On the off chance that intensity is eliminated from a substance, for example, in freezing and buildup, then, at that point, the cycle is exothermic. The correct answer is (D).
In this occurrence, heat is diminishing the speed of the particles causing them to move more slowly (models: fluid to strong; gas to fluid). These progressions discharge intensity to the environmental elements. An affidavit is the stage of progress in which gas changes into strong without going through the fluid stage. The statement is a thermodynamic interaction. The opposite of the statement is sublimation and consequently, the time testimony is called desublimation.
In buildup as well as in freezing, heat energy is delivered (temperature diminished) and consequently the dynamic energy of particles diminishes, and gas changes to fluid and strong in this manner.
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Cells can regulate their internal osmotic pressure by controlling the solute concentration inside of the cell.a. Trueb. False
The statement regarding osmotic pressure and solute concentration is true. Because by varying the concentration of solutes inside the cell, cells can control their internal osmotic pressure.
The pressure produced by the passage of water across the membrane during osmosis is known as osmotic pressure. This pressure is necessary to stop solvent molecules from passing through the semi-permeable membrane.
The osmotic pressure of a solution is dependent on the molar concentration of the solute particles in it. As a result, they are both directly proportional to one another. As the solute molar content increases, the osmotic pressure of the solution also increases. Therefore, the statement is true.
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the axon hillock is the location of large quantity of voltage-gated channels. (True or False)
True ,The axon hillock is the location of large quantity of voltage-gated channels.
An action potential propagates down an axon, away from the cell body, because voltage-gated channels are mostly present on the axon hillock and axon.
Voltage-gated Na+ channels are highly concentrated in the axon hillock and are activated upon reaching the threshold potential of the membrane.
An opening of chemically gated channels happens in response to a neurotransmitter binding. Changes in electrical charge (potential) across the plasma membrane cause voltage-gated channels to open.
The transition from the cell body to the axon is where the axon hillock is situated. For the purpose of communicating with many target cells, axons can branch.
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Some scientists think that complex eukaryotic cells formed from the union of
two separate prokaryotic cells. The engulfing of one prokaryotic cell by
another is a plausible explanation of why
A,eukaryotic cells lack the defense mechanisms of prokaryotic cells.
B,eukaryotic cells don't share any similarities with prokaryotic cells.
C,organelles in a eukaryotic cell work cooperatively.
D,organelles in a eukaryotic cell would attack other cells.
place the brain waves in order from fastest to slowest. 1. Alpha. 2. Beta. 3. Delta. 4. Gamma. 5. Theta.
Answer:
The order from fastest to slowest is: Beta, Alpha, Theta, Delta, Gamma.
1-) Of all the mutations that occur in a population, why does only a small fraction become widespread?
2-) Why ir rapied evolutionary change more likely to occur in a small papulation?
Drag the statement about fat digestion anatomy to its appropriate place on the body, roll over the boxes to reveal the name of the body part. 1.Site of most fat digestion and absorption 2.Small amount of fat digestion by gastric lipase 3.Small amount of fat digestion by salivary lipase 4.Secretes pancreatic lipase and other enzymes for fat digestion 5.Secretes bile to emulsify fats
Fat digestion anatomy includes:
Site of most fat digestion and absorption: Small intestine
Small amount of fat digestion by gastric lipase: Stomach
Small amount of fat digestion by salivary lipase: Mouth
Secretes pancreatic lipase and other enzymes for fat digestion: Pancreas
Secretes bile to emulsify fats: Liver/Gallbladder
How does digestion occur in the stomach?In the stomach, the food is mixed with gastric juices, which contain enzymes that start to break down proteins. The stomach muscles then churn and mix the food with the gastric juices, creating a thick, liquid mixture called chyme.
The chyme is slowly released into the small intestine through the pyloric sphincter. The stomach does not play a significant role in fat digestion, as fat is mostly digested in the small intestine.
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Which of the following statements concerning hormone action is NOT true?
