The nurse should advise a patient with Hodgkin's disease to take doxorubicin as follows: b. After taking this drug, you should anticipate having crimson urine for a few days.
Doxorubicin is a popular anthracycline chemotherapy drug used to treat Hodgkin's disease as well as other cancers. Urine temporarily becomes crimson as a side effect, although this coloring is safe.
This occurs frequently and shouldn't worry you. To minimize needless worry, it is crucial for the nurse to let the client know about this possible adverse effect.
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what are the neurological symptoms of b12 deficiency
Neural modifications
eyesight issues.memory declineneedles and threadsAtaxia, or loss of bodily coordination, can affect your entire body and make it difficult to speak or move.What is neurological disorder?Medically speaking, neurological disorders are conditions that impact the spinal cord, brain, and other nerves present throughout the body. The brain, spinal cord, or other nerves might exhibit structural, biochemical, or electrical abnormalities that can cause a variety of symptoms. The functioning of the brain, spine, or nerves can be damaged or altered, which causes neurological issues. The word "neurological" is derived from neurology, the area of medicine that addresses issues involving the nerve system. Neuro is short for nerve and nervous system.The brain, spine, and numerous nerves that connect the two are all affected by neurological disorders, which are central and peripheral nervous system diseases.To learn more about neurological, refer to:
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The nurse is teaching a group of young women about screening for chlamydia. Which client statement demonstrates that nursing teaching has been effective?a) "If I am a 40-year-old woman with a 'new' partner, I need to be screened again."b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."c) "At age 30, I need yearly testing, even if I have been monogamous for several years."d)"My partner got tested and treated for an STI so I don't need to be tested.
The correct answer is b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."
This statement demonstrates that the nursing teaching has been effective. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. Screening for chlamydia is recommended for sexually active women under the age of 25, as they are at higher risk of infection. The recommended frequency of screening may vary depending on factors such as age, sexual activity, and number of partners. The statement that a sexually active 19-year-old needs to be screened every two years indicates an understanding of the importance of regular screening.
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A nurse is caring for a first-grader receiving prednisone (Meticorten). What outcome does the nurse expect with adrenocorticosteroid therapy?
1 Accelerated wound healing
2 Development of hyperkalemia
3 Increased antibody production
4 Suppressed inflammatory process
The nurse must be aware of the subtle signs of infection, such as changes in food, sleep habits, and behavior, because the inflammatory process has been suppressed.
What is the purpose of adrenocorticosteroids?Adrenocorticosteroids perform a number of crucial physiological and pharmacological tasks. The main functions of the glucocorticoids (cortisol, corticosterone) are the regulation of glucose metabolism and the body's response to stress.
Which drug therapy reduces a child's varicella resistance?In healthy children, oral acyclovir post-exposure prophylaxis appears to frequently prevent or decrease varicella, according to a number of small trials. Nevertheless, this strategy depends on the exposed child establishing sufficient, specific immune responses throughout the incubation phase.
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The physician orders NPH U100 insulin 16 units SC every AM for a client. The nurse prepares the insulin dose. To ensure safety, what does the nurse do?
- Give the insulin to the client.
- Bring the vial.
- Ask another nurse to double-check the measurement.
- Encourage the client to administer the insulin.
To ensure safety, Ask another nurse to double-check the measurement. Option C is correct.
Dosages must be precisely measured. Request that a colleague double-check insulin and heparin measurements, odd amounts (big or tiny), and any medications to be administered intravenously. Insulin is a peptide hormone generated by pancreatic islet beta cells and encoded by the INS gene in humans. It is regarded to be the major anabolic hormone in the body.
Insulin is a hormone produced in the pancreas by beta cells. The pancreas is located underneath and behind the stomach. Insulin is required for the transport of blood sugar (glucose) into cells. Glucose is stored inside cells and utilized for energy later.
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what interaction delivers no radiation dose to the patients coherent compton photoelecgric
Coherent Compton scattering is an interaction in which an X-ray photon interacts with an electron, exchanging energy and momentum, without delivering any radiation dose to the patient.
What is interaction?Interaction is the exchange of information or actions between two or more entities. It is a fundamental concept in many fields, including biology, communications, computer science, and sociology. In the simplest terms, interaction is the act of responding to or engaging with something or someone.
