be calculated as:

Revenue lost from existing riders = 187,000 x $0.01 = $1,870

The net increase in revenue from the new riders will be:

Net increase in revenue = New revenue - Revenue lost from existing riders

Net increase in revenue = $1,979 - $1,870 = $109

So for every one-penny decrease in fare, the net increase in revenue is $109. To find the fare that maximizes revenue, we need to keep decreasing the fare by one penny until the net increase in revenue is zero or negative.

Let's use a formula to find the optimal fare:

Optimal fare = current fare - (net increase in revenue / increase in riders per penny)

Optimal fare = $1.80 - ($109 / 1,100)

Optimal fare = $1.80 - $0.099

Optimal fare = $1.701.

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Related Questions

19. Many people believe that monopolies charge any price they wantto without affecting sales. In fact, the output and sales level fora profit-maximizing monopoly is codetermined with price where
Multiple Choice
marginal cost = average revenue.
marginal revenue = average cost.
average total cost = average revenue.
marginal cost = marginal revenue.

Answers

The output and sales level for a profit-maximizing monopoly is co-determined with price where marginal cost = marginal revenue.

For a profit-maximizing monopoly, the level of output and price are determined by the point at which marginal cost (MC) equals marginal revenue (MR). This is because a monopoly faces a downward-sloping demand curve, meaning that it can increase its sales by reducing its price, but this reduction in price also leads to a decrease in the profit earned on each unit sold.

Therefore, a monopoly will produce at the level where its marginal revenue equals its marginal cost, in order to maximize its profits.

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14. XYZ company has the following fixed overhead data pertain to March: Actual Static Budget Production 35,500 units 34,000 units Machine-hours 10,375 hours 10,200 hours Fixed overhead costs for March $213,200 $153,000 What is the fixed overhead production-volume variance

Answers

The fixed overhead production-volume variance for XYZ company in March is $57,612.74.

The fixed overhead production-volume variance can be calculated as follows:

Fixed overhead budgeted at static volume = (Fixed overhead costs for March / Static budget production) x Actual Production

= ($153,000 / 34,000) x 35,500

= $159,338.24

Fixed overhead applied at actual volume = (Fixed overhead costs for March / Machine-hours at static volume) x Actual machine-hours

= ($213,200 / 10,200) x 10,375

= $216,950.98

Fixed overhead production-volume variance

= Fixed overhead applied at actual volume - Fixed overhead budgeted at static volume

= $216,950.98 - $159,338.24

= $57,612.74

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According to the liquidity preference theory, if the money supply increases, then, ceteris paribus, bond prices... O a. Stay the same. Ob. Fall as the interest rate falls. O c. Rise as the interest ra

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According to the liquidity preference theory, if the money supply increases, then, ceteris paribus, bond prices will fall as the interest rate falls. The correct option is b.

This is because an increase in the money supply means that there is more money available to purchase bonds. As demand for bonds increases, bond prices rise, and as bond prices rise, the interest rate falls. Conversely, if the money supply decreases, bond prices will rise as the interest rate rises.

This theory suggests that the demand for money is driven by the desire to hold liquid assets, such as cash or bonds, and that the price of bonds is inversely related to the interest rate.

Thus, the correct choice is option b.

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Consider the following traders who meet. Bob has an apple Ted has an orange Mary has a pear Alice has a peach wants an orange wants a peach wants an apple wants an orange Which if any pairs have a double coincidence of wants? Bob with Alice Ted with Alice Bob with Mary, Ted with Bob, and Ted with Alice None of the pairs above have a coincidence of wants with each other

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None of the pairs above have a double coincidence of wants with each other. A double coincidence of wants occurs when two traders each have something the other wants, creating a mutually beneficial exchange. However, in this scenario, each trader only wants a different type of fruit than what the others have. Therefore, there is no opportunity for a double coincidence of wants to occur.

Coincidence is a term used to describe the occurrence of two or more events or circumstances that happen at the same time or appear to be related, but may not have a causal relationship. Coincidence is often described as a remarkable or unusual occurrence and can be perceived as either positive or negative depending on the context. Coincidences can range from simple occurrences, such as meeting someone you know in an unexpected place, to more complex and significant events, such as two unrelated individuals having identical experiences or dreams. Coincidence is often a matter of subjective interpretation and is open to various degrees of skepticism and belief.

