B. Urine starts to flow into the tubing when the catheter is placed into the urethra. The balloon is inflated at this stage when the nurse inserts the catheter 2.5 to 5 cm.
Describe a catheter.A soft, hollow tube called a urinary catheter is inserted into the bladder to drain urine. For a number of reasons, some persons cannot empty their bladder by passing urine into a toilet or urinal, in which case catheters may be required.
When continuous bladder drainage is necessary, indwelling catheters are often only needed temporarily, for a few weeks or months, however rarely they are needed permanently. Catheters can be left in place for many weeks since they can be made from a variety of materials. Once the catheter is in place, a little inflatable device is inflated to keep it there.
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which interventions would the nurse use to help a client who was in a same-sex relationship for 3 years and says, 'my partner just left me. i'm a wreck'? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
1. Provide emotional support and an empathic listening ear.
2. Offer resources such as counseling or support groups.
3. Encourage the client to take care of their physical and emotional needs.
4. Normalize and validate the client’s feelings.
5. Help the client identify healthy coping strategies.
Healthy refers to physical, mental and emotional wellbeing. It means being free from any kind of illness or injury, living with a balanced diet, exercising regularly and having a positive outlook on life. It also involves having a good relationship with family, friends and community. Eating nutritious food, drinking enough water, getting enough sleep and managing stress in a healthy way are important aspects of being healthy.
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a child under the age of 8 and less than 57 inches tall must be properly belted and?
A child under the age of eight and under 57 inches tall must be restrained as per (a) or (b) until they can no longer fit in a rear-facing or forward-facing seat, at which point they must use a belt-positioning booster seat. d.
A seat belt must be correctly fastened on any child who is 57 inches tall or older and above the age of eight. Unless the child is 4'9" or taller, all children under the age of eight must travel in a child passenger roll cage that complies with federal vehicle safety standards. The manufacturer's instructions must be followed when installing and using restraints. All passengers under the age of 15 must be restrained by a seatbelt, and the driver is in charge of making sure this happens.
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A child under the age of eight and under 57 inches tall must be restrained as per (a) or (b) until they can no longer fit in a rear-facing or forward-facing seat, at which point they must use a belt-positioning booster seat.
A seat belt must be correctly fastened on any child who is 57 inches tall or older and above the age of eight. Unless the child is 4'9" or taller, all children under the age of eight must travel in a child passenger roll cage that complies with federal vehicle safety standards. The manufacturer's instructions must be followed when installing and using restraints. All passengers under the age of 15 must be restrained by a seatbelt, and the driver is in charge of making sure this happens.
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What was the first widely used birth control method for women?
Some of the earliest mentions of birth control, including the use of lint, honey, and acacia leaves to stop sperm, may be found in the Kahun Papyrus from 1850 BC, as well as the Ebers Papyrus from 1550 BC.
What year did the first female birth control emerge?The oral contraceptive pill, first in May 1950, is a medical advancement that has profoundly changed generations. Reproductive autonomy and freedom for women have increased dramatically.
Birth control became widely used when?In the United States, about nine million women were using oral contraceptives to avoid getting pregnant by the late 1960s. Publicity for Enovid. Obstetrics and gynecology.
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What nerve is compressed in carpal tunnel?
CTS happens when the enlargement of the carpal tunnel in your wrist pins one of your nerves (median nerve).
What is carpal tunnel?A nerve in your wrist is compressed by carpal tunnel syndrome (CTS).
Your hand and fingers experience tingling, numbness, and discomfort as a result. It is frequently treatable by oneself, although recovery might take months.
Carpal tunnel syndrome can be relieved by giving your hand a rest and providing it with wrist support.
Some people require surgery or steroid injections.
As the carpal tunnel in your wrist expands and compresses a nerve, carpal tunnel syndrome develops.
Hand movements that are repeated can contribute to it.
CTS occurs when one of your nerves is pinched by the swelling of the carpal tunnel in your wrist (median nerve).
Therefore, CTS happens when the enlargement of the carpal tunnel in your wrist pins one of your nerves (median nerve).
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in the context of pain perception, the brain regions active in both physical and emotional pain are the anterior cingulate cortex (acc) and which of the following?
