A food label says one serving contains 300 calories, 20g of total fat, and 8g of carbohydrates. 22g of protein does one serving contain.
Proteins are huge biomolecular and macromolecular structures made up of one or more long chains of amino acid residues. Proteins serve a wide range of roles within animals, including catalyzing metabolic events, DNA replication, responding to stimuli, providing structure to cells and organisms, and transporting chemicals.
Proteins differ primarily in their amino acid sequence, which is determined by the nucleotide sequence of their genes and usually culminates in protein folding into a specific 3D structure that dictates its activity.
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Despite living oceans apart, the North American Kangaroo rat and the Australian hopping mouse lock similar. Both are noctural and burrow underground. What can you inter?
Similarities that we observe between the North American Kangaroo rat and the Australian hopping mouse, it can be concluded that they are evolved with similar traits due to convergent evolution.
In general , the Convergent evolution is the phenomenon through which different species gets independently evolve and generating similar traits with response to identical environmental challenges.
Thus, both the Kangaroo rat and the hopping mouse have evolved with almost similar adaptations in their nocturnal and burrowing lifestyles. Both of these adaptations with enhanced senses such as hearing and night vision, physical features such as large hind legs for hopping and digging are the result of convergent evolution .
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which of these terms applies to an organism with extra sets of chromosomes?
The term that applies to an organism with extra sets of chromosomes is "polyploid".
Polyploidy is a condition where an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes in their cells. Organisms can become polyploid through different mechanisms such as whole genome duplication, which results in the doubling of the entire genome, or through the hybridization of two different species that have different numbers of chromosomes.
Polyploidy is common in plants, but it can also occur in animals, including humans, although it is generally rare and often associated with genetic disorders. Polyploidy can occur naturally or be induced artificially.
In nature, polyploidy is most common in plants, where it can arise through the fusion of two different species, resulting in a hybrid offspring with a different number of chromosome sets than either parent. It can also occur through errors during meiosis, the process of cell division that produces reproductive cells.
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Which of the following is most likely to be the direct result of lack of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn?
A) Decreased potential yield
B) Decreased dependence on chemical fertilizers
C) Increased susceptibility on plant disease
D) Increased resistance to pests
The correct answer is option C) Lack of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn results in increased susceptibility to plant disease.
A food crop is more susceptible to plant disease when it lacks genetic variety. This is due to the decreased likelihood of any genetic variation that may offer disease protection in crops with limited genetic diversity.
As a result, a plant's likelihood of developing a genetic mutation that would enable it to fight off the disease is reduced when it is exposed to a particular pathogen, increasing the likelihood that the plant would be harmed by it.
Additionally, because the plant is unable to rely on other genetic variants to give protection, a crop with a lack of genetic variety is more likely to be afflicted by a single disease.
A general absence of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn is most likely to result in increased susceptibility to plant disease.
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Which groups consist of parasitic flagellated cells, such as trypanosoma, the organism that causes sleeping sickness?
Trypanosoma is a genus of kinetoplastids and belons to phylum Euglenozoa.
In general , Euglenozoa are the group of unicellular organisms those are known by the presence of flagella and a single nucleus. This phylum includes large variety of organisms, some of them survive in free-living state while others are parasite.
Hence , the parasitic members of Euglenozoa comprises of Trypanosoma brucei, that is responsible for causing African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness in humans and animals, also the Leishmania species, which cause leishmaniasis, is a disease that impact on skin and many internal organs.
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during what phase does the nuclear membrane reform around the chromosomes?
Telophase. Mitosis' final stage, with many of the procedures seen during prometaphase reversed.
The nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes clustered at the cell's poles, the chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse, and the mitotic spindle disappear.
Telophase is the final stage of both mitosis and meiosis in a eukaryotic cell. Telophase occurs when prophase and prometaphase are reversed.
Telophase reverses the effects of prophase and prometaphase (disintegration of the nucleolus and nuclear membrane). As the chromosomes reach the cell poles, the nuclear envelope reassembles itself around each set of chromatids, nucleoli reappear, and the chromosomes begin to decondense back into the expanded chromatin that is present.
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Place the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation. A) Diaphragm moves inferiorly B) Ribs move up and out C) Internal intercostals contract D) Decrease in width of thorax E) External intercostals contract E) Diaphragm moves superiorly F) Thorax increases in volume G) Ribs move down and in
Expiration and inspiration are the two main components of pulmonary ventilation. These are the appropriate pulmonary breathing phases for the tasks listed below.