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You have contracted to borrow $1,000 from the bank for one year. The nominal rate of interest is 9.5% and the real interest rate is 7%. At the end of the year, inflation was 2%. How does this affect the borrower (you) and the lender (the bank)? Who is better off?

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In this scenario, the nominal interest rate is 9.5%, which is the rate the bank charges you for borrowing money. The real interest rate, which reflects the inflation-adjusted return on the loan, is 7%. This means that the bank is earning a 7% real return on the loan.

At the end of the year, the inflation rate was 2%. This means that the value of money decreased by 2%. As a result, the effective real interest rate on the loan was 5%, calculated by subtracting the inflation rate from the real interest rate (7% - 2% = 5%).

From the borrower's perspective, the inflation rate of 2% reduced the real value of the loan, making it easier to repay. The borrower benefits from lower real interest rates because the value of the loan decreases in real terms.

On the other hand, from the lender's perspective, the inflation rate of 2% reduces the real value of the interest earned on the loan. The lender would have preferred to earn a higher nominal interest rate to compensate for inflation and maintain the real value of the interest earned.

Overall, in this scenario, the borrower (you) is better off since inflation has reduced the real value of the loan, making it easier to repay. The lender (the bank) is worse off since the inflation rate has reduced the real value of the interest earned on the loan.

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Why is the release of GDP statistics less interesting to investors than the release of other economic indicators?
A.Because governments consistently alter their GDP measurement methods
B.Because the formula for GDP includes not only private investment but also other irrelevant factors
C.Because GDP is not official government data
D.Because GDP statistics are released well after other economic indicators

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The release of GDP statistics less interesting to investors than the release of other economic indicators D.Because GDP statistics are released well after other economic indicators.

GDP numbers are typically published quarterly, although other economic indicators such as employment, the consumer price index, and retail sales are published more regularly, occasionally monthly.

As a result, investors are less interested in the announcement of GDP numbers because they have already been watching other economic indicators and have a solid picture of the status of the economy. When GDP numbers are released, the information may no longer be as valuable to investors in making investment decisions.

Furthermore, while GDP is a key measure of economic performance, it is not the only element considered by investors when making investment decisions.

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Question 07: Explain the three reasons why competency-based job analysis has become more common. Answer:

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Competency-based job analysis has become more common due to three main reasons. The first reason is that it helps to align job requirements with business objectives.


The second reason is that it promotes consistency in job evaluation and performance management. Competency-based job analysis provides a standardized framework for evaluating employee performance, which ensures that all employees are evaluated based on the same set of criteria.

The third reason is that it supports employee development and career planning. Competency-based job analysis helps employees understand the skills and knowledge required for their job, which can in turn guide their development and career planning efforts. This helps to create a more engaged and motivated workforce, as employees feel that their employer is invested in their growth and development.

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Firms that use an unrelated diversification strategy are referred to as conglomerates. An unrelated diversification strategy means a _____ firm has _____ direct relationship(s) among its businesses.
a. highly-diversified; no
b. moderately-diversified; no
c. highly-diversified; a direct
d. moderately-diversified; a direct

Answers

Companies that use an unrelated diversification approach are called conglomerates. An unrelated diversification strategy means a highly-diversified firm has no direct courting amongst its agencies.

In different words, the one of a kind business units of the business enterprise aren't associated with every different in phrases in their products, markets, or production techniques.

As an alternative, conglomerates use their different portfolio of businesses to spread their chance across more than one industries or markets. this will assist to reduce the impact of someone business unit on the general overall performance of the employer.

However, the downside of unrelated diversification is that it could be hard for the business enterprise to obtain synergies or share resources between its distinctive enterprise units. this will cause inefficiencies and a loss of cognizance, as the employer may also war to allocate resources efficiently and pursue a cohesive approach.

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Point-of-purchase displays in grocery stores, coupons, premiums, and trial-size packages are most useful when the consumer is near the _____ stage of the AIDA model.