In this process, the photon is scattered by the electron, resulting in a change of direction and energy of the incident X-ray photon. The scattered photon has a different energy and direction than the incident photon, but it does not deposit any energy in the patient, resulting in no radiation dose.
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The nurse notes a 2-hour-old newborn is grunting and lethargic with a respiratory rate of 72. Which actions does the nurse immediately implement? Select all that apply.
A. Allow the mother to breastfeed
B. Place the newborn in an upright position
C. Administer albuterol nebulizer treatment
D. Suction the oral cavity with a bulb syringe
E. Apply a pulse oximeter and apnea monitor
The nurse should position the infant upright. Grunting newborns should be adjusted to allow for lung expansion.
Which move would the nurse make to encourage parent-child bonding right away after the baby was born?Through encouraging skin-to-skin contact, breastfeeding, eye contact, and newborn massage during the first postpartum hour, nurses and childbirth educators can foster the bond between mothers and their newborns.
Which of the following represents the first step in the newborn's resuscitation?The first steps in resuscitation are to warm the infant by placing him or her under a radiant heat source, to put the head in the "sniffing" position to open the airway, to clear the airway with a bulb syringe or suction catheter, if necessary, to dry the infant, and to activate breathing.
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A pregnant client is unable to curtail her alcohol abuse. Which nursing intervention could be performed to reduce complications in the fetus?
a. Suggest that the client exercise.
b. Suggest that the client terminate the high-risk pregnancy.
c. Suggest that the client include folic acid in her diet.
d. Suggest that the client take a multivitamin supplement.
A nurse advices only one form of folate which has been proven to aid in preventing neural tube abnormalities is folic acid.
A healthy, safe diet, regular exercise, as well as avoiding exposure to possibly dangerous substances like lead and radiation can all help lower the risk of complications during pregnancy and support the growth and well-being of the foetus.A nurse advices only one form of folate which has been proven to aid in preventing neural tube abnormalities is folic acid.The safest course of action is to refrain from drinking at all while you are expecting because experts still are unsure of just how much, if any, alcohol is absolutely safe for you all to consume while you are pregnant.
The most crucial thing would be that you quit drinking entirely after finding out you were pregnant. That it's never too late to prevent drinking while expecting.
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What interventions should the nurse implement in caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) following a head injury? Select all that apply.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a rare condition that results from inadequate secretion or action of the hormone vasopressin, which regulates the body's fluid balance. A head injury can cause DI by damaging the pituitary gland, which produces vasopressin.
In caring for a client with DI following a head injury, the nurse should implement the following interventions:
Monitor the client's fluid intake and output closely, including urine output and serum electrolyte levels.
Administer medications as prescribed, such as desmopressin acetate to replace the missing vasopressin hormone.
Encourage the client to maintain adequate fluid and electrolyte balance, including consuming foods and fluids with high electrolyte content.
Educate the client and family on the importance of consistent medication adherence and regular follow-up with the healthcare provider.
Monitor the client for signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, such as dry mucous membranes, rapid heart rate, and low blood pressure.
By implementing these interventions, the nurse can help manage the client's symptoms and prevent complications associated with DI, such as dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
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select all that apply consumers need to be skeptical of nutrition and health-related claims because __________the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers
Answer: the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation.
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources.
Explanation:
The two options that apply to the answer are:
1. nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources and
2. promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
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The nurse is being trained in hospice care. Which intervention by the nurse is most compatible with the goals of end-of-life care for the client?
a. Administer influenza and pneumococcal vaccinations.
b. Prevent the client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease from smoking.
c. Perform passive range-of-motion exercises to prevent contractures.
d. Permit the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream.
The correct option is d. Permit the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream. The intervention by the nurse that is most compatible with the goals of end-of-life care for the client is" Permit the client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream" .
End-of-life care is focused on enhancing quality of life for the client, ensuring comfort, respecting their wishes. Permitting a client with diabetes mellitus to have a serving of ice cream may not be medically necessary, but it aligns with the client's desires and contributes to their emotional well-being. Administering vaccinations, preventing smoking, and performing range-of-motion exercises are all beneficial to client's health but may not be priorities during end-of-life care.
