Metoprolol is a medication used to treat high blood pressure, angina, and heart failure. One of the most common side effects of metoprolol is fatigue or tiredness. Therefore, the nurse should teach the client to expect this side effect and to plan activities accordingly.
The nurse should also instruct the client to take the medication as prescribed, to not skip doses, and to not stop taking the medication without first consulting with their healthcare provider. Other potential side effects that the nurse should inform the client about include dizziness, shortness of breath, depression, and gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, diarrhea, and constipation. The client should be advised to report any side effects to their healthcare provider.
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mrs. quinton's medical report indicates that she has anuria, which is ___.
A medical disorder known as anuria is defined by either no urine production or a daily urine output of fewer than 50 milliliters.
What is anuria?A medical disorder known as anuria is characterized by either no urine output at all or a very low urine output of fewer than 50 milliliters per day. This condition is a critical medical emergency that has to be attended to right away.
The kidneys' functions include filtering the blood and removing waste from the body. Urine is produced as a result of this treatment. The inability of the kidneys to generate urine, which can be brought on by a number of reasons, results in anuria. These elements include extreme dehydration, kidney illness or injury, urethral blockage, or pharmaceutical adverse effects.
It signifies that a person is unable to generate pee or expel urine from the body, to put it another way. Many conditions, including kidney disease, a blocked urinary tract, extreme dehydration, or several drugs, may be at blame for this. Anuria is a serious ailment that needs immediate medical attention since it can cause a buildup of toxins and waste materials in the body that could be fatal.
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what is general parasitic disease?
Any ailment brought on by parasites that reside on or inside of a host organism and frequently cause harm to the host is referred to as a general parasitic disease.
Infested food or water, skin or mucous membranes, or insect bites are just a few of the ways that parasites might enter their host organism. Malaria, trypanosomiasis, leishmaniasis, schistosomiasis, filariasis, and intestinal worm infections are just a few typical instances of parasitic disorders.
The signs and symptoms of parasitic illnesses might change depending on the kind of parasite involved, but they can include fever, lethargy, abdominal pain, diarrhoea, nausea, vomiting, anaemia, skin rashes, and weight loss. Medications can be used to treat some parasite infections, while more complex interventions may be necessary for others. A parasite infection can be prevented by preventative measures such good hygiene habits, careful handling and preparation of food, and avoiding bug bites.
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if two servings are eaten, what percentage of the dv have you consumed for iron?
If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
What is iron ?
Several processes in our bodies require iron. Hemoglobin, a protein formed in part of iron, is one that carries oxygen from the lungs to every cell in the body. It helps our muscles retain and use oxygen. Iron is also found in a wide variety of other proteins and enzymes. Your body needs the recommended dosage of iron.
What is hormones ?
Your body's chemical messengers are called hormones. They move to tissues or organs in your body via the bloodstream. They affect a variety of processes, such as growth and development, and they operate gradually over time.
Therefore, If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
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The physician orders phenytoin 150 mg PO q.12h for the patient. The nurse finds the following drug in the patient’s medication drawer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A- Administer the ordered dose to the patient.
B- Call the pharmacist to clarify the drug route.
C- Clarify the order with the physician.
D- Inform the patient that he will have to wait for the right drug
The nurse's first action should be to clarify the order with the physician, as the medication in the patient's medication drawer does not match the one ordered by the physician.
What is medication?Medication is a type of medical treatment that involves the use of drugs, such as prescription medications, over-the-counter medicines, and dietary supplements. These drugs can be taken orally, injected, or applied topically to treat a variety of physical and mental health issues. Medication can also be used to prevent illnesses, such as vaccinations and prophylactics.
The nurse should not administer the wrong medication, call the pharmacist, or inform the patient that he will have to wait for the right drug until the order is clarified.
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The client with cardiac failure is taught to report which symptom to the physician or clinic immediately?
-Increased appetite
-Persistent cough
-Weight loss
-Ability to sleep through the night
In America, almost 6 million people suffer from heart failure. Every year, heart failure affects about 670,000 people.
For a patient with heart failure, what would you test?