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The AIDA model stands for Attention, Interest, Desire, and Action, which are the four stages that consumers go through when making a purchasing decision.

Point-of-purchase displays, coupons, premiums, and trial-size packages are all marketing tactics that are designed to influence consumers at different stages of the AIDA model.
Specifically, point-of-purchase displays, which are strategically placed in high-traffic areas of a store, are most effective at grabbing the attention of consumers who are in the Attention stage.

Coupons, which offer discounts or other incentives, are most useful in the Interest stage when consumers are actively seeking information about a product or service. Premiums, which are free gifts or prizes, are most effective in the

The desire stage is when consumers are weighing the benefits of different options.

Finally, trial-size packages, which allow consumers to sample a product before committing to a full-size purchase, are most useful in the Action stage, when consumers are ready to make a final decision and complete a purchase.

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Why is it not efficient if a city zone land for open space without buying the land?

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The most efficient way for a city to create open space is to purchase the land, rather than simply zoning it for open space without acquiring it.

Zoning land for open space without purchasing it may lead to a few problems. Firstly, the city may face legal challenges and lawsuits from landowners who have their property zoned for open space without compensation. Additionally, the city may not have the necessary funding to purchase the land at a later time, leading to the zoning being ineffective in creating open space.

Furthermore, there is no guarantee that the land will be used for open space if it is not purchased by the city. This means that the land may be developed in the future, which defeats the purpose of zoning it for open space.

In conclusion, it is important for cities to purchase land when zoning it for open space to ensure that the land will be used for its intended purpose and to avoid legal issues and potential future development.

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An older female customer, in the lowest tax bracket, wants an investment that will provide asset growth for retirement. The best recommendation would be:a. emerging markets fundb. single stockc. municipal bondd. index fund

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The best recommendation for an older female customer in the lowest tax bracket seeking asset growth for retirement would be d. index fund. This option offers diversification, lower fees, and a historical track record of steady growth, making it a suitable choice for her investment needs.

The best recommendation for an older female customer in the lowest tax bracket who wants an investment that will provide asset growth for retirement would be an index fund. This is because index funds have low fees, are diversified, and historically have provided consistent returns over the long term. Additionally, as the customer is in the lowest tax bracket, a municipal bond may not provide the same level of return as an index fund. A single stock and an emerging markets fund may be too risky for a retirement investment strategy.

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what is the procedure in entering a deposit into macromatix?

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Macromatix is a software system used for managing operations in various industries, including retail and hospitality. The procedure for entering a deposit into Macromatix can vary slightly depending on the specific system configuration and the type of deposit being made. However, here are the general steps to follow:

Open the Macromatix software and log in with your credentials.

1.Navigate to the "Cash Management" section of the system.

2.Select the option to "Make a Deposit."

3.Enter the date of the deposit, the amount of the deposit, and any relevant notes or comments.

4.Choose the bank account into which the deposit will be made.

5.Identify the sources of the deposit, such as cash, checks, or credit card payments, and enter the corresponding amounts.

6.Review the deposit information for accuracy and completeness.

7.Submit the deposit information for processing.

After completing these steps, the deposit will be recorded in the Macromatix system and can be reconciled against the corresponding bank statement.

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produces two goods, A and B. If they produce the goods jointly, the total cost is TC = 100 + 50QAQB - VQAQB If they produce the goods separately, the total cost of producing good A is TC = 75 + 3000QA + 1000QB + QA? + QB? If the firm produces at QA = 40 2 and QB = 100 then the firm should produce the goods because of ___ of scope.a. separately; diseconomies b. jointly; diseconomiesc. separately; economies d. jointly; economies

Answers

The answer is (d) jointly; economies.

To determine whether the firm should produce the goods jointly or separately, we need to compare the total cost of each option at the given production levels.