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The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing what?
A. Measuring the patient's apical pulse before and after crying
B. Assessing the patient's apical pulse 30 minutes after crying
C. Measuring the patient's pulse deficit after crying
D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate
The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate.
You can check your pulse by simply putting someone's fingers over just a large artery near your skin. One of the eight common blood vessel pulse sites is the apical pulse. It's located in the left chest region, just below your nipple.
A stethoscope is used to listen for the apical pulse over the chest, where the mitral valve of the heart is most easily heard. The apical pulse is sited at the fourth sacral region at the left middle of the chest in young children and babies.
It is also recommended to assess the apical pulse in newborns and children under the age of five because radial transients are difficult to pinch and count in this age group. Apical pulses are typically measured in children under the age of five.
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Which laboratory test provides evidence consistent with a client having renal impairment? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
1. Serum albumin: 4.7 g/dL(6.815 µmol/L)
2. Serum creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL (176.8 µmol/L)
3. Serum potassium: 5.9 mEq/L (5.9 mmol/L)
4. Serum cholesterol: 120 mg/dL (3.108 mmol/L)
5. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 32 mg/dL (11.424 mmol/L)
The laboratory tests that provide evidence consistent with a client having renal impairment are:
2. Serum creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL (176.8 µmol/L)
3. Serum potassium: 5.9 mEq/L (5.9 mmol/L)
4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 32 mg/dL (11.424 mmol/L)
What is renal impairment?
Renal impairment, also known as kidney impairment or kidney dysfunction, refers to a condition where the kidneys are not functioning properly. The kidneys are vital organs that filter waste products and excess fluids from the blood, and also help to regulate electrolyte balance, blood pressure, and the production of red blood cells.
Renal impairment can be caused by a variety of factors, including diseases such as diabetes and hypertension, infections, toxins, medications, and genetic conditions. It can be acute, meaning that it develops rapidly, or chronic, meaning that it develops slowly over time.
Symptoms of renal impairment can vary, but may include fatigue, weakness, swelling in the feet and ankles, decreased urine output, and high blood pressure. Diagnosis of renal impairment typically involves a combination of physical exams, laboratory tests, and imaging studies.
The laboratory tests that provide evidence consistent with a client having renal impairment are:
2. Serum creatinine: 2.0 mg/dL (176.8 µmol/L)
3. Serum potassium: 5.9 mEq/L (5.9 mmol/L)
4. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN): 32 mg/dL (11.424 mmol/L)
Elevated levels of serum creatinine and blood urea nitrogen (BUN) are indicative of impaired kidney function, as the kidneys are responsible for filtering and excreting these waste products from the blood. High levels of serum potassium can also be a sign of renal impairment, as the kidneys play a critical role in regulating potassium levels in the body. The other laboratory test results provided do not provide evidence consistent with renal impairment.
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ballargean’s infant test in which an infant watched a moving screen either pass through or stop on an object suggested that
According to Baillargeon, newborns took far longer to gaze at the impossible event and were astonished because it didn't conform to their expectations for how physical objects should behave.
What does Piaget's theory mean by object permanence?
Understanding that things and people continue to exist even when you can't see them or hear them is a requirement for object permanence. This concept, which was first articulated by child psychologist Jean Piaget, marks a significant turning point in a baby's mental development.
What was measured by Baillargeon?Baillargeon's studies of object permanence evaluate newborns' fixation times on (i.e., how long they look at) impossible versus probable occurrences in an effort to account for infants' lack of movement abilities.
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which medication would most likely cause the client’s eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects? ketorolac ofloxacin diclofenac vidarabine
The medication that would most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects is Ofloxacin.
Ofloxacin is an antibiotic that belongs to the class of drugs known as fluoroquinolones, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It is administered topically, often as eye drops, to treat eye infections such as conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, and bacterial infections of the eyelid.One of the most common side effects of ofloxacin eye drops is eye irritation, which can include itching and burning of the eyelids and eyes.
Other side effects of ofloxacin eye drops may include redness, tearing, blurred vision, or sensitivity to light. If these symptoms persist or worsen, patients should contact their healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
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Answer:
vidarabine
Explanation: vidarabine is an antiviral agent that causes sensitive reactions such as itching eyelids and burning eyes.
a primigravida has just delivered at term, and the nurse is palpating the fundus. where should the nurse expect to find the patient’s fundus?
