A lack of ascorbic acid (vitamin c) will result in reduced stability of collagen the protein.
What is ascorbic acid?
Ascorbic acid, also known as Vitamin C, is a water-soluble vitamin that is essential for many biological processes in the body. It is found in many fruits and vegetables, especially citrus fruits, strawberries, kiwi, guava, and papaya.Ascorbic acid acts as an antioxidant, helping to protect cells from damage caused by free radicals, which are unstable molecules produced by metabolic processes and environmental toxins. It also plays an important role in the production of collagen, a protein that is necessary for the health and repair of skin, bones, and connective tissues.Ascorbic acid is required for the synthesis of several important neurotransmitters, including serotonin and norepinephrine. It also aids in the absorption of iron from plant-based foods, and helps the body to convert folate to its active form.The correct answer is B) collagen.
Ascorbic acid, also known as vitamin C, is an essential nutrient that plays a vital role in collagen synthesis. Collagen is a protein that provides strength and support to connective tissues such as skin, tendons, and bones. In the absence of ascorbic acid, collagen synthesis is impaired, leading to weaker connective tissues and symptoms of scurvy.
Keratin is a fibrous protein found in hair, nails, and skin, and it is not dependent on ascorbic acid for its stability. Fibroin is a type of silk protein produced by certain insects, and myoglobin is a protein found in muscle tissue, and neither of these proteins is dependent on ascorbic acid for stability. Therefore, the correct answer is B) collagen.
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why has measurement of impulsivity become more popular recently among studies aiming to correlate rate of substance use to personality of users?
The measurement of impulsivity has become more popular in recent studies aiming to correlate the rate of substance use to the personality of users for several reasons.
Firstly, impulsivity has been identified as a key risk factor for substance use, with impulsive individuals being more likely to engage in risky behaviors, including substance use. By measuring impulsivity, researchers can gain a better understanding of why certain individuals are more prone to substance use and addiction.
Secondly, advances in neuropsychological testing and brain imaging technologies have allowed researchers to more accurately and objectively measure impulsivity, providing a more comprehensive understanding of the relationship between impulsivity and substance use.
Thirdly, there has been an increasing recognition that personality traits, such as impulsivity, can play a significant role in the development and maintenance of substance use disorders. By understanding the personality traits that are associated with substance use, researchers can develop more effective prevention and treatment strategies that target these underlying factors.
Overall, the measurement of impulsivity has become an important tool for researchers seeking to understand the complex relationship between personality and substance use, with the goal of developing more effective interventions and treatments for substance use disorders.
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TRUE/FALSE. when assessing a patient with respiratory compromise, it is important to determine where the patient is on the continuum of respiratory compromise.
True, when assessing a patient with respiratory compromise, it is important to determine where the patient is on the continuum of respiratory compromise.
A continuum of respiratory distress, respiratory failure, and respiratory arrest termed respiratory compromise. Both respiratory failure and respiratory distress refer to increased labor of breathing. Respiratory failure can also refer to failure of oxygenation, ventilation, or both. Poor results can be avoided by early detection, early intervention, and thorough monitoring.
The ideal place to get these interventions is in an emergency room, where staff members are skilled in dealing with patients like these. The most common reason for cardiac arrest and mortality in pediatric patients is respiratory impairment. In low-income nations, emergency medicine is a relatively recent discipline.
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Which object-oriented element that allows us to build more complex objects out of simpler objects is.
Encapsulation
Data Hiding
Message Passing
Composition
Inheritance
Polymorphism
Composition is the object-oriented element that allows us to build more complex objects out of simpler objects. Composition refers to the concept of creating a complex object by combining one or simpler objects.
As per the question given,
In composition, simpler objects are typically created as properties or instance variables of a more complex object, and the complex object delegates behaviour to these simpler objects to perform tasks. This approach allows for greater modularity and flexibility in object-oriented programming, as objects can be easily assembled and recompiled to create new functionality.