If the firm produces jointly at QA = 40 and QB = 100, the total cost is:

TC = 100 + 50(40)(100) - V(40)(100) = 100 + 2000000 - V(4000)

If the firm produces separately at QA = 40 and QB = 100, the total cost is:

TC = 75 + 3000(40) + 1000(100) + (40)^2 + (100)^2 = 75 + 120000 + 100000 + 1600 + 10000 = 231675

Therefore, the total cost of producing the goods jointly is:

100 + 2000000 - V(4000) = 2000100 - V(4000)

And the total cost of producing the goods separately is = 231675

We can see that the total cost of producing the goods jointly is less than the total cost of producing the goods separately. Therefore, the firm should produce the goods jointly due to economies of scope. The answer would then definitely be option d) jointly; economies.

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x-beams inc. owned 70% of the voting common stock of kent corp. during 2018, kent made several sales of inventory to x-beams. the total selling price was $180,000 and the cost was $100,000. at the end of the year, 20% of the goods were still in x-beams' inventory. kent's reported net income was $300,000. assuming there are no excess amortizations associated with the consolidation, and no other intra-entity asset transfers, what was the net income attributable to the noncontrolling interest in kent?

Answers

To determine the net income attributable to the noncontrolling interest in Kent, we need to first calculate the income earned by Kent from the sales to X-Beams. the net income attributable to the noncontrolling interest in Kent is $18,000.

The selling price of the inventory sold to X-Beams was $180,000, and the cost was $100,000. Therefore, Kent earned a gross profit of $80,000 ($180,000 - $100,000). However, 20% of the goods sold to X-Beams were still in their inventory at the end of the year. This means that Kent's revenue and cost of goods sold need to be adjusted to reflect the portion of the inventory that is still in X-Beams' possession.

The revenue adjustment is calculated as follows:

Revenue adjustment = 20% x $180,000 = $36,000

The cost of goods sold adjustment is calculated as follows:

Cost of goods sold adjustment = 20% x $100,000 = $20,000

The adjusted gross profit earned by Kent is therefore:

Adjusted gross profit = $80,000 - $20,000 = $60,000

To calculate the net income attributable to the noncontrolling interest, we need to multiply the adjusted gross profit by the noncontrolling interest percentage, which is 30% (100% - 70%):

Net income attributable to noncontrolling interest = $60,000 x 30% = $18,000

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1. Between Latent and Manifest conflict, which is better for B2Brelationship and why. (Short answer/ Marketing)

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In a B2B relationship, latent conflict is generally better than manifest conflict.

What's latent conflict?

Latent conflict refers to the underlying disagreements or tensions that exist between parties but are not openly expressed or addressed. This can lead to a more amicable working relationship as the focus remains on collaboration and achieving common goals.

On the other hand, manifest conflict involves openly expressed disagreements, disputes, or hostility between parties, which can disrupt the B2B relationship and hinder progress.

In marketing, maintaining a positive and productive relationship is crucial for long-term success, as it fosters trust, effective communication, and cooperation between businesses.

However, it's important to note that addressing latent conflict through open communication and conflict resolution techniques can help prevent it from escalating into manifest conflict, ultimately leading to a healthier and more productive B2B relationship.

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The primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards: (a) are intended to protect public welfare from adverse non-health effects of air pollution (b) are established to protect public health from air pollution (c) control both criteria air pollutants and hazardous air pollutants(a) and (b) all of the above

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The primary National Ambient Air Quality Standards are established to protect public health from air pollution. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

The primary NAAQS currently cover six "criteria" air pollutants, which include carbon monoxide, lead, nitrogen dioxide, ozone, particulate matter, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants are regulated because they can have adverse health effects, such as respiratory problems, cardiovascular disease, and cancer.

The secondary NAAQS are established to protect public welfare from adverse non-health effects of air pollution, such as visibility impairment, damage to crops and vegetation, and harm to animals and ecosystems. The NAAQS also includes standards for hazardous air pollutants, which are pollutants that can cause serious health effects such as cancer, birth defects, and neurological damage.

Therefore, option B is correct.