GABA is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the CNS that reduces neuronal excitability and regulates muscle tone. GABA is concerned in ache modulation by means of regulating the transmission of nociceptive signals via the activation of GABA receptors placed on most important afferent terminals and in the dorsal horn [88].
Which of the following is described as a field in which the intelligence computing and robotics come together?A brain–computer interface (BCI), every so often called a brain–machine interface (BMI) or smartbrain, is a direct verbal exchange pathway between the brain's electrical pastime and an exterior device, most generally a laptop or robotic limb.
Which of the following is defined as a subject in which the talent computing and robotics come together?A brain–computer interface (BCI), occasionally called a brain–machine interface (BMI) or smartbrain, is a direct conversation pathway between the brain's electrical exercise and an external device, most many times a pc or robotic limb.
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wearing a safety belt is an example of which level of prevention?
The effective strategy of prevention of future risks and problems called primary prevention. Thus, option 1 is correct.
What is primary prevention?Reducing risks before it occurs, that is in other words, primary prevention includes those measures that prevent onset of illness before beginning of any disease.
This can be done by prevention of exposure to risks that can cause serious injury or diseases.
Examples include:
vaccination against disease.education about safe and healthy habitswearing bike helmets and seat belts.Therefore, option 1 is correct.
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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,
wearing a safety belt is an example of which level of prevention?
1.primary prevention
2.secondary prevention
3.tertiary prevention
4.community prevention
. what should the nurse do when a pulse deficit is suspected?
The correct answer is A. Report the finding to the physician immediately.
A pulse deficit occurs when a person's apical pulse (taken at the apex of the heart) is lower than their radial pulse (taken at the wrist). It indicates that there may be an issue with circulation, and can be a sign of an underlying heart condition or other health problem
What is Pulse?
Pulse is the rhythmic expansion and contraction of an artery that can be felt at various points on the body, such as the wrists, neck, and ankles. It is an indication of the heart rate and can help to detect any abnormalities that may be present. Taking a pulse involves feeling for a beat in the artery and counting the number of beats in 15 seconds (or 30 seconds) and then multiplying that number by four (or two).
When a pulse deficit is suspected, it is important for the nurse to report this to the physician immediately, as further medical evaluation may be needed. The nurse should also record this finding on the client's chart and take their pulse again in five minutes to confirm the findings. Checking the client's blood pressure can also provide additional information.
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the usual recreational dose of gamma-hydroxybutyric acid (ghb) when taken alone is about
A. 10-20 milligrams.
B. 100 micrograms.
C. 1-5 grams.
D. 100-200 grams.
The usual recreational dose of gamma-hydroxybutyric acid or GHB when taken alone is about 1-5 grams, the correct option is C.
Gamma-hydroxybutyrate, often known as GHB, is an endogenous, low-concentration metabolite of GABA that shares structural similarities with the neurotransmitter gamma-aminobutyric acid. Since it was initially made available as a general anesthetic in 1964, GHB has been used for a wide range of medical purposes.
Although it is not frequently used for this reason, it is occasionally used to treat narcolepsy with cataplexy and to manage alcohol withdrawal. Gamma-butyrolactone and 1,4-butanediol, two related precursors and analogues, are not present in the body naturally, but they are metabolically transformed to GHB and have clinical effects that are very similar to those of GHB.
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Which drug works by blocking serotonin receptors in the GI tract, vomiting center, and CTZ?
a. Meclizine (Antivert)
b. Droperidol (Inapsine)
c. Ondansetron (Zofran)
d. Metoclopramide (Reglan)
Serotonin receptors drug inside the GI tract, including chemoreceptor trigger zone, and the vomiting centre are blocked by ondansetron.
Substituted benzamides, butyrophenones, and phenothiazines are the three categories of dopamine antagonists. The dopamine receptor inside this chemoreceptor trigger zone is antagonistic by these substances. Antiemetics are drugs used to cure nausea and vomiting. Antiemetic uses for numerous OTC medications. Olanzapine is a medication that has been demonstrated to be effective in lowering nausea and vomiting, particularly when used in conjunction with other anti-nausea & anti-vomiting medications. It is also known as the postrema region. Vomiting may happen after activating the CTZ. Each one of these receptors activates the pathways that cause nausea and vomiting.
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crutch palsy is a condition caused by using axillary crutches __________.