The other object-oriented elements listed in the question are:
Encapsulation: Encapsulation refers to the concept of grouping related data and behaviour together into a single unit, known as a class. This allows for better organization and management of code, as well as increased security and control over access to data.Data hiding: Data hiding refers to the practice of restricting access to certain data within a class, in order to prevent unauthorized modification or manipulation.Message passing: Message passing refers to the process by which objects communicate with one another by sending and receiving messages.Inheritance: Inheritance refers to the ability of a class to inherit properties and behaviour from a parent or base class.Polymorphism: Polymorphism refers to the concept of using a single interface to represent multiple different types of objects. This allows for greater flexibility and extensibility in object-oriented programming.For such more questions on More complex Medicine
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during a total body skin examination for skin cancer, the provider notes a raised, shiny, slightly pigmented lesion on the patient’s nose. what will the provider do?
If a provider notes a raised, shiny, slightly pigmented lesion on a patient's nose during a total body skin examination for skin cancer, the provider will likely perform a biopsy of the lesion to determine if it is cancerous or benign.
A biopsy involves removing a small piece of tissue from the lesion, which is then examined under a microscope by a pathologist to determine if it is cancerous or not.
If the lesion is found to be cancerous, the provider may recommend further testing and treatment, such as surgery to remove the cancerous tissue or radiation therapy. If the lesion is found to be benign, the provider may recommend monitoring the lesion for any changes or growth over time, or may recommend removal of the lesion for cosmetic reasons.
In either case, it is important for the provider to closely monitor the lesion and recommend appropriate follow-up care to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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Why are X-linked recessive conditions never passed from fathers to son?
Because it is unlikely that females will have two altered copies of this gene, males are affected by X-linked recessive disorders much more frequently than females. A characteristic of X-linked inheritance is that fathers cannot pass X-linked traits to their sons (no male-to-male transmission)
What is x-linked recessive ?Genetic problems connected to mutations in X chromosome genes are referred to as X-linked recessive inheritance. Due to the fact that he possesses just one X chromosome, a male with this mutation will be impacted. A female who carries a gene mutation on one X chromosome but has a normal gene on the other X chromosome typically has no symptoms.
Hemophilia A is Red-green colorblindness and red-green colorblindness are two examples of X-linked recessive diseases. Simply put, red-green colour blindness refers to the inability to discern between different hues of red and green (usually blue-green).
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The nurse is administering pasiriotide to a patient with Cushing’s disease secondary to a pituitary tumor. Which phrase describes the rationale for using this drug?
1 To decrease inflammation before surgery
2 To shrink the pituitary tumor
3 To block production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
4 To increase retention of sodium
If a patient with Cushing’s disease is secondary to a pituitary tumor, pasireotide drug is used to block the release of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), hence option 3 is correct.
What is Cushing’s disease?The pituitary gland is an organ of the endocrine system, having the function of releasing various hormones if releases excess adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), it leads to a condition called Cushing's syndrome.
To treat this condition with pasireotide, this block production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) and cures this syndrome.
Therefore, there is a need to block the production of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH), to treat a patient with Cushing’s disease secondary to a pituitary tumor.
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What must the nurse consider when administering a medication? Select all that apply.
Age
Ethical issues
Insurance status
Legal issues
Cultural issues
Pregnancy Status
When using a pocket mask, the rescuer would be positioned at the side of the victim.
a. true
b. false
False. When using a pocket mask, the rescuer should be positioned at the victim's head and side of the chest. This allows for a clear airway and effective ventilation.
What should you do when someone gets injured?If someone gets injured, it's important to take appropriate steps to provide first aid and seek medical attention. The specific steps to take will depend on the nature and severity of the injury. Firstly assess the situation and try to comfort the patient. Call for help and try to provide first aid.
Should proper ventilation be given to the injured person?If an injured person is having difficulty breathing, proper ventilation may be necessary to ensure their safety and well-being. Ventilation can help to ensure adequate oxygenation and prevent complications such as hypoxia, which can occur when the body doesn't receive enough oxygen.
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which agency developed the bloodborne pathogen standard?
The agency that developed the bloodborne pathogen standard is the OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration).
The Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) allocated the Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Regulation to lessen or eliminate the chance of an employee contracting any of a series of diseases that are spread through blood or different potentially infectious materials. In broad, the standard contains prerequisites for the development of an exposure management plan, safeguards for protecting employees, vaccination, training, record keeping, and handling an exposure happening.
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What are the symptoms of full thickness burn types?