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The discount rate is
A. the interest rate the Fed charges to banks for loans from the Fed.
B. the interest rate banks charge their best customers.
C. the interest rate banks charge each other for overnight loans.
D. the interest rate the U.S. Treasury pays on Treasury Bills.
Contractionary monetary policy causes
A. aggregate demand to fall and the price level to rise.
B. aggregate demand to fall and the price level to fall.
C. aggregate demand to rise and the price level to rise.
D. aggregate demand to rise and the price level to fall.
If the federal? government's expenditures are less than its tax? revenues, then
A. a budget surplus results.
B. a budget deficit results.
C. the budget is balanced.
D. No conclusion can be drawn here regarding the budget surplus or deficit without information regarding government purchases versus other outlays.
Based on the following information, what is the balance on the current account?
Exports of goods and services = $5 billion
Imports of goods and services= $3 billion
Net income on investments = minus $2 billion
Net transfers = minus $2 billion
Increase in foreign holdings of assets in the United States = $4 billion
Increase in U.S. holdings of assets in foreign countries? = $1 billion
A. minus -$2 billion
B. $1 billion
C. $3 billion
D. $4 billion
If the nominal exchange rate between the American dollar and the Canadian dollar is 0.89 Canadian dollars per American?dollar, how many American dollars are required to buy a product that costs 2.5 Canadian dollars?

Answers

The discount rate is A. The interest rate the Fed charges to banks for loans from the Fed.

Contractionary monetary policy causes B. aggregate demand to fall and the price level to fall. When there is a contractionary monetary policy in effect, it means that the central bank is attempting to slow down the economy by limiting the amount of money in circulation.

If the federal government's expenditures are less than its tax revenues, then A. a budget surplus results.

The balance on the current account is calculated as follows:
Exports of goods and services ($5 billion) - Imports of goods and services ($3 billion) - Net income on investments (minus $2 billion) - Net transfers (minus $2 billion) + Increase in foreign holdings of assets in the United States ($4 billion) + Increase in U.S. holdings of assets in foreign countries ($1 billion) = $3 billion (answer C)

To find out how many American dollars are required to buy a product that costs 2.5 Canadian dollars, we need to divide 2.5 by the exchange rate of 0.89: 2.5 / 0.89 = $2.81 (rounded to two decimal places). So, $2.81 American dollars are required to buy a product that costs 2.5 Canadian dollars.

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A monopoly sets a market price that is higher than the marginal cost of production. This fact implies that a monopoly's allocation of resources is: a. unfair. b. inefficient. c. discriminatory. d. excessive.

Answers

This fact implies that a monopoly's allocation of resources is inefficient. Option B

When a monopoly sets a market price that is higher than the marginal cost of production, it creates a deadweight loss, which is the loss of consumer and producer surplus that occurs when the market is not operating at its optimal level.

This means that the monopoly is not allocating resources efficiently, as it is producing less than what would be produced in a perfectly competitive market. In a perfectly competitive market, firms would produce up to the point where marginal cost equals marginal revenue, resulting in an efficient allocation of resources.

Furthermore, a monopoly's pricing strategy can also lead to reduced consumer welfare, as consumers are forced to pay a higher price for the product than they would in a competitive market. This pricing strategy may also prevent potential competitors from entering the market, further reducing efficiency and limiting consumer choice.

In conclusion, a monopoly's allocation of resources is inefficient when it sets a market price that is higher than the marginal cost of production. This can result in a deadweight loss and reduced consumer welfare, and can also discourage potential competitors from entering the market. Option B is correct.

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9- The supply and demand functions of a particular product are given by Qs = 100P – 500. and Qd = 1,000 – 50P Determine the market equilibrium price and quantity.

Answers

To determine the market equilibrium price and quantity, we need to set Qs equal to Qd, as this is the point where supply and demand are in balance.
100P - 500 = 1,000 - 50P
Now, solve for P:
100P + 50P = 1,000 + 500
150P = 1,500
P = 1,500 / 150
P = 10
Now that we have the equilibrium price, we can find the equilibrium quantity by plugging P into either the supply or demand function. We'll use the demand function:
Qd = 1,000 - 50(10)
Qd = 1,000 - 500
Qd = 500
So, the market equilibrium price is 10, and the market equilibrium quantity is 500.