After delivering a baby at term, the nurse would expect to find the fundus (the top of the uterus) in the midline of the abdomen, approximately halfway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus (belly button).
In the immediate postpartum period, the fundus will typically be located at or just below the level of the umbilicus, and it should feel firm and well-contracted. As the uterus continues to involute (shrink back down to its pre-pregnancy size), the fundus will gradually descend and become smaller and more difficult to palpate over time.
It's important for the nurse to monitor the position and tone of the fundus regularly after delivery to assess for any signs of uterine atony or postpartum hemorrhage.
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The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?
a.Administering refrigerated drops
b.Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops
c.Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops
d.Inserting earplugs after administering the drops
The procedure that would assist drug penetration into the ear canal when administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa is option B: inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then aiding the drops.
What is acute bacterial otitis externa?Acute bacterial otitis externa (ABOE) is an outer ear canal infection caused by bacteria. It is commonly referred to as "swimmer's ear" because it often occurs in people who spend a lot of time in the water.
What are the causes and treatment of acute bacterial otitis externa?Common causes of ABOE include excessive moisture in the ear canal, irritation from objects in the ear, and damage to the ear canal from cotton swabs or other objects. Treatment typically involves using antibiotic ear drops and measures to prevent further irritation or damage to the ear canal.
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the specialized lymphatic capillaries located in the lining of the small intestines are called——. They are specialized to absorb fat from the intestines.
Villi, which resemble fingers, cover the mucosa that lines the small intestine. In the heart of each villus are lacteals, specialized lymph capillaries that are blood capillaries.
Specialized lymphatic capillaries: What are they?Microvessels called lymphatic capillaries can be discovered in the tissues of the majority of your body's organs. They move and filter lymphatic fluid (lymph) from the cells and tissues of your body. Blood pressure and volume are kept constant by lymphatic capillaries, which also serve to avoid fluid retention.
What is the name of the liquid found in the bigger lymphatic veins' lymphatic capillaries?Little lymphatic veins take up and remove the interstitial fluid as it starts to assemble, returning it to circulation. The interstitial fluid becomes lymph as soon as it passes through the lymph capillaries.
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What ethical question relates to the product element of the marketing mix? (Check all that apply.) nonprofit. Charities, churches, and some hospitals
For non-profit organisations like charities, churches, and some hospitals, there are no moral dilemmas pertaining to the product component of the marketing mix.
Which of the following principles apply to marketing ethics?Adopting ethical values entails fostering relationships and boosting consumer trust in the marketing industry's integrity by reaffirming these fundamental principles: honesty, accountability, fairness, respect, transparency, and citizenship.
Which of the following doesn't belong in the marketing mix?A target market is not part of the marketing mix. A target market is a collection of potential customers who a company wants to promote its products and services to.
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A 70 kg (154.3 lb) patient has been on mechanical ventilation for two days. Which indicates readiness to wean?
Successful ventilator weaning is predicted by an RR of 30 breaths/min and a spontaneous rapid-shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 105 (respiratory rate divided by the spontaneous Vt in liters).
What is meant by mechanical ventilation?When you are unable to breathe on your own, mechanical ventilation is a sort of therapy that assists you or takes over for you. During surgery or if your lungs aren't functioning properly, you can be on a ventilator.The employment of a machine to aid with breathing is known as mechanical ventilation. When a patient has a condition that results in either high carbon dioxide levels or low oxygen levels (such as pneumonia), mechanical ventilators are routinely employed (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).
What are the disadvantages of mechanical ventilation?It might not make financial sense to backup mechanical ventilation for a crucial facility. A mechanical ventilation system frequently experiences equipment failure or utility service interruptions. Both healthy and diseased lungs may be damaged by mechanical ventilation, but the latter's damage will be far more severe because of increased microscale tensions. The terms ventilator-associated lung injury (VALI) and ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) have been used interchangeably (VALI).
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what type of connective tissue is part of the parietal serosa
A single layer of mesothelial cells and a thin layer of loose epicardial connective tissue divide the serosa (mesothelial cells), which forms a complete sac containing pericardial fluid, from the heart.