Select one:
a) hormones bring about changes in metabolic activities of cells b) target cells must have receptors for a hormone
c) lipid soluble hormones may directly enter target cells and activate the genes
d) a hormone that attaches to a membrane receptor is termed the first messenger
e) ATP is a common second messenger in target cells
The secondary messengers are usually small protein molecules or ions. ATP is not a common second messenger. So the statement that is not true is Option E.
Hormones are chemical substances produced by different endocrine glands to regulate activities of the body. Hormones are signals that have a significant role in metabolism, homeostasis, and coordination. So they are called the first messengers.
Hormones usually interact with the tissues by interacting with the receptors on the plasma membrane. This activate the production or activation of secondary messengers. Lipid soluble hormones can cross the lipid bilayer of plasma membrane and bring about the gene regulation directly.
As hydrophilic hormones attaches to the receptors, second messengers gets activated and they bring about gene expression. The common second messengers are small protein molecules like cyclic AMP and ions like Ca²⁺.
So the statement that is not true is option E.
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What best describes the change in overall cancer mortality rate in 2015 compared to 1999? Multiple Choice a) The mortality rate declined by about 20%. b) The mortality rate declined by about 50%. c) The mortality rate changed very little during that time period. d) The mortality rate increased by about 20%. e) The mortality rate increased by about 50%.
The cancer mortality rate declined by 20% in 2015. Thus, option A is correct.
What is cancer?Uncontrollable growth as well as spread of body's cells to the other parts of the body is called cancer. There is no particular region in the body where cancer can be formed because cancer can form in almost any part of the body.
Cell division is the process in which cells multiply and grow in order to create new cells. But sometimes disturbance in this process can result in formation of abnormal or damaged cells which are responsible for formation of the tumor.
Cancer continues to be the most common cause of death worldwide. therefore, correct option is A.
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2. how much bacterial growth do you see on each plate, relatively speaking?
The LB/amp and LB/amp/ara plates that were infected with the pGLO bacterial plasmid ought to have several colonies on each (optionally up to 75 colonies). On the LB/amp -DNA plate, there should be no growth.
On each of the two (+) pGLO plates, there ought to be about 75 bacterial colonies. There is a uniform distribution of bacteria on the LB plate, making it impossible to count individual colonies.
Since the antibiotic on plate number four only permits bacteria carrying the pGREEN plasmid and its antibiotic resistance gene to grow, this plate is where the transformants are found. When exposed to UV light, the altered bacterial colonies emit a green glow. The greatest experiment would be to streak some of the bacteria on the LB plate.
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Type of neural code in which different perceptual qualities are signaled by the pattern of activity across many neurons. This contrasts with specificity coding, in which qualities are signaled by activity in a specific type of neuron (P. 71).
Rate coding, TTFS coding, phase coding, and burst coding are the four neural coding schemes that were chosen because of their significance in comprehending the underlying information encoding mechanism.
Their significant roles in numerous nervous system components. Short cytoplasmic projections called dendrites originate from the cyton and descend downward to the sense organs and receptors (eyes, ears, nose, tongue, and skin). They pick up on stimuli and transmit them to the neuron's cyton, allowing the central nervous system to react appropriately. The afferent portion of somatosensory neural pathways is made up of sensory neurons. Dendrites are finger-like extensions that take in sensory information and convey it to the cell body through the axon.
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What are the different types of neural codes with the different perpectual qualities?
what would you expect to observe with regard to the current if more than one enzyme facilitated the complete breakdown of glucose instead of a one-enzyme partial breakdown of glucose?
If more than one enzyme facilitated the complete breakdown of glucose instead of a one-enzyme partial breakdown of glucose, we would expect to observe changes in the rate and/or efficiency of glucose metabolism, as well as changes in the byproducts produced.
The complete breakdown of glucose occurs through the process of cellular respiration, which involves several enzymatic reactions. Each reaction is catalyzed by a specific enzyme, and each enzyme has a specific optimal range of temperature, pH, and other environmental conditions for optimal activity.