Crutch palsy is a condition caused by using axillary crutches that are very long.
Crutch palsy is the paralysis like condition that occurs due to extensive use of crutches for longer durations of times. Crutch palsy is actually the brachial plexus compressive neuropathy. To prevent this resting the armpits upon the crutches should be avoided.
Crutches are the aid for mobility of the people who are unable to move completely on their legs. They provide support to maintain the balance while walking. Axially crutches are the most common type whose height can be adjusted according to the height of the person.
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You are assessing a responsive patient who complains of abdominal pain. Which of the following questions would be MOST effective in determining the quality of the patient's pain?
Select one:
A. "Is the pain sharp or dull?"
B. "What does the pain feel like?"
C. "Does the pain feel like a stabbing pain?"
D. "Does the pain travel anywhere?"
MOST effective in determining the quality of the patient's pain ? is to ask that "Is the pain sharp or dull ?"
What is pain ?
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The question "How does the pain feel?" would be the one that would be MOST useful in evaluating the severity of the patient's suffering.
The correct option is B.
What is the main cause of abdominal pain?The most frequent reasons, such gas pains, indigestion, or a strained muscle, often don't require medical attention. Some conditions could need immediate medical care. While the pattern and location of stomach discomfort might offer valuable information, its temporal course is especially helpful in identifying its aetiology.
What organ causes abdominal pain?Lower abdominal discomfort is frequently brought on by appendicitis, an inflammation of the appendix. Moreover, an inflamed appendix might rupture and contaminate your peritoneum (peritonitis). If you have a disorder that affects one kidney or ovary, you can also experience lower abdomen pain on one side.
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hypoglycemia can be alleviated by injecting insulin.truefalse
The given statement, "Hypoglycemia can be alleviated by injecting insulin, " is false because hypoglycemia is low blood sugar condition and insulin will further decrease the blood sugar concentration.
Hypoglycemia is the decrease of the blood glucose concentrations that the standard value. The causes for this condition can be varying. The general symptoms of hypoglycemia are: confusion, heart palpitations, shakiness and anxiety.
Insulin is the peptide hormone secreted by the pancreatic cells of the body. The role of insulin is to decrease the elevated blood sugar concentration by enabling the body cells to use up the sugars. The insulin mainly works upon the cells of the liver, fat, and muscles.
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a patient refuses to have their blood drawn what should the blood collector do
When a patient refuses to have their blood drawn, the blood collector must explain to the patient why their doctor has requested the testing.
What is blood explain?Solids and liquids make up your blood. Water, salt, and protein make up the plasma, which is the liquid component. Your blood contains more than 50% plasma. Red blood cells, white blood cells, & platelets make up your blood's solid portion. Your tissues and organs receive oxygen from your lungs through red blood cells (RBC). blood cell types. All of the body's cells receive oxygen through red blood cells, or erythrocytes. Red blood cells have a protein that carries oxygen to the cells (called hemoglobin).
What is the importance of blood?The body's cells require oxygen for metabolism, which is carried by the blood from the lungs to the cells. The blood returns the carbon dioxide created during metabolism to the lungs, where it is exhaled (breathed out). Because type O + blood is donated to patients more frequently than any other blood type, it is regarded as the blood type that is most in demand.
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The complete question is:A patient refuses to have their blood drawn. What should the blood collector do? Explain the patient's medical condition to them. Distract the patient and proceed with draw. Request patient discharge. Explain to the patient that their doctor has ordered the tests
A patient has sustained an injury to his mediastinum. Based on the anatomy of his chest, which one of the following structures has been injured?
A. Diaphragm
B. Lungs
C. Esophagus
D. Bronchus
Base on the anatomy of the chest in patient suffering from mediastinum, the esophagus has been supposedly injured, which means option C is the right answer.
Anatomy refers to the study of the internal structures of the body. Chest is the central part of the human body located centrally in torso, protecting the heart among the rib cage. Mediastinum is the space which protects the lungs along with some other vessels, lymph nodes and nerves. If the patient suffers from injury in mediastinum, it is expected that the structures present beneath it are damaged and esophagus being the longest is more prone to injury. Esophagus is also called as food pipe of the body.