The client asked the nurse to describe Stage C heart failure. What is the best explanation by the nurse?
A. a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but has risk factors of heart disease
B. a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but has a cardiac history and is taking medications
C. a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but is symptomatic with increased physical activity
D. a client who reports symptoms of heart failure at rest and is a candidate for a heart transplant
B.a client who reports no symptoms of heart failure at rest but has a cardiac history and is taking medications. Objective proof of relatively severe cardiovascular disease.
Considerable restriction in activity due to symptoms, even during less-than-normal activity. only at rest does it feel comfortable. In stage C, the left ventricle has started to deteriorate and heart failure symptoms have started to appear. Moreover, at this period, symptoms like exhaustion and shortness of breath are frequent occurrences.
Stage C treatment consists of the same elements as stage A and B treatment, plus a few additional alternatives. Diuretics (water tablets) can assist in removing extra fluid that may accumulate as a result of the weakening of the heart. If advised by your doctor, reducing your salt and hydration intake can also assist with symptoms.
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what is ou medical abbreviation
OU stands for "oura (or oculus uterque)" which is Latin for "both eyes."
OU stands for Open University and is a distance learning institution based in Milton Keynes, England. It was established in 1969 and is one of the largest universities in the United Kingdom. Open University provides flexible and accessible higher education, enabling people to attain qualifications regardless of their location or lifestyle. Open University courses are delivered online, as well as through various other forms of learning such as television, radio, podcasts and face-to-face tutorials. Open University offers a range of undergraduate and postgraduate degree programmes, as well as professional qualifications and short courses. It has over 180,000 students worldwide and is a leader in online education, providing quality qualifications and access to learning for people from all walks of life.
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Is 20/200 vision bad?
This range of 20/30 to 20/60 is referred to as near-normal vision or modest vision loss. This range of vision, known as intermediate low vision, ranges from 20/70 to 20/160. at least 20/200,
Is 20:200 legal blindness?Legal blindness is defined as having a visual acuity of less than 20/200; but, to actually meet the criterion, the person cannot be able to achieve 20/200 vision though with medical eyewear. With the right glasses or contact lenses, many people who would be considered legally blind without eyeglasses may go out their daily activities with ease.
What is seen by someone with 20/200 vision?A person is deemed legally blind based on visual acuity tests when their best corrected sight is 20/200, which indicates that they must be at least 20 feet away to see an object that an individual who has normal vision can view from 200 feet away.
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A client may be developing side effects from an anticholinergic medication. Which question does the nurse ask the client to further assess for side effects to this medication? (Select all that apply.)
1. "Do you have blurred vision?"
2. "Does your mouth feel dry?"
3. "Do you have needles and pins sensation?"
4. "When was the last time you voided?"
5. "When was your last bowel movement?"
The nurse asks, do you have blurred vision? , does your mouth feel dry?, do you have needles and pins sensation? to the client to further assess for side effects to anti-cholinergic medication.Therefore, the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.
What are anti-cholinergic medication?Drugs known as anticholinergics block and reduce the action of the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) at synapses in the central and peripheral nervous systems.
The nurse should ask the following questions to further assess for side effects of anticholinergic medication:
Do you have blurred vision?Does your mouth feel dry?Do you have needles and pins sensation?Blurred vision, dry mouth, and paresthesia (needles and pins sensation) are common side effects of anticholinergic medication. Asking about the time of the client's last voiding or bowel movement is not directly related to side effects of anticholinergic medication.Therefore, the correct option is 1, 2 and 3.
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a shard of metal enters the right lung and collapses it. which cavity has been entered?
The shard of metal has entered the pleural cavity, which is the space between the visceral and parietal pleura of the lung.
What is pleural cavity?The pleural cavity is the space between the two layers of pleura, a thin membrane that covers the lungs and lines the inside of the chest wall. The two layers of the pleura are the visceral pleura, which covers the surface of the lungs, and the parietal pleura, which lines the chest wall and diaphragm. The pleural cavity contains a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly within the thoracic cavity during breathing. The pleural cavity is essential for normal lung function, as it helps to maintain the position of the lungs and facilitates the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide during breathing.