If more than one enzyme is involved in glucose metabolism, we would expect to see a more complex regulatory mechanism of the pathway. This would require coordination among the enzymes to ensure proper timing and control of the reactions.
Additionally, the byproducts produced during glucose metabolism may be affected. For example, if different enzymes are used to break down glucose, the relative amounts of carbon dioxide, water, and energy produced during the process might differ. Furthermore, the accumulation of intermediate metabolites may also differ depending on the enzymes involved.
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which of these is the smallest unit upon which natural selection directly acts?A. an individuals genomeB. silent mutationsC. a population's gene frequencyD. an individuals phenotype
Option D is Correct. The lowest unit on which natural selection directly works is the phenotypic of an individual. These beneficial characteristics spread more widely across the population throughout time.
A natural collection of organisms that interbreed and are members of the same species that live in the same geographic region is referred to as a population. Populations are the smallest units that can change due to natural selection. Being the smallest group of living things capable of undergoing evolution, populations are the smallest unit of evolution.
The genetic variety of all the people within a community is thought to be accounted for by a "pool" of genes and gene types. Those who possess adaptive qualities are more likely to live and procreate. Next-generation individuals inherit these adaptive features.
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You are looking for a legitimate, qualified dietitian to advise you on a healthy eating plan for your family. Which characteristic might alert you to do further research?
a. An undergraduate degree in food and nutrition or a related science
b. Completion of an approved dietetic internship or its equivalent
c. Use of the term nutritionist after the individual's name
d. Successful completion of a national examination and maintenance of continuing education
e. A degree earned at an institution accredited by the Council on Education
The correct answer is c. Following the person's name, the word "nutritionist" is used.
While nutritionists are often knowledgeable about nutrition and food, they do not have the same level of education and training as registered dietitians, who must complete an accredited dietetic program and pass a national examination. Therefore, you should do further research if the individual is using the term "nutritionist" after their name, to determine if they are a qualified dietitian.A nutritionist is a health care professional who specializes in food and nutrition. They help people understand the importance of good nutrition and how it affects their overall health and wellbeing. They also provide individualized dietary advice, help people set goals to reach and maintain a healthy weight, and provide resources and advice on how to make healthier food choices. Nutritionists can also provide advice on which vitamins and minerals to take, as well as how to read nutrition labels and plan a balanced diet.
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How big is the blue pit viper?
The blue pit viper is adults grow to a length of 1.2 to 1.5 meters. They can survive in captivity for up to 30 to 40 years. They live in West and Central Africa in the wild.
Blue pit vipers are aggressive predators with a "tendency towards combat over flight," according to the Australian Geographic. Its venom seldom causes death, but it is "hemorrhagic," meaning it can result in excruciating agony, swelling, and both internal and external bleeding.
Unbeknownst to you, cottonmouths are pit vipers, which means they have heat sensitivity. They are among the world's largest vipers, with adults reaching lengths of up to four feet. Cottonmouths are semi-aquatic creatures that inhabit lakes, rivers, and marshes in the Southeast of the United States.
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If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, which will most likely occur?
a. The rate of ventricular contraction will decrease
b. Afterload will increase
c. The rate of atrial contraction will decrease
d. Stroke volume will increase to 5L/beat
If communication between the SA node and the AV node became blocked, it is likely that Option (c) the rate of atrial contraction will decrease.
The SA node is responsible for initiating the electrical impulses that stimulate the atria to contract, while the AV node acts as a gatekeeper to delay the impulses before they are transmitted to the ventricles. If the communication between these nodes is blocked, the atria will not receive the impulses they need to contract properly, which can result in a decrease in the rate of atrial contraction.
This, in turn, can have a downstream effect on the ventricles, which may also contract at a lower rate due to the decreased input from the atria. However, the exact effect on stroke volume and afterload will depend on the severity of the blockage and other factors, and cannot be determined solely based on the information provided.
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Where is the Smallest Bone in the Body?
The smallest bone in the human body is called the stapes or stirrup bone, and it is located in the middle ear.