One series of inhalation and expiration makes up a respiratory cycle. Expiration is the process through which air leaves the lungs, while inspiration is the process by which air enters them. The diaphragm flattens and tightens during inhalation, and the chest cavity widens.
The diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome-like form during exhalation, forcing air out the lungs.
A) movement of the inferior diaphragm
B) The ribcage rises and spreads;
C) the internal intercostals contract
F) The thorax expands;
G) the ribs descend and inward.
D) A narrowing of the thorax
E) Contracting external intercostals.
H) Superior diaphragm movement
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Correct Question:
Place the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation. A) Diaphragm moves inferiorly B) Ribs move up and out C) Internal intercostals contract D) Decrease in width of thorax E) External intercostals contract F) Thorax increases in volume G) Ribs move down and in. H) Diaphragm moves superiorly.
what procedure can be used to retrieve a stone that is in the kidney pelvis?
The main procedure used to retrieve a stone that is in the kidney pelvis is called extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL).
The ESWL procedure uses high-energy shock waves to break up the stones into smaller bits that may be passed in the urine. It is non-invasive. This therapy is typically recommended over alternative approaches like open surgery since it is less intrusive and has less hazards.
The kidney stone is the only target of the ESWL technique, which involves placing the patient on a water-filled cushion. The stone is broken up into small enough bits by the shockwave fragments that they may be passed in the urine.
The treatment typically lasts 30 to 60 minutes and is carried out while the patient is under general anaesthesia.
The patient is often observed for a few hours following the treatment to make sure that all of the pieces have gone. If any of the particles are too big to pass, further therapy may occasionally be required.
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Amino acids are delivered to the ribosome in their appropriate order by:________
Amino acids are delivered to the ribosome in their appropriate order by tRNA. An anticodon is a nucleotide bases triplet on the tRNA. Moreover, this anticodon identifies the specific peptide that the tRNA transports.
Molecule delivers each amino acid to the ribosome. A string of amino acids is created by sequentially combining these amino acids. The chain folds up to create the finished protein after the final amino acid is added.
Each DNA nucleotide that corresponds for an amine group determines the order of the amino acids. The order of the amino acids .
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what are the 22 bones of the skull
There are 22 bones in the skull, as well as a ton of cartilage and ligaments. All of the skull's other bones, excluding the mandible, are fused together.
The majority of adult specimens have 22 bones in the skull, which are connected by cranial sutures. The skull serves a structurally supporting and protective purpose. The cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and orbits are the interior contents of the skull that will harden and fuse during development to preserve them.
The skull's bones can be split into two primary groups:
There are 14 facial skeletal bones and 8 cranial bones.
The list of neurocranial bones is as follows: Ethmoid -1, Frontal -1, Occipital -1, Parietal -2, Sphenoid-1, Temporal -2
The list of facial skeleton bones is as follows:
Inferior nasal concha -2, Lacrimal -2, Mandible -1, Maxilla -2, Nasal -2, Platine -2, Vomer -1, Zygomatic -2
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||EARTH SCIENCE||
Identify one way oceans can influence climate change. (1 point)
• Ocean salinity affects water volume.
Oceans moderate warming by absorbing carbon dioxide.
• Ocean currents affect tidal movement.
O Ocean acidity affect marine organisms.
Oceans moderate warming by absorbing carbon dioxide. The correct option is B.
How do oceans affect climate change?When carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere, it is absorbed by the ocean surface and dissolved into seawater. This process helps to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which would otherwise contribute to global warming. However, as the ocean absorbs more carbon dioxide, it becomes more acidic, which can harm marine organisms and ecosystems. Additionally, as the ocean warms, it can also cause changes in ocean currents and weather patterns, which can have further impacts on climate change.
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how much time will it take for element z to go through 5 half-lives?
Almost one hour and forty-five minutes pass while element z goes through 5 half-lives
A useful concept is half-life, which is the length of time required for half of the initial substance to change or degrade (symbol: t1/2). Half-lives can be calculated using measurements of the change in mass and the elapsed time for that change. The only thing we do know is that half of the initial nuclei will disintegrate throughout the substance's half-life. Chemical reactions can be sped up or slowed down by changes in temperature, concentration, and other factors, but the half-life is unaffected by these changes. Each radioactive isotope's half-life will differ and be unaffected by any of these conditions.
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Which description applies to post-translational gene regulation? O a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand O protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as folding O processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins O mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of introns O heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence
Option 3 is Correct. Post-translational gene regulation is characterised by the processing of exons in mRNA to produce single genes that code for several proteins.