What materials make up the parietal layer?The pericardium is a two-layered tissue that surrounds the proximal major arteries and the heart. It is made up of two layers: an outside parietal pericardium made of layers of collagen fibrils and elastin fibers, and an inner visceral pericardium, also known as the epicardium, when in touch with the myocardium.
Adipose tissue is there in the serosa?Adipose tissues, which play a significant role in both innate and adaptive immunity, are found inside the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. These cavities are lined by serosal membranes with immune-active mesothelium. The serosal immune system is made up of them all.
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lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a _____ who primarily prescribes medications.
Lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a psychiatrist who primarily prescribes medications.
Who is a psychiatrist?An M.D. or D.O. who focuses on mental health, particularly substance use issues, is known as a psychiatrist.
Psychiatrists are trained to evaluate psychiatric issues on both the mental and physical levels. Many reasons lead people to seek out psychiatric assistance.
A psychiatrist is a medical professional who focuses on identifying and treating disorders of the mind. A psychologist and some other mental health specialists can identify anxiety and offer therapy (psychotherapy).
Thus, Lee is a psychopharmacologist, a type of psychiatrist that mostly writes prescriptions for drugs.
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Which form of elder maltreatment is the most common?
A. Financial exploitation
B. Psychological (emotional) abuse
C. Caregiver neglect
D. Physical abuse
The most common form of elder maltreatment is caregiver neglect.
What is maltreatment?Maltreatment is a general term used to describe abusive or neglectful behavior toward another person, especially a child or vulnerable adult. Maltreatment can take many forms, including physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Physical abuse involves the use of physical force that causes injury, pain, or impairment. Sexual abuse involves any form of sexual activity without consent or with someone who is unable to consent. Emotional or psychological abuse involves actions that cause emotional or mental anguish, such as constant criticism, insults, or threats. Neglect is the failure to provide basic needs such as food, shelter, or medical care. Financial exploitation involves the unauthorized or improper use of an individual's funds, assets, or property. Maltreatment can have long-lasting negative effects on the victim, including physical injuries, emotional trauma, social and developmental delays, and financial harm. It is important to recognize the signs of maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities to protect the safety and well-being of the victim.
Here,
Elder neglect is the failure of a caregiver to provide basic necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or medical care to an older person. It can also involve the failure to provide emotional support and social engagement.
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A client with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of an infection. The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of which finding?
The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of Fistula formation with an abscess.
What is Crohn's disease ?It is still unclear what exactly causes Crohn's disease. Diet and stress were once thought to be contributing factors to Crohn's disease, but today's medical professionals understand that these things only serve to exacerbate the condition.
Crohn's disease is a severe condition. Although there is presently no cure, there are medications that can effectively control the illness. You may experience flare-ups and remissions, like many other people with chronic conditions. See your doctor if you notice any changes in your symptoms or any new ones.
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A chiropractor has hired and then fired many different massage therapists. When he interviews a massage therapist, he specifically asks what skills they use during the massage. He wants someone who can make justifiable clinical decisions about what type of massage to perform to achieve the outcomes of the treatment plan he has developed for his patient. Routinely, he encounters feedback about how the massage therapist suggested a supplement, gave recommendations about a specific exercise, or told patients what conditions they had. What is the major concern of the chiropracto
The primary worry of chiropractors is breaches of scope of practice. Several massage therapists were employed by a chiropractor before being sacked.
What does a chiropractor actually do when someone interviews them for a massage?A chiropractor is qualified to use spinal adjustments to ease joint and muscle discomfort in order to ensure your body is operating as efficiently as possible. To the joints and muscles that are in discomfort, these spinal adjustments will improve blood flow and nerve conductivity.
How are physiotherapists and chiropractors different from one another?You can increase your mobility with the assistance of a physical therapist by doing stretches, exercises, and, in some cases, getting some manipulations done. To assist your body in healing itself, chiropractors manipulate and adjust your spine.
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a client is being admitted from the emergency room reporting shortness of breath, wheezing, and coughing. what would the nurse formulate as an appropriate nursing diagnosis?