Patients who present with HF should have a complete blood count, urinalysis, serum electrolytes (including calcium and magnesium), blood urea nitrogen, serum creatinine, glucose, fasting lipid profile, liver function tests, and thyroid-stimulating hormone performed as part of the initial laboratory evaluation.
What is a primary indicator of cardiac failure?
The following are possible indications of heart failure: breathing difficulty while moving or when resting down. feeble and weary. swelling of the ankles, feet, and legs.
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What is normal phosphorus level in mmol L?
Phosphorus levels in blood are calculated using the Units of Measurement (SI) and expressed in mmol/l. People have regular blood phosphorous levels in the SI.
What are typical outcomes from blood tests?
Results of a blood test, a blood test. It is highly improbable that what a given Blood, even from a nutritious patient, will show "regular" values for each and every Blood test taken because the majority of Blood test reference ranges, which are frequently referred to as "normal" ranges of Blood results, are typically characterized as the range of outcomes of the average 95percent of the healthy population.
What occurs if my blood work is higher or lower than usual?
Your doctor could suggest additional testing if your erythrocytes levels are abnormal. I need to phone my doctor soon. The outcomes of your CBC will be discussed with you by your provider. Call your physician if you have any questions regarding the results.
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based on this research, which of the following studies would likely be best to create better treatments for future c. diff outbreaks?
A thorough investigation of human gut microbiomes.
Which of the following factors fuels the challenge of antibiotic resistance?Drug-resistant infections are mostly brought on by the improper use and overuse of antibiotics. The proliferation of bacteria, some of which may be resistant to antibiotic therapy, is encouraged by a lack of clean water, proper sanitation, and effective infection prevention and control.
Which of the following is suggested as a way to prevent the spread of antibiotic resistance?A significant issue in public health is antibiotic resistance. It can be avoided by reducing the overuse and unnecessary prescription of antibiotics, using them as directed, practicing good hygiene, and taking infection control measures.
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What's position would the nurse use for placement of the affected extremity of a client who is recovering from an open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a fractured hip?
The position of the affected extremity following open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a fractured hip would depend on the specific instructions of the surgeon and the individual needs of the client.
Who is surgeon ?
A surgeon is a medical doctor who specializes in performing surgical procedures to treat injuries, diseases, and deformities. Surgeons are trained in the diagnosis and management of a wide range of conditions that require surgical intervention, such as cancer, trauma, congenital anomalies, and chronic diseases.
There are many different types of surgeons, each with their own area of specialization. For example, a cardiothoracic surgeon performs surgery on the heart, lungs, and chest cavity, while an orthopedic surgeon focuses on surgical treatment of the musculoskeletal system. Other types of surgeons include general surgeons, neurosurgeons, pediatric surgeons, plastic surgeons, and transplant surgeons.
The position of the affected extremity following open reduction and internal fixation (ORIF) of a fractured hip would depend on the specific instructions of the surgeon and the individual needs of the client. However, some general principles can guide the positioning of the affected extremity to optimize the client's comfort and recovery.
Typically, the nurse would position the affected extremity in a neutral alignment, avoiding any extremes of flexion, abduction, or rotation that could compromise the integrity of the surgical repair. The nurse may also use pillows or specialized positioning devices to support the limb and distribute the pressure evenly, preventing pressure ulcers and minimizing discomfort.
The surgeon may prescribe specific positioning techniques based on the type and location of the fracture, the method of fixation, and the client's clinical condition. The nurse should follow these instructions carefully and monitor the client's response to ensure that the positioning is safe and effective.
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which intervention would the nurse recommend for post-cesarean gas pain? lying on the right side walking around the room using a straw when drinking water supporting the incision when moving
The nurse would recommend the following for post-cesarean gas pain:
lying on the right side walking around the room using a straw when drinking water supporting the incision when movingWhat is post-cesarean gas pain?A post-cesarean gas pain is described as a common complaint after delivering a baby especially after a Cesarean section surgery).
A post-cesarean gas pain is mainly occurs in women and they feel bloated with sharp pains that sometimes radiate up towards the collarbone and shoulders.