The stapes bone is one of the three tiny bones in the middle ear, collectively known as the ossicles. The stapes bone is approximately 3 millimeters long in adults, and its shape is similar to a stirrup, which is where its name comes from. Despite its small size, the stapes bone plays a crucial role in the process of hearing, as it transmits sound vibrations from the eardrum to the inner ear.
Human skull theory is a pseudoscientific method of predicting various aspects of an individual's personality or behavioral traits based on the shape, size, and features of their skull. This theory has its roots in phrenology, a discredited 19th-century field that attempted to link mental attributes with the shape and size of the skull.
Proponents of human skull theory believe that various regions of the skull correspond to different personality traits, such as intelligence, aggression, and creativity. For example, they may argue that individuals with larger forehead areas are more intelligent, while those with prominent brow ridges are more aggressive.
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What are discrete packets of light that can be used to create food for the plant?
Answer:
✿´`·.·´`✿A photon is a discrete unidirectional packet of light that is absorbed by chlorophyll. During the light-dependent reactions: A photon is absorbed by the chlorophyll and hits electrons inside PSII and causes the electrons inside the pigment to become excited.
Which statement best describes the climate of Rome?
A. winter have lower temperature and more precipitation than summers.
B. There is more precipitation in the summer months than in the winter months.
The winters in Rome have a lower temperature and they have more precipitation as compared to the summers.
The correct option is option A.
During the winter season in Rome, the temperature goes below 10 degree Celsius. According to the given graphs, the winter season probably lasts from January to about April after which the temperatures rise and are 20 degrees and above during the summer. The temperature drops again from October to December.
It is also observed from the graphs that the precipitation in the winters is much more than the precipitation seen in the summer.
Hence, the correct option is option A.
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What are ribosomes responsible for synthesising?
Answer:
The ribosome is universally responsible for synthesizing proteins by translating the genetic code transcribed in mRNA into an amino acid sequence. Ribosomes use cellular accessory proteins, soluble transfer RNAs, and metabolic energy to accomplish the initiation, elongation, and termination of peptide synthesis.
Answer: Proteins
Explanation:
Ribosomes are universally responsible for synthesizing proteins.
which is broader and more inclusive: a scientific theory or a hypothesis?
A scientific theory is boarder and more inclusive not hypothesis. When the scientists test an idea, they develop a theory by following a set of logical steps and this is how scientific theory formulates.
A collection of empirical (experimental) laws pertaining to regularities occurring in objects and events, both observed and posited, make up scientific theory, which is a systematic ideational framework of large scope created by the human imagination.
A scientific theory is a framework developed to explain these rules in a way that is consistent with science.
An assumption is said to as a hypothesis when it is supported by evidence. Any investigation that turns the research questions into predictions must start here. Variables, the population, and the relationships between the variables are among its constituent parts.
A hypothesis used to examine the link between two or more variables is known as a research hypothesis.
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Select all of the following that are present in both prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells.A. PigmentsB. RNAC. NucleusD. CytoplasmE. RibosomesF. DNA
Answer:
Answers, answers is
B E F
Explanation:
B E F
Imagine that you have two blades of grass. One is from a normal plant, and the other is from a mutant plant that cannot produce vacuoles. How will the structures of these two blades of grass compare?
-The grass blade from the mutant plant will appear unpigmented compared to that from the normal plant.
-The grass blade from the mutant plant will appear limp compared to that from the normal plant.
-The grass blade from the mutant plant will appear taller than that from the normal plant.
-The grass blade from the mutant plant will be sturdier compared to that from the normal plant.
-The grass blades from the mutant and normal plant will appear identical.
-The grass blade from the mutant plant will appear limp compared to that from the normal plant.
The grass blade from the mutant plant will appear limp compared to that of the normal plant. According to the findings, all traits among the mutants and their parent showed a substantial amount of diversity.