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Bob is buying a house for $377,500. He has a down payment of $27,500. His interest rate is 4.75%, a property tax of $2,100 a year, and he is doing a 30-year mortgage. What will his total cost over 360 payments be

Answers

If Bob  is buying a house for $377,500 with a down payment of $27,500, interest rate of 4.75%, a property tax of $2,100 a year and  is doing a 30-year mortgage then the total cost over 360 payments will be $725,595.84.

To calculate Bob's total cost over 360 payments, we need to consider a few different factors. First, we need to calculate his monthly mortgage payment. We can use an online mortgage calculator or a formula to determine this. Using the formula:
M = P [ i(1 + i)^n ] / [ (1 + i)^n – 1]
Where:
M = monthly mortgage payment
P = principal amount (in this case, $350,000 since Bob is putting $27,500 down)
i = interest rate per month (4.75% / 12 = 0.00395833)
n = total number of payments (360)
Using this formula, we can calculate that Bob's monthly mortgage payment will be $1,840.54.
Next, we need to calculate his annual property tax and add it to his monthly mortgage payment. His property tax is $2,100 per year, which equates to $175 per month.
Therefore, Bob's total monthly payment will be $2,015.54. To calculate his total cost over 360 payments, we can simply multiply this monthly payment by the total number of payments:
$2,015.54 x 360 = $725,595.84
Therefore, Bob's total cost over 360 payments will be $725,595.84. This includes his down payment, mortgage payments, and property tax payments. It's important to note that this calculation does not include other expenses such as homeowners insurance, maintenance, and repairs, which Bob will also need to budget for.

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A system shock is: Group of answer choices Within the firm's direct control. Created only by competitors' behavior. An event outside of the firm's control. Never encountered. None of these answers is correct.

Answers

A system shock is an event outside of the firm's control.

A system shock refers to a sudden and unexpected event that disrupts the normal functioning of a system. It is often an external factor that the firm has no direct control over. This can include economic downturns, natural disasters, technological breakthroughs, changes in regulations, and unexpected shifts in consumer behavior. A system shock can have a significant impact on a firm's operations, financial performance, and competitive position. These events are typically beyond the firm's direct control and can include natural disasters, economic crises, or political changes.

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for the year ended december 31, 2024, norstar industries reported net income of $985,000. at january 1, 2024, the company had 1,150,000 common shares outstanding. the following changes in the number of shares occurred during 2024: april 30 sold 105,000 shares in a public offering may 24 declared and distributed a 5% stock dividend june 1 issued 120,000 shares as part of the consideration for the purchase of assets from a subsidiary required:

Answers

This increased the number of shares to 1,437,750.

For the year ended December 31, 2024, Norstar Industries reported net income of $985,000. During this time, there were several changes in the number of shares:

1. On January 1, 2024, the company had 1,150,000 common shares outstanding.
2. On April 30, 2024, Norstar Industries sold 105,000 shares in a public offering, increasing the number of shares to 1,255,000.
3. On May 24, 2024, a 5% stock dividend was declared and distributed. This led to an increase of (1,255,000 * 0.05) = 62,750 shares, resulting in a total of 1,317,750 shares.
4. On June 1, 2024, 120,000 shares were issued as part of the consideration for the purchase of assets from a subsidiary. This increased the number of shares to 1,437,750.

Taking into account these changes, by the end of 2024, Norstar Industries had 1,437,750 common shares outstanding.

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What is the gross income multiplier for an investment property that has a gross income of $550,000 and a net income of $330,000 if the value is $4,125,000?
5.5
7.5
9.5
11.5

Answers

To calculate the gross income multiplier (GIM), divide the property's value by its gross income. In this case:

GIM = Property Value / Gross Income

GIM = $4,125,000 / $550,000

GIM = 7.5

However, the question asks for the GIM based on the property's net income, not its gross income. To find the GIM based on net income, we need to first calculate the property's capitalization rate (cap rate) using the net income and property value:

Cap Rate: Net Income divided by Property Value

Cap Rate = $330,000 / $4,125,000

Cap Rate = 0.08 or 8%

Then, we can use the cap rate to find the GIM based on net income:

GIM = 1 / Cap Rate

GIM = 1 / 0.08

GIM = 12.5

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Complete Question:

What is the gross income multiplier for an investment property that has a gross income of $550,000 and a net income of $330,000 if the value is $4,125,000?

a) 5.5

b) 7.5

c) 9.5

d) 11.5

Suppose a bank receives a $5000 deposit and the reserve ratio s 25 percent. For this deposit, the bank is required to keep in reserve:
A. $1250.
B.$1000.
C. $200.
D. $500.