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A client is prescribed digitalis medication. Which condition should the nurse closely monitor when caring for the client?
a) Vasculitis
b) nausea and vomiting
c) Flexion contractures
d) Enlargement of joints
The nurse should be monitoring symptoms like nausea and vomiting when caring for the client on Digitalis medication. The correct option is b) Nausea and vomiting.
What is digitalis?
Digitalis or Digoxin is a drug that is used to control and treat heart failure, arrhythmias, and abortion. It belongs to the cardiac glycoside class of drugs.
Digitalis toxicity is a major risk with digoxin medication. Toxic symptoms include anorexia, vomiting, nausea, visual abnormalities, disorientation, and bradycardia. The serum potassium level is checked since digoxin's action is amplified in the presence of hypokalemia.
Therefore, option B is correct.
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when can you drink carbonated drinks after tooth extraction
You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.
Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.
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You should wait at least two weeks after a tooth extraction before drinking carbonated drinks.
Carbonated drinks contain high levels of acids and sugar, which can irritate the healing tissue in your mouth and slow down the healing process. During the first two weeks, it is best to stick to soft foods and drinks that do not contain sugar or acids, such as water, milk, and plain ice cream. After two weeks, you can slowly introduce carbonated drinks back into your diet, but it is best to avoid sugary and acidic drinks for the first few weeks.
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which is not description analysi s tool? a. pareto chart b. run chart c. control chart d. scattere chart
Each of the options provided (Pareto chart, run chart, control chart, and scatter chart) is a tool that can be used in descriptive analysis. Therefore, the correct option is E.
What is descriptive analysis?Descriptive analysis is a statistical analysis that describes and summarizes a set of data using various tools and techniques. These tools help to identify patterns, trends, and relationships in the data, which can be used to gain insights into the underlying processes and inform decision-making.
A Pareto chart is a bar graph that displays the relative frequency or size of various categories in descending order of importance. A run chart is a line graph that displays the trend of a variable over time. A control chart is a statistical chart that displays the variability of a process over time. A scatter chart is a graph that displays the relationship between two variables.Therefore, all of these tools are used in descriptive analysis to help make sense of data and draw insights from it. Hence, the correct option is E.
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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,
Which is not description analysis tool?
a. Pareto chart
b. run chart
c. control chart
d. scattered chart
e. None of the above
The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client. The nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if which 24-hour intake and output totals are noted?
1.
Intake 1500 mL, output 800 mL
2.
Intake 3000 mL, output 2000 mL
3.
Intake 2400 mL, output 2900 mL
4.
Intake 1800 mL, output 1750 mL
The nurse is monitoring the fluid balance of an assigned client, the nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if intake is 1800 mL and output is 1750 mL in 24-hour intake and output totals, which is option 4.
What is fluid balance?It is the balance between the amount of fluid a person takes in and the amount of fluid they excrete, an imbalance in fluid levels can lead to dehydration or fluid overload, so here the nurse wants to see that the client's intake and output are relatively equal, or that the output is slightly more than the intake, which indicates that the client's fluid balance is within a normal range.
Hence, the nurse determines that the client has proper fluid balance if intake is 1800 mL and output is 1750 mL in 24-hour intake and output totals, which is option 4.
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there are many health claims about specific nutrients. scientists use a standardized method of research that involves a process used to ask and answer scientific questions.
a. Scientific method
b. Claim-based research
c. Hypothesis-based testing
Option C, Scientists ask and respond to scientific questions using the standardized research methodology known as hypothesis-based testing.
This method involves formulating a hypothesis, which serves as a preliminary explanation for an observation or phenomenon, then testing it through tests or other types of inquiry.
The conclusions of these tests are then utilized to assess the hypothesis and improve our comprehension of the subject under investigation.
The claims concerning particular nutrients including their effects on health are systematically and carefully evaluated using this approach, which is employed in all disciplines of science, particularly nutrition research. By employing this technique, researchers can reduce prejudice and improve the accuracy of their conclusions.
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how much solution does the standard local anesthetic cartridge contain?
The anesthetic solution is in the cartridge and has 1.8 to 2 ml of anesthetic in the US. A glass tube that is cylindrical, a rubber stopper, an aluminum cap, and a diaphragm make up its parts.