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what is the meaning of symptom?
The subjective perception of a probable health problem that a doctor cannot see is called a symptom.
More on the answerA symptom is a disease manifestation that the patient can see for themselves, whereas a sign is a disease manifestation that the doctor can see.
A symptom is subjective, whereas a sign is objective proof of a sickness. Symptoms serve as the patient's complaints and, if serious, are what motivate him to visit the doctor.
Symptoms could be so minor as to go overlooked or they could be so severe as to be life threatening.
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regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of what
Regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of that it is most commonly caused by anovulation.
Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), also known as (AVB) or atypical vaginal bleeding, is vaginal bleeding from the uterus that is unusually frequent, lasts for an unusually long period of time, is heavier than normal, or is irregular. When there was no underlying reason, the phrase dysfunctional uterine hemorrhage was employed. Vaginal bleeding is not permitted during pregnancy. Iron deficiency anemia can arise, and the quality of life might suffer as a result.
Ovulation issues, fibroids, the uterine lining developing into the uterine wall, uterine polyps, underlying bleeding problems, birth control side effects, or cancer may be the underlying reasons. In some cases, more than one cause category may apply.
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licensed practical nurse (LPN) on the Labor and Delivery unit is assisting the nurse with multiple admissions. What tasks could the LPN complete until the nurse is available?
1. Take initial vital signs.
2. Measure cervical dilation.
3. Check fundal height and fetal heart rate (FHR).
4. Obtain urine for protein and glucose.
5. Collect vaginal swab to test for chlamydia.
As licensed practical nurse (LPN), the tasks that can be completed until the nurse is available include option 1, 3 & 4.
1. Take initial vital signs.
2. Check fundal height and fetal heart rate (FHR).
3. Obtain urine for protein and glucose.
LPNs are trained to perform a variety of tasks within the scope of their practise, such as taking vital signs and collecting urine samples. As a result, options 1 (take initial vital signs) and 4 (collect urine for protein and glucose) may be appropriate tasks for an LPN to perform until the nurse arrives.
However, collecting vaginal swabs to test for chlamydia necessitates specific training and competencies that may not be available to all LPNs. Registered nurses (RNs) or nurse practitioners (NPs). with the necessary training and skills to perform the test accurately and safely may perform this task.
LPNs must work within their scope of practise and not perform tasks that are outside of their training and competencies.
It is critical to note that LPNs must work within their scope of practise and only perform tasks for which they have been trained and are competent. If the LPN has any questions about their scope of practise or a specific task, they should consult with their supervising RN or NP.
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the resistered nurse and practcal nurse are caring for a client who was admitted to the medical unit last night with a
A doctor on the team is heard making a false remark about a sick patient by a nurse working in the emergency room.
Which tasks may the registered nurse effectively assign to a knowledgeable LPN?
The RN may assign the LPN to take care of stable patients with established ostomies (LPN). (Choose 1) The RN may assign the LPN to conduct particular assessments. The LPN concentrates on gathering information and separating out normal from aberrant findings.
Can an RN release a patient?
Discharging patients from the hospital is a difficult process that is fraught with dangers such as liability exposure. To ensure that the patient receives the same high-quality medical care, nurse-led discharge has acquired widespread acceptability in many developed countries.
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a patient is being treated with a gonadotropin-releasing hormone (gnrh) analog. which effect should the nurse expect from the treatment?
Answer:
The most serious side effect of GnRH analogue treatment is thinning of the bones (osteoporosis). If injections are administered alone then this risk increases and treatment can only be provided for 6 months. The use of HRT have long-term benefits in reducing bone thinning and associated risk of osteoporosis.
semi fowlers position
An IV of 1 L 0. 45NS is started at 2015 to infuse at 78 mL/hr using a microdrip (60 gtt/mL). What is the infusion time in hours and minutes and what is the completion time?