Answers

The bank is required to keep in reserve: A. $1250.

The reserve ratio is the percentage of deposits that a bank is required to hold in reserve, either in cash in its vault or on deposit with the central bank. In this case, the reserve ratio is 25%, which means that the bank must hold 25% of the $5000 deposit in reserve. To calculate the amount of reserves required, we can simply multiply the deposit amount by the reserve ratio:

$5000 x 0.25 = $1250

Therefore, the bank is required to keep $1250 of the $5000 deposit in reserve and can loan out the remaining $3750. This process of fractional reserve banking allows banks to create new money through lending, while still maintaining a certain level of reserves to meet depositor demands for withdrawals.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. When there is a shortage, sellers have an incentive to ______ their price and buyers have an incentive to offer a ______ price.A. increase; lowerB. decrease; lowerC. decrease; higherD. increase; higher

Answers

Buyers have an incentive to offer a lower price because they are competing with other buyers for a limited supply of the product.

A quantity discount is a promotion given to a customer that lowers the price per unit of goods or materials when more of them are purchased. Sellers frequently provide a quantity discount to persuade buyers to make more significant purchases.

When more goods or materials are purchased, a customer is given an incentive called a quantity discount that lowers the cost per unit of those products or commodities. When sellers want to encourage customers to buy in larger numbers, they frequently give a quantity discount.

Low prices are an incentive to buyers to spend their money now. Higher prices are an incentive to sellers to increase production to make more goods. But the biggest incentive for sellers is knowing that when prices rise, their profits will probably rise, too.

Inflation measures how much more expensive a set of goods and services has become over a certain period, usually a year. It may be one of the most familiar words in economics. Inflation has plunged countries into long periods of instability.

Complete question:

FILL IN THE BLANK. When there is a shortage, sellers have an incentive to ______ their price and buyers have an incentive to offer a ______ price.

A. increase; lower

B. decrease; lower

C. decrease; higher

D. increase; higher

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as firms enter and exit a monopolistically competitive market, what happens to productive efficiency in the long run? as firms enter and exit a perfectly competitive market, what happens to productive efficiency in the long run? group of answer choices

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When new firms enter the market, there may be an increase in competition, which can lead to lower prices and higher levels of innovation as firms try to differentiate their products.

This increased competition can lead to improved productive efficiency as firms try to reduce costs and become more efficient to stay competitive. However, as firms exit the market, the remaining firms may have increased market power, which can lead to higher prices and reduced incentives to improve productive efficiency. Overall, the effect of entry and exit on productive efficiency in a monopolistically competitive market is mixed and depends on the specific circumstances of the market.
In contrast, in a perfectly competitive market, as firms enter and exit, productive efficiency tends to increase in the long run. This is because the market is characterized by a large number of small firms with no market power, meaning that firms must continually strive to produce at the lowest cost to remain competitive. Therefore, firms are incentivized to improve their productive efficiency over time. When new firms enter the market, they face the same competitive pressures, leading to further increases in productive efficiency. As firms exit, the remaining firms may have a larger market share, but they still face competition and must continue to innovate and improve to remain competitive. Thus, in a perfectly competitive market, entry and exit generally lead to improved productive efficiency in the long run.

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explain what will happen to the market supply curve, the equilibrium price, and the equilibrium quantity of the good or service that you sell if the principal resource used to produce it becomes extremely scarce

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If the principal resource used to produce a good or service becomes extremely scarce, the market supply curve will shift to the left, representing a decrease in supply.

This shift occurs because the scarcity of the resource makes it more difficult and costly to produce the good or service. Consequently, the equilibrium price will increase, as producers need to charge more to cover their increased production costs.