Here,
The pleural cavity contains a small amount of fluid that acts as a lubricant, allowing the lungs to move smoothly within the thoracic cavity during breathing. When the shard of metal enters the pleural cavity and causes the lung to collapse, it is called a pneumothorax.
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A nurse is educating the spouse of a patient with cirrhosis about the patient's diet. Which nutritional recommendation for the patient will the nurse make?
A. Eat large meals
B. Include a multivitamin
C. Prepare high-sodium foods
D. Drink only small amounts of alcohol
The nutritional recommendation that the nurse should give to the patient's spouse is to include multivitamins in the diet. So option B is correct.
Multivitamins and supplements are generally beneficial, except for large quantities of vitamin A, which can be very damaging to the liver. High levels of vitamin C can be dangerous if you have high levels of iron in your body. High levels of iron can also worsen liver disease.
Ascites are a build-up of fluid in the abdomen. If a person has a liver disease that causes ascites, then the doctor may suggest a low-sodium diet. The recommended sodium limit is 2,000 mg per day. Eating less sodium help reduce the body’s tendency to retain fluid.
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elderly, acutely ill, or debilitated people with decreased salivary gland secretion from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for bacterial which is characterized by swelling. true or false
Elderly, acutely ill, or debilitated people with decreased salivary gland secretion from general dehydration or medications are at high risk for parotitis that is the due to the bacterial infection which is characterized by swelling. So, the given statement is true.
What is Parotitis?Parotitis is defined as a painful inflammation of the parotid glands, which are salivary glands located between the ear and the jawbone, the common cause of which is a virus, such as mumps, herpes, or Epstein-Barr.
Bacterial infections, diabetes, tumors or stones in the salivary glands, and dental problems can also cause parotitis.
Thus, the given statement is True.
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what is acetaminophen drug class
place the steps in the order in which they would be applied to perform leopold maneuvers
1. Palpate the uterine fundus.
2. Palpate for the fetal back.
3. Palpate the suprapubic area to confirm presentation.
4. Determine if head is flexed (vertex) or extended (face).
Leopold maneuvers are a series of four steps that are used to determine the position of a fetus in the uterus. The steps should be performed in the following order, Palpate the uterine fundus, Palpate for the fetal back and Performing the Leopold .
1) Palpate the uterine fundus to determine the fetal part that is presenting at the fundus.
2) Palpate for the fetal back to determine which side of the mother the back is located on.
3) Palpate the suprapubic area to confirm presentation and determine the degree of engagement of the fetal presenting part.
4) Determine if the fetal head is flexed (vertex) or extended (face) by palpating the cephalic prominence.
5) Performing the Leopold maneuvers in this order can help provide a comprehensive assessment of the fetal position and presentation, which can be useful in guiding the management of labor and delivery.
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a patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately. Option A is correct.
In the recovery posture, the patient is on one side, with the far leg bent at an angle. The far arm is crossed over the chest, with the hand on the cheek. The purpose is to maintain the patient's airway open and prevent aspiration. The posture also keeps the sufferer immobile until help arrives.
Patients should be transferred to a hospital as soon as possible, yet as quietly as possible. To prevent vomit aspiration, they should be positioned on their left side in the recovery posture. When someone is flipped onto their side, gravity assists in allowing their tongue to flop forward and the contents of their stomach to leak out. This will clear the airway and allow the victim to continue breathing.
The complete question is:
A patient should be placed in the recovery position when he or she:
A. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.B. is conscious, uninjured, and breathing adequately.C. is unconscious, injured, and breathing adequately.D. is unconscious, uninjured, and breathing inadequately.To learn more about patient in recovery, here
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The nurse is observing a student nurse perform a peripheral assessment on Mr. Mathias. Which action requires the nurse to intervene?
A. Palpating bilateral pedal pulses
B. Assessing the capillary refill in the great toe
C. Assessing the Homan's sign in bilateral extremities
D. Applying light pressure in ankles to determine edema
C) As a student nurse is performing a peripheral assessment on Mr. Mathias, the nurse must step in to assess the Homan's sign in both limbs.
What is a peripheral evaluation?The peripheral vascular system should be evaluated as part of a thorough client evaluation or as part of a specialized exam if the client is exhibiting symptoms that could be connected to the peripheral vascular system's functionality, such as arterial or venous ulcers.