Question options:
12 h 8 min; 0823
12 h 49 min; 0904
12 h 49 min; 0849
12 h 15 min; 0830
The answer is: Infusion time = 12 hours and 49 minutes, Completion time = 9:04 pm or 2104 hours
To calculate the infusion time and completion time, we can use the following formula:
Infusion time = Volume ÷ Rate
Completion time = Start time + Infusion time
Where Volume is the total volume of fluid to be infused, Rate is the infusion rate, and Start time is the time the infusion was started.
Volume = 1 L = 1000 mL
Rate = 78 mL/hr
Infusion time = Volume ÷ Rate
Infusion time = 1000 mL ÷ 78 mL/hr
Infusion time = 12.82 hours
To convert 0.82 hours into minutes, we can multiply by 60:
0.82 hours × 60 = 49.2 minutes (rounded to one decimal place)
Therefore, the infusion time is 12 hours and 49 minutes.
To calculate the completion time, we need to add the infusion time to the start time of 2015. We will convert the time to 24-hour clock format for easier calculation:
2015 = 20:15 (in 24-hour clock format)
Completion time = Start time + Infusion time
Completion time = 20:15 + 12:49
Completion time = 33:04 (in 24-hour clock format)
To convert 33:04 back to 12-hour clock format, we subtract 12 from the hour value and add "pm" to indicate that it is in the afternoon:
33:04 - 12 = 9:04 pm
The closest answer choice is 12 h 49 min; 0904. Therefore, the answer is:
Infusion time = 12 hours and 49 minutes
Completion time = 9:04 pm or 2104 hours
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The nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a newborn. To administer the injection safely, the nurse would be cognizant of which cause of slow absorption in newborns?
a. Blood flow
b. Binding ability
c. Renal excretion
d. Hepatic metabolism
a. Blood flow. Neonatals may have lower peak blood concentrations and slow the rate of intramuscular medication absorption due to their reduced muscle contractility.
During birth, the blood-brain barrier also isn't fully formed. As a result, the CNS is highly accessible to pharmaceuticals and other substances, rendering the infant particularly vulnerable to medications that impact CNS function.Neonatals may have lower peak blood concentrations and slow the rate of intramuscular medication absorption due to their reduced muscle contractility. Drug buildup and toxicity may emerge as a result of slower drug excretion. Neonatals and young infants may have increased transdermal absorption than older children due to their thin stratum corneum and high surface-to-weight ratios.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. when utilizing the multiple pass technique of the 24-hour dietary recall method, the first pass is completed when_____
While using the 24-hour dietary recall method's multiple pass technique, the first pass is finished when the client remembers every food and drink they had the day before.
What is one difficulty with using the 24-hour recall diet analysis method?One of the main issues with nutritional assessment surveys that use the multiple-pass 24-hour recall is underreporting due to the limitations of human memory.
How frequently are new versions of the Dietary Guidelines released?Every five years, the United States Departments of Health and Human Services (HHS) and Agriculture (USDA) collaborate to revise and publish the Dietary Guidelines. In order to incorporate the most recent developments in nutrition science, the Dietary Guidelines have been updated.
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Which one of the following is NOT true about the goals of Symbolic-Experiential Family Therapy?
a. The goals are to simultaneously cultivate a sense of belonging among the family members and to also promote the individuality of each family member.
b. The goal is also to foster the development of a new family culture that included an increased sense of unity.
c. The main goal is to join with the family system to effect change from the inside out.
d. Goals are typically set at both the system and the individual levels.
The statement that is NOT true about the goals of Symbolic-Experiential Family Therapy is option A. "The goals are to simultaneously cultivate a sense of belonging among the family members and to also promote the individuality of each family member."
Goal of therapeutic approach is to help family members create a new family culture that encourages individuality and fosters a sense of belonging among all family members. This therapy approach also seeks to join with the family system to effect change from the inside out, with goals set at both the system and individual levels. Option B accurately reflects this goal, as does option D. Option C also accurately describes the approach of joining with the family system to effect change.
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The fibrous skeleton of the heart is located between the ____ and the ______
The fibrous skeleton of the heart is located in a plane between the atria and the ventricles.