The modulation of active protein levels is referred to as post-translational regulation. There are several types. The process is carried out either through reversible processes (posttranslational changes like phosphorylation or sequestration) or through irreversible actions (proteolysis).
The phrase "regulation of gene expression after translation" is the one that best describes post-translational control. The term "post-translational control" describes the regulation of proteins following translation. Protein structures can be changed as a result of post-translational regulation. An operon is a group of genes that is controlled by a single promoter. In bacteria, optrons are typical.
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Correct Question:
Which description applies to post-translational gene regulation?
1. a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand
2. protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as folding
3. processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins
4. mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of introns
5. heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence
32. 30 detik1 ptQ. A retrovirus gets its name from teh fact that, when it infects a cell, a retrovirus-injects pieces of its protein coatproduces a DNA copy of its RNAconverts its capsid proteins into RNA
Given that its genetic makeup is single-stranded RNA nucleotides, HIV is categorized as a retrovirus.
Furthermore, once within the infected host cell, the reverse transcriptase enzyme that retroviruses possess has the ability to create a DNA duplicate of their RNA. The virus can enter a cell through a variety of processes, including properly adhering to the cell. For this to happen, the virus needs a suitable protein on its cell surface that can bind to the receptor of the host cell. It considers the viral particle to be harmless after attaching to the cell and releases the virus into the host cell.
After that, the virus releases its genetic material into the cell, where it can multiply by exploiting the host's enzyme system and grow in number. In this way, they moved from one cell to the next.
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what is population of detroit
Much less than in most American towns. Detroit was named one of the top 35 cities in the United States with the lowest expense of living in 2022 by Niche.
However, while the expense of living in Detroit is lower than the national average, the city still has a high poverty rate. Long known as the world's automobile centre, Detroit is also known for its distinctive Motown music sound from the 1960s. Detroit is home to a diverse ethnic population, including residents of Italian, English, German, Polish, Irish, Mexican, Middle Eastern, African, and Greek heritage.
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What are the muscles in your legs?
The quadriceps, hamstrings, adductors in the upper leg or thigh, and calves in the lower legs are the major muscular groups in the legs.
These muscle groups are composed of many lesser muscles, and there are additional stabilising muscles that are not included in these groups. Upper limb muscles include the quadriceps and hamstrings. Calf muscles collaborate with other lower limb muscles to help you move your feet.
The anterior compartment of the thigh is made up of three main muscles (actually, two muscles and one muscle group): the pectineus, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris. Furthermore, the iliopsoas muscle terminates in the anterior region.
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A client is attempting to become pregnant and is using varied methods to identify ovulation. What assessment finding would most clearly suggest that the client is ovulating?
a. The client has clear, thin cervical mucus
b. Cervical mucus is absent
c. The client menstruated eight days ago
d. The client's progesterone levels are peaking
The correct answer is option D: The assessment finding that would most clearly suggest that the client is ovulating is a peak in progesterone levels.
Progesterone levels in the client are at their highest. The ovaries create the hormone progesterone, which is necessary for ovulation to take place.
The client is likely in the middle of her ovulatory cycle when her progesterone levels are high. Progesterone levels will be at their peak during ovulation, and this may be determined by testing using an endocrine profile.
Also, during ovulation, the client's cervical mucus will be transparent and thin, which will make it simpler for sperm to access the egg for fertilisation.
Progesterone levels are the most accurate indication of ovulation, but cervical mucus and the time of the menstrual cycle are also significant factors.
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________ a superior projection on the ________ bone, attaches to the dura mater and secures the brain within the skull.
Crista Galli a superior projection on the Ethmoid bone, attaches to the dura mater and secures the brain within the skull.
Crista Galli “ Rooster's comb,”; a superior protuberance that attaches to the dura mammy, helping to secure the brain within the cranium. Cribriform plates Located side to the crista galli; form a portion of the roof of the nasal depression and the bottom of the anterior cranial fossa.
The Crista Galli is a superior bony protuberance that is an attachment point for a covering subcaste of the brain. On either side of the crista galli is the cribriform plate. It forms the roof of the nasal depression and contributes to the anterior cranial fossa. The scaled fissure joins the parietal bone and the temporal bone. The sphenofrontal fissure links the anterior bone and the sphenoid bone.
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What are the steps in the life cycle of a red blood cell?