By preventing sodium ions from entering the brain, local anesthetics stop neuronal conduction. Typically, this happens after their passage through the neuronal membrane and into the axoplasm, where they engage sodium channels and stop them from entering an active or "open" state.
It is designed as a hydrochloride salt in order to make the local anesthetic base stable in solution. Since they are in a quaternary, water-soluble state at the time of injection, the molecules are in this condition.
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____ is the time during which the drug is present in the blood at great enough levels to produce a response
A drug's duration of action is the time during which the drug is present in the blood at great enough levels to produce a response.
What is a drug's duration of action?The time during which a drug is present in the blood at great enough levels to produce a response is known as the drug's duration of action.
The duration of action can vary depending on factors such as the drug's chemical properties, how it is administered, and how it is metabolized and eliminated by the body. Some drugs may have a relatively short duration of action, while others may have a longer duration of action, lasting hours or even days.
It's important to follow the prescribed dosing regimen for a drug, including any recommended intervals between doses, to ensure that it remains at therapeutic levels in the bloodstream for the appropriate duration of action.
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Which of the four distinct components of the problem-oriented record serves to help index documentation throughout the record?A. databaseB. problem listC. initial planD. progress notes
Problem list is the correct response from the above given statements.
What is problem list?An element of the problem-oriented medical record (POMR) that helps index documentation throughout the record is the problem list. At the first evaluation and future follow-up visits, the patient's medical issues or diagnoses are noted and listed in this document.
Each diagnosis or issue is given a special identification that is used to index information about that diagnosis or issue throughout the record. Database contains details like the patient's medical background. Initial strategy covers the initial course of action for each problem or diagnostic that has been found. Notes on progress are time-stamped records of the patient's progress and care.
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If a saber saw is lifted from a cut while running. What will occur?
- All of these
- The blade may break
- The wood will be marred
- The saw will jump as the blade hits the wood
If a saber saw is lifted from a cut while running, the blade may break, and the saw will jump as the blade hits the wood.
This is because the blade of the saber saw is moving at a high speed while cutting, and lifting the saw while the blade is still in contact with the wood can cause the blade to snap or break due to the sudden release of tension. Additionally, the saw will likely jump or bounce as the blade hits the wood, which can cause the wood to be marred or damaged.
It is important to always follow proper safety procedures when using power tools such as a saber saw, including keeping the blade in contact with the material being cut at all times, and turning off the saw and waiting for the blade to come to a complete stop before lifting it from a cut. This can help prevent accidents and injuries, as well as damage to the saw and the materials being cut.
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What do you need to consider in choosing a health career?
Most jobs require a strong work ethic, and some level of scientific or mathematical ability. Also, the majority of healthcare occupations need a high level of maturity and responsibility.
What makes a job in healthcare crucial?Making a difference in people's lives is maybe the main motivation for choosing a job in health. Whether you work as just a veterinarian, acupuncture, health services administrator, and nurse, you will help to create a healthier world.
Is there a career in health?Those who enjoy helping others and have a passion for science, technology, medicine, or math may find healthcare occupations to be a perfect fit. Since the demand for medical services is anticipated to increase in the next years, a career in healthcare is a great choice for anyone seeking steady, secure employment.
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Which interventions are appropriate as part of the primary assessment of a patient with suspected ACS?
1. Order a 12-lead ECG.
2. Establish pulse oximetry.
3. Obtain vascular access.
4. Establish cardiac monitoring.
Blood clots that are obstructing arteries can be removed with the aid of thrombolytics. By momentarily expanding blood arteries, nitroglycerin increases blood flow. Aspirin, propranolol (Plavix), prasugrel.
Correct option is, 1.
What nursing treatments are available for heart disease?Reducing the risk for complications and death is the primary objective for nursing interventions for CAD. By giving patients drugs that cut cholesterol, lower blood pressure, improve circulation, and lower other risk factors related to the illness, nurses can assist patients.
What is the initial course of treatment for chest pain?See a medical professional if your chest pain seems new, changing, or otherwise unexplained. Call 911 or the local emergency services if you believe you are experiencing a heart attack. Don't ignore or attempt to self-diagnose the chest pain. The particular source of your discomfort will determine your course of treatment.
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what are the functional classifications of exocrine glands based on?