It is a rigid framework of dense regular connective tissue. The fibrous skeleton of the heart which is also known as the cardiac skeleton has four fibrous rings called anuli fibrosi, singular: annulus fibrosis and the membranous portions of the septa of the heart. This skeleton is situated at the base of the ventricles, in between the atria and the ventricles.
The heart is an organ with walls composed of cardiomyocytes which are supported by fibro collagenous tissue. The fibrous tissue is condensed in a few areas to form a framework, usually called the fibrous skeleton, that anchors the valvar leaflets to the base of the ventricular mass.
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the belmont report established guidelines for research projects, which promotes _____.
Deciding on subjects fairly to prevent taking advantage of weaker populations. The National Committee for the Protection of Human Subjects in Biomedical and Behavioral Research drafted the Belmont Report.
The National Research Act of 1974 charged the Commission with identifying the fundamental ethical principles that should guide the conduct of biomedical and behavioural research involving human subjects and developing guidelines to ensure that such research is carried out in accordance with those principles. The Belmont Report, which identifies fundamental ethical principles and guidelines that address ethical issues arising from the conduct of research with human subjects, was published by the Commission in 1976. It was informed by monthly discussions that lasted almost four years and a thorough four days of deliberation in 1976.
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The patient is having a repair of a vaginal prolapse. What position does the nurse place the patient in?
a. Prone position
b. Trendelenburg
c. Lithotomy position
d, Left lateral Sim's
If the patient is having a repair of a vaginal prolapse. The nurse should place the patient in Lithotomy position.
What do you mean by Lithotomy position?The lithotomy position is a common position for surgical procedures and medical examinations involving the pelvis and lower abdomen, as well as a common position for childbirth in Western nations.
The Lithotomy Position can be used during childbirth since it provides the doctor with good access to the mother and the baby. It was used as the standard position for childbirth procedures, but recently, most hospitals have shifted to using birthing beds or chairs.
Standard lithotomy position requires the patients' legs to be separated from the midline into 30 to 45 degrees of abduction, with the hips flexed until the thighs are angled between 80 and 100 degrees.
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A client with an acute kidney injury has peritoneal dialysis (PD) prescribed and asks why the procedure is necessary. Which response statement would the nurse use?
1. "PD prevents the development of serious heart problems by removing the damaged tissues."
2. "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys."
3. "PD stabilizes the kidney damage and may 'restart' your kidneys to perform better than before."
4. "PD speeds recovery because the kidneys are not responding to regulating hormones."
The response statement that the nurse would use is: "PD helps perform some of the work usually performed by your kidneys." Option 2 is correct.
The mention of cardiac issues elicits a fearful response and may raise worry or anxiety. Advising a patient that Parkinson's disease may'restart' their kidneys so that they operate better than before is deceptive. PD aids in the maintenance of fluid and electrolytes; with acute kidney injury, nephron destruction occurs, hence PD may or may not hasten recovery.
Peritoneal dialysis is a form of dialysis that uses the peritoneum in a person's abdomen as a membrane to exchange fluid and dissolved chemicals with the blood. It is used to remove excess fluid, rectify electrolyte imbalances, and eliminate pollutants in patients with renal failure. The following are some of the downsides of PD: Dialysis must be scheduled into your everyday routine seven days a week. A permanent catheter, outside the body, is required.
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a neutropenic client is receiving filgrastim. what are three nursing considerations for this medication?
The three nursing considerations for this medication include:
Monitor for adverse effects Ensure proper administrationMonitor neutrophil countsWhat is Neutropenia?Neutropenia involves having lower-than-normal levels of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell) in your blood and is found especially common among people receiving cancer treatments, like chemotherapy.
Filgrastim is described as a medication that stimulates the production of neutrophils (a type of white blood cell) in the bone marrow, and is used to treat neutropenia a low level of neutrophils in the blood.
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What is the left lateral decubitus position?
The patient is said to be in the left lateral decubitus posture (LLDP) while they are lying on their left side. Another illustration is "chest pain while lying down," or angina decubitus.
Pain is what?
The definition of pain is built upon by the inclusion of six important Points and the derivation of the word discomfort for further useful context. Pain is defined as "An painful sensory and emotional feeling connected with, or approximating that linked with, actual or possible tissue injury."