If the principal resource used to produce the good or service that you sell becomes extremely scarce, the market supply curve will shift to the left. This is because there will be less of the resource available to produce the good or service, causing a decrease in the quantity supplied at each price level. As a result, the equilibrium price will increase, and the equilibrium quantity will decrease.

This is due to the basic economic principle of supply and demand. As the supply of the good or service decreases, the demand for it will remain the same or increase, creating a shortage. In order to balance out the shortage, the price of the good or service will increase until the demand decreases to meet the lower supply. The equilibrium quantity will decrease because fewer units of the good or service can be produced with the scarce resource, resulting in a lower total quantity being supplied.

Overall, the scarcity of the principal resource used to produce your good or service will lead to a decrease in supply, an increase in price, and a decrease in the equilibrium quantity of your product in the market.

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Describe 19th century European nationalism? Who were thesenationalists and what were their ultimate aims?

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These nationalists had a variety of long-term objectives, but they all aimed to create autonomous states free from foreign influence. European nationalism was a potent movement that influenced Europe's political and cultural environment in the 19th century.National identity was a concept that was highly valued by the nationalists of this era, and they made a concerted effort to spread it across Europe.

In the 19th century, European nationalism was a powerful force that sought to unite people within nation-states. This movement was fueled by a variety of factors, including a desire for political autonomy, economic growth, and cultural identity. The nationalists of this time period were individuals who believed in the importance of national identity, and they worked tirelessly to promote this idea throughout Europe. They sought to unite people within their respective nations, and they believed that a strong sense of national identity was necessary for progress and prosperity.

The ultimate aims of these nationalists varied, but they generally sought to establish independent nation-states that were free from foreign control. They believed that this would promote economic growth, cultural development, and political autonomy. Many nationalists also advocated for the preservation of their respective cultures and languages, believing that these were essential components of national identity.

Overall, 19th century European nationalism was a powerful force that shaped the political and cultural landscape of Europe. The nationalists of this time period were committed to promoting national identity and independence, and their efforts ultimately led to the establishment of many modern nation-states.

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during periods of economic expansion, businesses are likely toa. reduce their profitsb. increase their productionc. stop hiring workersd. benefit from high interest rates

Answers

During periods of economic expansion, businesses are likely to increase their production. The correct option is b. increase their production.

This is because there is an increased demand for goods and services, which leads to higher profits for businesses. As a result, businesses will often invest in new equipment and hire more workers to increase their production capacity. This increase in production leads to job creation, which in turn stimulates the economy further by increasing consumer spending.

Additionally, businesses may also benefit from high interest rates during economic expansion. High interest rates make it more expensive for consumers to borrow money, which can lead to increased savings and a decrease in demand for goods and services. However, businesses that rely on investments may benefit from higher interest rates as they can earn more money on their investments.

Overall, economic expansion is a positive time for businesses as they can increase their profits, expand their production capacity, and benefit from favorable interest rates. The correct option is b. increase their production.

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the ______ , an asset utilization ratio, indicates how many times a firm collects its accounts receivable in one year.

Answers

The ratio that measures how efficiently a company collects its accounts receivable is called the accounts receivable turnover ratio.

This ratio shows the number of times that a company collects its average accounts receivable during a particular period, usually one year. It is a crucial metric for a company because it indicates how effective the company's credit and collection policies are in generating cash flow.

The formula for calculating the accounts receivable turnover ratio is as follows:

[tex]Accounts Receivable Turnover Ratio = Net Credit Sales / Average Accounts Receivable[/tex]

Where Net Credit Sales refers to the total credit-sales made by a company during a particular period, and Average Accounts Receivable refers to the average amount of accounts receivable held by the company during the same period.

The higher the accounts receivable turnover ratio, the more efficient the company is in collecting its outstanding receivables. A high ratio also means that the company is generating cash flow quickly, which is essential for meeting its financial obligations,

investing in growth opportunities, and rewarding shareholders. On the other hand, a low ratio indicates that the company's credit and collection policies may need improvement, and it is taking a long time to collect its receivables, which can lead to cash flow problems.

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