The majority of the mutants had shorter grass heights, fewer reproductive branches and internodes, shorter leaf lengths, and narrower leaves. In certain mutants, the turf density was higher than in Yangjiang. Compared to their Yangjiang parent, several mutants' inflorescence density was usually lower. 12 mutants with low inflorescence density were chosen as prospective offspring based on the physical traits, and SRAP molecular markers were used to determine their genetic make-up. The findings demonstrated that, when compared to Yangjiang, all 12 mutants displayed variations in amplified polymorphic segments, demonstrating that all mutants had undergone DNA-level alterations.
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Is AA heterozygous recessive or dominant?
AA is typically used to represent a homozygous dominant genotype, in which an individual has two copies of a dominant allele.
Heterozygous genotype, in which an individual has one copy of a dominant allele and one copy of a recessive allele, the answer would depend on the specific trait being considered.
For some traits, the dominant allele may be completely dominant over the recessive allele, meaning that even if an individual has only one copy of the dominant allele, the dominant phenotype will be expressed. In this case, the heterozygous genotype would be considered dominant.
For other traits, the dominant allele may be only partially dominant over the recessive allele, meaning that the phenotype of the heterozygous individual may be intermediate between the two homozygous genotypes. In this case, the heterozygous genotype may be considered incompletely dominant or codominant.
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--The given question is incorrect, the correct question is
"Is AA heterozygous or homozygous dominant or recessive?"--
which energy system has its enzymes housed in the mitochondria?
The energy system of aerobic or cellular respiration has its enzymes housed in the mitochondria.
Cellular respiration is the process of synthesizing energy in the form of ATP by the use of oxygen. The process begins through glycolysis, continues by citric acid cycle and ends at the electron transport system (ETS) in the mitochondria.
Mitochondria is the double membranous cell organelle having a prokaryotic origin. The inner membrane is folded into various finger-like projections called cristae. The ETS occurs at the inner membrane. The mitochondria also possess its own genetic material, through which mitochondria can synthesize some of its proteins.
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what is the kind of protein that binds to dna and changes the amount of transcription
Transcription factors are proteins that bind to DNA and affect the quantity of transcription.
Transcription factors are proteins that bind to particular DNA sequences in or near the genes they control, either enhancing or suppressing transcription.
Some transcription factors bind to DNA directly, whereas others require the assistance of other proteins. Other variables, such as the presence of other proteins, tiny molecules, or environmental cues, can also alter transcription factor binding to DNA.
Transcription factors are required for directing gene expression and regulating cell function, and they play important roles in a variety of biological processes such as development, differentiation, and disease.
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Sheila plants white flowers and collects the seeds from all the plants once they mature. She plants the seeds from her flowers, expecting plants with white flowers to grow, but some of the offspring have purple flowers.
How could parent plants that have white flowers produce offspring with purple flowers? Use a Punnett square and an explanation as a part of your answer
If both parents were heterozygous for the flower color gene, then it is possible for their offspring to have purple flowers even though both parents had white flowers. This is because the purple allele is recessive and only shows up in the (observable traits) when an individual has two copies of the allele (ww).
What is Offspring?
Offspring are the descendants produced by the reproduction of one or more parents. The term is commonly used in the context of animal or plant reproduction, and it can refer to the offspring of sexual or asexual reproduction. Offspring can be genetically identical to their parents, as in asexual reproduction, or they can be genetically diverse, as in sexual reproduction where offspring inherit genetic material from both parents.
The most likely explanation for parent plants with white flowers producing offspring with purple flowers is that they were both heterozygous for the flower color gene. In other words, each parent had one dominant white allele (W) and one recessive purple allele (w). When the parents reproduce, their offspring have a 25% chance of inheriting two white alleles (WW), a 50% chance of inheriting one white and one purple allele (Ww), and a 25% chance of inheriting two purple alleles (ww).
To demonstrate this, we can use a Punnett square. The Punnett square is a tool used in genetics to predict the outcomes of a cross between two individuals. It shows the possible combinations of alleles that can be passed from the parents to their offspring.