Erythrocytes go through three stages in their life cycle: creation, maturation, and destruction. One of the hematopoiesis's subprocesses, erythropoiesis, takes place in the red marrow.
What is the erythrocyte's primary purpose?a kind of blood cell which the bone marrow produces and is present in the blood. Hemoglobin, a protein found in erythrocytes, conveys o from the lungs towards every cell in the body.
What does having a high erythrocyte count mean?You have erythrocytosis, which is defined as an elevated red blood cell count. As a result, your blood is thicker than it ought to be, which raises the possibility of blood clots.
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the eyeball is composed of three tissue layers. list them from outermost to innermost.
There are three tissue layers organised concentrically inside the eye, making up its interior structures: The outer layers consist of the sclera and cornea.
The iris, ciliary body, and choroid are the three divisions of the uvea, the intermediate vascular layer. The deepest layer is composed up entirely of nerve tissue, which is the retina.
Sclera: This outer layer is formed of dense connective tissue.
This layer's component nearest to the eye is called the cornea.
The choroid, which is the middle layer and is bluish in colour and has numerous blood veins, is present.
When compared to the front of the eyeball, where the ciliary body is formed, the layer is thinner at the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball.
Forward growth of the ciliary body creates the iris.
The part of the eye that may be seen as having colour is the iris.
The retina -This layer is the inner one.
Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and photoreceptor cells are distributed in three layers, one on top of the other, inside to outside.
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why is it important that meiosis result in daughter cells that have half of the original cell’s chromosomes?
Answer:
Each daughter cell will have half of the original 46 chromosomes, or 23 chromosomes. Each chromosome consists of 2 sister chromatids. The daughter cells now move in to the third and final phase of meiosis: meiosis II. At the end of meiosis I there are two haploid cells.
The why and how of biology liberty?
The concept of biological liberty refers to an individual's right to make decisions regarding their own body and biological processes.
It encompasses the right to choose whether or not to engage in certain medical procedures, the right to access medical treatments, and the right to make decisions about reproduction.
The "why" of biological liberty is rooted in the principle of autonomy, which asserts that individuals have the right to make decisions about their own lives, including their own bodies. It recognizes that individuals are best placed to make decisions about what is in their own best interest and that these decisions should be respected and protected.
The "how" of biological liberty involves creating legal and social frameworks that protect and promote individual autonomy in matters related to biology and healthcare. This can include laws and regulations that ensure access to healthcare services, protections against discrimination, and safeguards for informed consent.
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asphyxia due to obstruction of airway by food bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication is called___
Acute alcohol intoxication is a condition related to drinking an excess of liquor in a short measure of time. It's additionally called liquor harming.
Acute alcohol intoxication is a clinically destructive condition that typically follows the ingestion of a lot of liquor. Clinical indications are heterogeneous and include various organs and mechanical assemblies, with conduct, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, aspiratory, neurological, and metabolic impacts.
An enormous extent of the ethanol in alcohol is consumed into the blood from the stomach and the rest from the small digestive system. 7 The more drawn-out liquor stays in the stomach, the more it takes to be assimilated, bringing down the pace of inebriation.
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Damage to your free nerve endings will have the following effect?
Damage to your free nerve ending will have which effects: correct answer is all of the following ( Inability to detect deep pressure , Inability to detect itching and tickling sensations , Inability to feel pain ) Option d .
Temperature, mechanical stimulation (touch, pressure, stretch), and danger can all be detected by free nerve endings (nociception). As a result, several free nerve endings function as nociceptors, cutaneous mechanoreceptors, and thermoreceptors. They thereby demonstrate polymodality.
Detecting signals from injured tissue or the possibility of injury, nociceptors are sensory receptors that also, indirectly, react to chemicals generated by the damaged tissue. Nociceptor nerve endings are free (bare) nerve endings that may be found in the skin, muscle, joints, bone, and viscera.
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Full Question: Damage to your free nerve endings will have which of the following effects? Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer.
a Inability to detect deep pressure
b Inability to detect itching and tickling sensations
с Inability to feel pain
d All of the above
what do we call a microbial culture consisting of two or more species of bacteria?
A microbial culture which consists of two or more than two species of bacteria is known as a mixed culture.
Bacteria are basically unicellular prokaryotes which do not happen to contain a well-defined, membrane bound nucleus or organelles in its cell body and has a single circular chromosomes. Bacteria mostly exist in colonies and can be grown in labs and the process is known as culturing of bacteria.