What causes pain physiologically?
Pain physiology. While being subjective, most pain has a physiological foundation and is related to tissue damage. Yet not every tissue reacts to damage in the same way. The visceral organs, for instance, can be severed without causing pain, despite the fact that skin is susceptible to burning and cutting.
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Based on current research, what are the two factors needed for development of celiac disease?
-genetic predisposition to celiac disease
-infection with h. pylori bacteria
-dietary exposure to gluten
-stress and depression
Based on current research, the two factors needed for the development of celiac disease are genetic predisposition to the disease and dietary exposure to gluten, which are present in the first and third options.
What is celiac disease?Celiac disease has a strong genetic component, and it tends to run in families, so people who have certain genes, particularly the HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 genes, are at a higher risk of developing celiac disease, and gluten is a protein found in wheat and barley that can induce this disease.
Hence, the two factors needed for the development of celiac disease are genetic predisposition to the disease and dietary exposure to gluten, which are present in the first and third options.
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when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
When assisting a person with their medication, the following statements are true: Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do and Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication. Therefore option A and B are correct.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do: It is important to communicate clearly and inform the person or their family member about the process of administering medication.
This helps establish trust and ensures everyone is aware of the actions being taken.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication: Confirming with the person that you have the correct medication is essential to avoid any errors or misunderstandings.
Their confirmation helps verify that the medication being administered is indeed the intended one.
Therefore options A and B are correct.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was.
when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication.
C. Wait for emergency medical services so they can administer the medication.
D. You may assist with an over the counter (otc) medication, but you may not assist with a prescription medication.
A patient has presented with signs and symptoms that are characteristic of acute kidney injury, but preliminary assessment reveals no obvious risk factors for this health problem. The nurse should recognize the need to interview the patient about what topic?
A) Typical diet
B) Allergy status
C) Psychosocial stressors
D) Current medication use
D).current medication use. As a result of frequent exposure to blood-borne chemicals, the kidneys are vulnerable to the side effects of drugs. More frequently than food, allergies, or stress, nephrotoxic medicines.
When someone becomes ill or starts a new medication, those who are at risk for AKI should be closely monitored with routine blood testing. Checking your urination rate is also helpful. AKI must be immediately investigated and treated if any warning signals, such as vomiting or little urine production, occur.
Fluids may have to be drip-fed to people who are dehydrated or at danger of becoming dehydrated. You should stop using any medication, at least temporarily, if it appears to be exacerbating the condition or causing kidney damage directly.
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Which drug, depending on the dosage, can be a hallucinogen, stimulant, depressant, or painkiller? a. marijuana b. opium c. PCP d. caffeine
PCP drug, depending on the dosage, can be a hallucinogen, stimulant, depressant, or painkiller.
The correct option is C.
A person may experience a drug use disorder called hallucinogen use disorder if they consume hallucinogens often. Even when hallucinogens cause issues in many aspects of their lives, people with hallucinogen use syndrome will continue to use them.
What is intoxication with hallucinogens?The varied class of medications known as hallucinogens can have erratic, peculiar effects. Hallucinations are frequently brought on by alcohol consumption, along with changed perception, poor judgement, concepts lost reference, and depersonalization. The traditional withdrawal symptoms does not exist. A clinical condition is diagnosed.
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The most common symptom of mange is what?
A. Vomiting
B. Heart Failure
C. Abdominal Pain
D. Hair Loss
The warmer months are when fleas are typically more active. They like humid conditions and temperatures between 60 and 75 °F, which can occur as early as late February in some regions of the United States and throughout the nation's fall "second season."
Are parasitic mites that infect the heart heartworms?Heartworm illness is a deadly condition that can kill pets, primarily dogs, cats, and ferrets, and cause severe lung disease, heart failure, other organ damage, and death. It is brought on by a parasite.
Canine heartworms make dogs vomit?Some dogs may experience nausea due to their heartworms as well and may frequently vomit as a result of the illness. When a dog gets heartworms, not all of them vomit.
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