Make sure your client is comfortable, that your hands and stethoscope are warm, and that the space is at a reasonable temperature before the exam. Closing the door and curtains, appropriately wrapping your client, and only exposing parts of their body that are necessary for your examination will all help to create a private space.
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A child is being discharged home following a bone marrow transplant. When providing discharge instructions to the parents, what information is most important for the nurse to include?
1. Clean toothbrush weekly with alcohol.
2. Avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables.
3. Drink bottled water the day.
4. Apply heating pad to bruised areas of the skin.
Instructions such as cleaning toothbrush with alcohol, drinking bottled water, and applying heating pads to bruised areas of the skin may also be relevant but not as critical as avoiding raw fruits and vegetables.
The most important information for the nurse to include when providing discharge instructions to the parents of a child who has undergone a bone marrow transplant is to avoid eating raw fruits and vegetables.
This is because the child's immune system will be weakened after the bone marrow transplant, making them more susceptible to infections. Raw fruits and vegetables may contain harmful bacteria that can cause infections in the child.
Other important instructions may include the need to maintain good hand hygiene, avoid contact with sick people, and avoid crowded places. Additionally, it is important to encourage the child to take any prescribed medications as directed by the healthcare provider and to follow up with scheduled appointments.
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The infectious disease process in which large numbers of activated macrophages and histiocytes are collected at the site of inflammation is called:
A. Purulent
B. Granulomatous
C. Chronic
D. Opportunistic
B. Granulomatous refers to the infectious illness process in which a significant number of activated macrophages and histiocytes gather at the site of inflammation.
Granulomatous: What is it?Chronic granulomatous disease (CGD), an inherited condition, is brought on by malfunctioning phagocytes, a type of white blood cell that normally aids in the body's ability to combat infections.
The phagocytes are unable to defend your body against bacterial and fungal infections as a result. Infections in the lungs, skin, lymph nodes, liver, stomach, and intestines, among other places, can occur in people with a chronic granulomatous illness.
Infected sites may also produce clumps of white blood cells. Most people with CGD receive their diagnosis while they are young, however, it is possible for some people to wait until they are adults.
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Which patient has the best chance for an optimal outcome after drowning?
Select one:
a. 47-year-old male submerged for 8 minutes in a heated swimming pool
b. 34-year-old female submerged for 9 minutes in 39°F water
c. 17-year-old female submerged for fewer than 10 minutes in warm salt water
d. 22-year-old female submerged for 10 minutes in a whirlpool with 90°F water
34-year-old female submerged for 9 minutes in 39°F water has the best chance for an optimal outcome after drowning. Thus, option B is correct.
Why drowning could be fatal?Suffocation caused by the mouth and nose being submerged in a liquid is known as drowning. The majority of fatal drowning incidents take place when the victim is either by themselves or in circumstances where anyone else nearby is unable to help them. After a successful resuscitation, drowning victims may experience breathing difficulties, vomiting, confusion, or unconsciousness.
On rare occasions, victims may not start exhibiting these symptoms until several hours after being rescued. Due to low body temperatures, aspiration of vomit, or acute respiratory distress syndrome, victims of drowning incidents may also experience additional complications (respiratory failure from lung inflammation).
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when you obtain a urine specimen for drug or alcohol analysis, you must establish a proper __________.
A correct "chain of custody" must be established when obtaining a urine sample for drug or alcohol analysis.
Explain the procedure to do alcohol analysis?An officer may perform a urine test if they have reason to believe that a person's blood alcohol or drug level is higher than it should be.
In addition to detecting drugs that a breath test won't pick up on, urine tests are easier to conduct than blood testing. Urine tests are used in DUI/OVI, vehicular murder, and vehicular assault prosecutions in Ohio.A urine sample was taken in a glass jar and examined using scientific techniques, including gas chromatography using mass spectrometry, to conduct a urine test. Machines analyze the urine sample, determine the amount of alcohol and/or other drugs present, and then print out the results.Thus, a correct chain of custody must be established when obtaining a urine sample for drug or alcohol analysis.