Assuming both parent plants were heterozygous (Ww), the Punnett square would look like this:
| W | w
--|-----|-----
W | WW | Ww
--|-----|-----
w | Ww | ww
From the Punnett square, we can see that there is a 25% chance of the offspring inheriting two white alleles (WW), a 50% chance of inheriting one white and one purple allele (Ww), and a 25% chance of inheriting two purple alleles (ww).
Therefore, if both parents were heterozygous for the flower color gene, then it is possible for their offspring to have purple flowers even though both parents had white flowers. This is because the purple allele is recessive and only shows up in the phenotype (observable traits) when an individual has two copies of the allele (ww).
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Can You Fail a Drug Test from Secondhand Smoke?
The answer is no, you probably don’t get high from someone else’s smoke. The expression "contact high" suggests that you could experience a buzz if you breathe in cannabis secondhand smoke.
Similar to tobacco cigarettes, this mode of consumption emits smoke that non-users might inadvertently breathe in. According to the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC), the THC, or delta-9-tetrahydrocannabinol, that gives marijuana its "high," does exist in this secondhand marijuana smoke. Our teams of scientists frequently receive inquiries from people interested in learning more about how marijuana smoke from other people could affect a drug test.
To clarify the air on this subject, we consulted Dr. Barry Sample, Senior Director of Science & Technology at Quest Diagnostics. According to him, even with today's higher THC levels in marijuana, "there are no published, peer-reviewed studies that demonstrate that someone would test positive owing to "passive" or "incidental" exposure at events like parties or concerts."
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The origin of a new plant species by hybridization coupled with nondisjunction is an example ofA) allopatric speciation.B) sympatric speciation.C) autopolyploidy.D) heterochrony.E) habitat selection
The beginning of another plant species by hybridization, combined with mishaps during cell division, is an illustration of autopolyploidy. The correct answer is (C).
Speciation by hybridization: For instance, when Loren Rieseberg and collaborators reproduced the phylogeny of a few sunflower animal categories, they found that few species had been shaped by preparations between different species.
Parent plants produce posterity that is polyploid. Consequently, the posterity lives in a similar climate as their folks, however, are reproductively disconnected.
A potential illustration of sympatric speciation is the apple slimy parasite, a bug that lays its eggs inside the product of an apple, making it decay. As the apple tumbles from the tree, the slimy parasites dive into the ground prior to arising as flies a while later.
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Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsiasO require an arthropod for transmission.O are intracellular parasites.O are gram-negative.O are enterics.O form elementary bodies.
Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias require an arthropod for transmission.
define Rickettsias ?
Rickettsias are a group of Gram-negative bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they cannot survive outside of a host cell. They are named after Howard Taylor Ricketts, an American pathologist who discovered them in the early 1900s.
Rickettsias are often transmitted to humans through the bites of arthropods, such as ticks, fleas, and lice, and can cause a variety of diseases, including Rocky Mountain spotted fever, typhus, and Q fever. Rickettsias have a unique life cycle that involves both a vertebrate host and an arthropod vector.
Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias require an arthropod for transmission. Rickettsias are a type of bacteria that are obligate intracellular parasites, meaning they can only survive and replicate within the cells of a host organism.
They are also gram-negative bacteria, which means they have a thin peptidoglycan layer in their cell wall. Chlamydias are also obligate intracellular parasites, but they do not require an arthropod vector for transmission.
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What type of adipose tissue tends to decrease as humans age? a. Brown adipose tissue b. White adipose tissue c. Unilocular adipose tissue d. Multilocular adipose tissue
A and D are the correct option. Age-related declines in brown and beige adipose tissue mass and thermogenesis activity are associated with lower energy expenditure in the elderly.
Aging causes a reduction in brown adipose tissue function, which may hasten the development of metabolic diseases including diabetes and obesity. The mechanisms causing the metabolic deterioration of brown adipocytes with ageing are still partially understood. Aging causes both peripheral subcutaneous adipose tissue (SAT) and visceral adipose tissue (VAT) to drastically diminish. Generally, a prolonged positive calorie balance, decreased physical activity, and a lower basal metabolic rate cause adipose tissue mass to grow with age (28).
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