A nurse assigns a room to a patient admitted with Hepatitis-A. CHF (congestive heart failure) diagnosis would be an appropriate roommate for this patient.
What is CHF and it symptoms and causes?CHF (congestive heart failure) occurs when the heart muscle cannot pump enough blood. When this happens, it often causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can cause SOB (shortness of breath).
Early signs of CHF: Excess water in body tissues such as ankles, feet, legs and abdomen. coughing or wheezing. Difficulty breathing. Weight gain not attributable to anything else.
Therefore, A nurse assigns a room to a patient admitted with Hepatitis-A. CHF (congestive heart failure) diagnosis would be an appropriate roommate for this patient.
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What is the ICD code for cervical radiculopathy?
ICD 10 code for Radiculopathy, cervical region. Get free rules, notes, crosswalks, synonyms, history for ICD-10 code M54.12.
What causes radiculopathy?A common cause of radiculopathy is narrowing of the space where nerve roots exit the spine, which can be a result of stenosis, bone spurs, disc herniation or other conditions. Radiculopathy symptoms can often be managed with nonsurgical treatments, but minimally invasive surgery can also help some patients.
What is the difference between sciatica and radiculopathy?Radiculopathy is the term used to describe the symptoms of nerve root irritation, which can include pain, numbness, tingling and weakness. Sciatica refers to a common type of radiculopathy that results in pain from the back to the buttocks and or legs.
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The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
a. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles
b. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition
c. Gastrointestinal system (GI) and lower extremity muscles
d. Respiratory system and facial muscles
Fatigue and muscular weakening of the respiratory system, face muscles, and extremities are symptoms of myasthenia gravis. The Brain, Gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems are unaffected by it.
Which symptoms should a patient with myasthenia gravis present with?For more than 75% of patients, droopy eyelids or double vision is the most typical MG symptom at first presentation. Swallowing problems, slurred or nasal speech, chewing problems, and weakness in the face, neck, and extremities develop.
What is myasthenia gravis affecting?Muscle weakness is a common long-term symptom of myasthenia gravis. The muscles that regulate the eyes and eyelids, facial emotions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking are the ones most frequently affected. Nonetheless, it can impact the majority of bodily parts.
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Which one of the following goals is not a purpose of clinical protocols?Select one:a. Advance the knowledge base of nursingb. Promote consistency of carec. Set forth standards of cared. Support the clinical decision making of nurses
(Option A) Advance the knowledge base of nursing is not a purpose of clinical protocols.
What are clinical protocols?Clinical protocols are standardized, evidence-based procedures or guidelines that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various medical conditions. They are developed by healthcare organizations or professional associations and are designed to promote consistent and high-quality care.
Clinical protocols are designed to promote consistency of care, set forth standards of care, and support the clinical decision-making of healthcare professionals. They are typically evidence-based guidelines or procedures that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various conditions.
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the recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receive the first dose of the ________ vaccine at birth.
The recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receives the first dose of the HepB vaccine at birth.
The hepatitis B vaccine preferable is if the first dose is given within 12–24 hours of birth, but kids not immunized previously can get it at any age. Some low birth weight infants will get it at 1 month or when they're discharged from the hospital. After the first dose, the second dose should be given within 1 to 2 months.
A child’s influenza vaccination history before the 2010–11 influenza season is irrelevant to determining the number of influenza vaccine doses needed for a child aged 6 months through 8 years. Ignore any influenza vaccine (including monovalent) received before the 2010–11 season.
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The nurse is reviewing several orders for medications. Which dosage would cause the nurse to be concerned?
a) 500 mg
b) 50 mg
c) 0.5 mg
d) .5 mg
A number of pharmaceutical orders are being reviewed by the nurse. The dosage of 0.5 mg is the one that would worry the nurse.
What elements influence medicine dosages?The medicine dose is influenced by a number of variables, including age, body weight, gender, delivery route, timing, ambient circumstances, disease state, and many more. A higher dose might be necessary when lean body weight rises because this will result in a commensurate rise in medication clearance.
Why does weight matter when prescribing medications?The weight of a patient is crucial information since it is frequently used to determine the proper medicine dosage. The dose of a prescribed drug may differ materially from what is recommended when medication errors result from erroneous or unreported patient weights.
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