The functional classifications of exocrine glands are based on the way in which they secrete their products. Exocrine glands are glands that secrete their products, such as enzymes or hormones, through ducts that lead to the body's external environment or internal organs.
As per the question given,
The two functional classifications of exocrine glands are:
Merocrine glands: These glands secrete their products through exocytosis, in which the secretory vesicles containing the product fuse with the cell membrane and release the product into the duct. Examples of merocrine glands include the sweat glands and salivary glands.
Holocrine glands: These glands release their products by rupturing the entire cell, releasing the product along with the cell's debris. Examples of holocrine glands include the sebaceous glands, which secrete sebum to lubricate the skin and hair.
Understanding the functional classifications of exocrine glands is important in understanding the structure and function of various organs and tissues in the body.
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which behavior by a demanding, angry client would indicate to the nurse that the staff's approach to setting limits is effective?
Nurse Ronald could evaluate that the staff's approach to setting limits for a demanding, angry client was effective if the client.
How do you describe a nurse?Nurses are in every community – large and small – providing expert care from birth to the end of life. Nurses' roles range from direct patient care and case management to establishing nursing practice standards, developing quality assurance procedures, and directing complex nursing care systems.
What are nursing skills?They must be able to listen to and understand the concerns of their patients—this is essential for evaluating conditions and creating treatment plans. In addition, nurses need to be able to clearly articulate any instructions for patients, such as how to take a medication or change a bandage.
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A nurse is assisting with a seat belt clinic at a local community center. Which parents should the nurse speak with after inspecting their seat belt use? Select all that apply. A) The parents of a 10-year-old whose child is sitting in the front seat with the seat belt properly fastened B) The parents of a 6-year-old who has the shoulder belt behind the back due to the strap lying across the face C) The parents who ask their 9-year-old child to fasten the seat belt before starting the car D) The parents of a 12-year-old who still uses child-proof locks in the back seats E) The parents of a 8-year-old who check to see if the lap belt portion of the seat belt is lying low on the hips
The nurse at a seat belt clinic should speak with parents whose children are not using the seat belt correctly or not using the appropriate type of seat belt based on their age and size. Based on the given scenarios, the nurse should speak with parents B and D.
Parent B should be spoken to because the child is using the shoulder belt behind the back, which can be dangerous in the event of a crash as it can lead to serious injuries. The nurse should educate the parents about the importance of using the seat belt correctly and ensuring that the shoulder belt lies across the chest and not the face.
Parent D should also be spoken to because a 12-year-old child does not need to use child-proof locks in the back seat. The nurse should educate the parents about the importance of using the seat belt correctly based on the age and size of the child.
The other parents, in scenarios A, C, and E, are using the seat belt correctly or demonstrating good habits and do not require further intervention from the nurse.
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josue is starting a job where he won’t need a respirator but will still need to protect his legs and arms from splashes or cuts. what level of full-body protection will josue use?
The level of full body protection that Josue will use when starting a job where he won’t need a respirator but will still need to protect his legs and arms from splashes or cuts is: (4) Level D Suits.
Respirator is an apparatus or a mask worn to cover the nose, mouth or the entire face. This is required to prevent the inhalation of dust, allergens of poisonous gases. The respirator forms an essential component of some of the body protections suits.
Level D suits are the suits worn for the least harmful injuries. They may appear like simple work uniforms. These suits provide protection from conditions like splashes, immersion, or direct contact with hazardous levels of chemicals.
The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
Josue is starting a job where he won’t need a respirator but will still need to protect his legs and arms from splashes or cuts. what level of full-body protection will Josue use?
Level A Suits Level B Suits Level C SuitsLevel D SuitsTo know more about respirator, here
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What is the ICD-10 code for constipation unspecified?
ICD-10 code K59. 00 for Constipation, unspecified is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range - Diseases of the digestive system .
What is main cause of constipation?Being dehydrated. Eating a diet that's low in fiber. Getting little or no physical activity. Taking certain medications, including sedatives, opioid pain medications, some antidepressants or medications to lower blood pressure.
When is constipation urgent?If your constipation is severe or accompanied by diarrhea, rectal bleeding, abdominal pain, or if you can't have a bowel movement after trying all natural laxatives, it's time to see your physician. If you are unable to have a bowel movement in one week (six days), it's time to seek help from a doctor.
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