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A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by
palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment. Which statement should the nurse include in this clients teaching? a. Minimize or abstain from caffeine. b. Lie on your side until the attack subsides. c. Use your oxygen when you experience PACs. d. Take amiodarone (Cordarone) daily to prevent PACs.
A nurse teaches a client who experiences occasional premature atrial contractions (PACs) accompanied by palpitations that resolve spontaneously without treatment involves Minimize or abstain from caffeine.
What is the most common cause of PACs?Premature atrial contractions (PACs) are a type of arrhythmia that is distinguished by the occurrence of an early heartbeat that originates in the atria. An electrical impulse from such an area of the atria outside the sinoatrial (SA) node is the most common cause of PACs. Stress, anxiety, caffeine, alcohol, tobacco use, certain medications, and medical conditions such as heart disease, hyperthyroidism, or electrolyte imbalances can all contribute to this. PACs are generally harmless and do not require treatment; however, if they occur frequently or are associated with other symptoms such as chest discomfort or shortness of breath, medical evaluation is advised.
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The needle is advanced and gentle bone contact is made for which injection?
a.IA
b.Buccal
c.Gow-Gates
d.All options listed
e.IA and Gow-Gates
The needle is advanced and gentle bone contact is made for IA, Gow-Gates and Buccal injections.
The correct options are A, B and C.
For buccal,gow-gates, andgow-gates injection, a sophisticated needle is used with delicate bone contact. In 75 of cases, theGow-Gates anaesthetizes the buccal whim-whams, lingual, mylohyoid, auriculotemporal, and the inferior alveolar as well as its terminal branches( incisive and internal). For buccal,gow-gates, andgow-gates injection, a sophisticated needle is used with delicate bonecontact.In order to use theGow-Gates approach, the case's mouth must be open wide.
The dentist will also essay to place a small quantum of original anaesthetic close to a mandibular branch of a trigeminal whim-whams after the exits the foramen ovale, just anterior to a neck of the condyle. When the traditional inferior alveolar whim-whams leaguer( IA block) is ineffective and soft- towel anaesthetic is needed from the most distal molar to midline, theGow-Gates approach is advised for use in quadrant dentistry.
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How long does otitis media with effusion last?
Otitis Media with Effusion (OME) typically lasts up to three months but can take longer to resolve.
What is OME ?
OME stands for Open Manage Essentials and is an IT infrastructure management tool developed by Dell EMC. It is an easy-to-use, web-based console that simplifies the process of managing Dell EMC hardware and software. OME provides an integrated platform for monitoring, configuring, deploying, updating, and maintaining Dell EMC hardware and software. It offers robust reporting capabilities, enabling users to quickly and easily identify, track, and resolve issues. OME also provides the ability to manage multiple Dell EMC sites from a single console, enabling users to coordinate and standardize IT operations across the enterprise. With OME, users can quickly and easily monitor and manage their Dell EMC IT infrastructure from a single, unified console.
If the condition persists for more than three months, further treatment may be needed.
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Which finding can result from a nasal fracture?
A. The inability to purse the lips
B. Otorrhea
C. Ruptured tympanic membrane
D. Hematoma
The discovery that can come from a nasal fracture is a hematoma. Loss of nasal dorsum projection and distortion of the dorsal aesthetic lines are common symptoms of nasal bone fractures.
Which finding in a patient with a maxillary fracture is expected?Lefort fractures of the maxilla, in particular, are also linked to substantial diplopia (21%), epiphora (37%), and vision difficulties (47%). Infection, trismus, facial nerve impairments, malunion, and asymmetry of the face are other frequent problems.
What kind of facial fracture could cause cerebrospinal fluid to leak?Cerebrospinal fluid leaking and cerebral bleeding can develop from frontal sinus fractures that extend through the posterior sinus wall and into the anterior cranial fossa.
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which characteristic would the nurse use during the nursing
Characteristic of a good nurse is the one should shows empathy and compassion with each patient.
A good nurse should have empathy towards each patient, she should also make good effort to understand patients problem and understanding. Also ,while showing empathetic behavior, nurses become more generous while treating their patients as some one who needs care and work on person-centered approach, at the place of following the medical routine guideline.
Hence , the most important qualities of a good nurse is compassion. In nursing career, nurses will have to see patients suffering from various problems.
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