There are a number of different types of bacterial cultures. One of them is pure culture. A pure culture is a bacterial culture which contains only one type of bacteria, A mixed culture is a culture which contains two or more than two types of bacteria.
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Consider the following reaction. What type of bond is holding the two atoms together? K+Br-> K*+ Br -> KBr
The two atoms are joined by an ionic sort of connection. One chemical element differs from the others due to its atoms, which are tiny pieces of substance. The main structural component of an atom is its nucleus.
What substances comprise atoms?The primary particle types that make up an atom are quarks and electrons. The nucleus of an atom is surrounded by a region of electrons. Every electron has a negative electrical charge attached to it. Quarks are the building blocks of the protons and neutrons that make up the atom's nucleus.
Why are atoms named?Yet when it comes to the atom's name, we have to go back to ancient Greece around the year 400 B.C. Democritus, a great philosopher, suggested the use of the Greek word atomos, which means "uncuttable."
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The authors initial stimulus for formulating the ninety-five theses was:_________
The author's initial stimulus for formulating the ninety-five theses was the sales of indulgence.
An author is someone who creates written works, such as books, articles, essays, poetry, or plays. They use language to convey ideas, emotions, and stories to their audience.
Some authors write for pleasure or self-expression, while others write as a profession or for financial gain. Becoming an author often requires developing strong writing skills, creativity, persistence, and a willingness to revise and edit one's work.
The sale of indulgences served as the author's first impetus for making the Ninety-five Theses.
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Question 2 of 10
The diagram summarizes the electron transport chain of cellular respiration.
(e-
Enzyme complexes
H+
NADH
FADH₂
Enzyme complex
Electron transport chain
OA. The inner membrane
OB. The matrix
Based on the diagram, in which part of a mitochondrion does electron
transport happen?
Intermembrane space
C. The enzyme complexes
D. The intermembrane space
Matrix
In The inner membrane of a mitochondrion does electron transport happen.
Define electron transport chain .
An electron transport chain is a collection of protein complexes and other molecules that couple protons (H+ ions) across a membrane with the transfer of electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors via redox reactions (both reduction and oxidation occur concurrently). The ETC receives its electrons from NADH and FADH2 through the cooperation of four big multisubunit enzyme complexes and two mobile electron carriers. The electron transport pathway contains a large number of membrane-bound enzymes.
The electron transport chain uses the energy produced by the reactions between oxygen and reduced substances like cytochrome c and (indirectly) NADH and FADH2 to pump protons into the intermembrane region, creating the electrochemical gradient over the inner mitochondrial membrane.
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in which organelle does the process of the electron transport chain occur?
The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes and Electron carrier molecules located in the inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotic cells.
In prokaryotic cells, the electron transport chain occurs in the cell Membrane. The electron transport chain is an essential part of aerobic Respiration, the process by which cells produce energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) by using oxygen to break down glucose or other molecules.
The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes that Transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors, ultimately Generating a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This proton gradient is then used to generate ATP through a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
Overall, the electron transport chain is a critical process for the Production of ATP and plays a key role in cellular respiration.
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during which phase of the cell cycle is cell growth most significant?multiple choices phasemitosisg2 phaseg1 phaseg0 phase
During phase G1 of the cell cycle the cell growth is most significant. The correct option is Option C.
Interphase is the most important stage of cell cycle. The cell stays in the interphase for maximum periods. During this phase the cell prepares itself for division. The cell undergoes cell growth and replication during this phase. Interphase consists of G1, G2, and S phase. G1 stage is the state where the cell grows and replicates most of its organelles wheres in S stage the cell duplicates its DNA and in G2 some organelle replication takes place along with some growth.During the G1 phase the cell continues to grow but does not replicate. During the S phase the DNA of the cell replicates. During the G2 phase the RNA, proteins and other macromolecules required for mitotic division are produced by the cell. So the correct answer is the 'G1 phase'.
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What are the proteins released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells and regulate the immune response?
a. Interferon.
b. Interleukins.
c. Cytokines.
d. Lymph.
The proteins released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells and regulate the immune response are called cytokines.
Cytokines are a diverse group of proteins that act as signaling molecules in the immune system, allowing cells to communicate with one another and coordinate the immune response.
Interleukins are a specific type of cytokine that are produced by leukocytes and help to regulate the growth and activity of immune cells, while interferons are another type of cytokine that play a key role in the immune response to viral infections.
Lymph is a fluid that circulates in the lymphatic system and plays a role in the immune system, but it is not a protein released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells.
Hence, the correct option is C.
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