An enclosure that contains a device (s) shall have a weight supported by a single conduit that does not exceed ________ lbs.
314.23(f)(e)

Answers

Answer 1

An enclosure that contains a device(s) shall have a weight supported by a single conduit that does not exceed 50 lbs according to NEC code 314.23(f)(e).

According to the National Electrical Code (NEC) section 314.23(f)(e), an enclosure that contains a device(s) shall have a weight supported by a single conduit that does not exceed 50 pounds. This means that the weight of the enclosure and any devices contained within it should not exceed 50 pounds if they are supported by a single conduit. It is important to note that this requirement applies to the weight supported by a single conduit, and not the overall weight of the enclosure and devices. If the weight exceeds 50 pounds, additional supports or mounting brackets may be required to ensure the safety and stability of the installation.

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Related Questions

In TCP, all segments are acknowledged, with the primary exception of pure ACKs.
(t/f)

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True, in TCP, all segments are acknowledged with the primary exception of pure ACKs.


In TCP, acknowledgement is a crucial aspect of ensuring reliable communication between the sender and receiver. Whenever a segment is sent from the sender to the receiver, the receiver must acknowledge the receipt of the segment by sending back an acknowledgement message. This acknowledgement contains a sequence number that corresponds to the next expected segment that the receiver is waiting to receive.

However, not all segments require acknowledgement. Pure ACKs are segments that contain only acknowledgement information, without any data payload. These segments are used to acknowledge the receipt of previously received segments, but they do not carry any new data. As a result, pure ACKs are not themselves acknowledged, since they do not require any further action from the sender.


In summary, while all data-carrying segments in TCP require acknowledgement, pure ACKs do not. This is because they serve a different purpose in the protocol and do not introduce any new information into the communication channel.

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If a back-arc basin is associated with a volcanic island arc, what tends to develop there?
A) Long, linear sea
B) Rift valley
C) Wide continental shelf
D) Submarine trench

Answers

If a back-arc basin is associated with a volcanic island arc, it tends to develop a A) long, linear sea. In the case of a back-arc basin associated with a volcanic island arc, the volcanic activity in the arc will likely lead to the deposition of volcanic material in the basin. Over time, this material can accumulate to form a long, linear sea within the basin.


When a back-arc basin is associated with a volcanic island arc, a long, linear sea tends to develop there. This occurs because the back-arc basin is a region between the volcanic island arc and the continental crust where oceanic crust is being stretched and thinned due to tectonic forces. This stretching leads to the formation of a long, linear sea as the oceanic crust pulls apart and new oceanic crust forms in the basin.

A back-arc basin is a geologic basin that forms behind a subduction zone, typically located parallel to an associated volcanic island arc. These basins are characterized by extensional tectonic forces and are often associated with volcanic activity.


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Hi! The answer to the question: "If a back-arc basin is associated with a volcanic island arc, what tends to develop there?"

If a back-arc basin is associated with a volcanic island arc, what tends to develop there is:

A) Long, linear sea

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3) In most audits, the auditor issues a(n)
A) modified opinion audit report.
B) standard unmodified opinion audit report.
C) scope limited audit report.
D) adverse audit report.

Answers

The correct answer is (B) In most audits, the auditor issues a B) standard unmodified opinion audit report. This type of report indicates that the auditor believes the financial statements are fairly presented, in all material aspects, in accordance with the applicable financial reporting framework.

A standard unmodified opinion audit report is typically issued by the auditor in most audits.

while rest options are an incorrect modified option, audit report scope limited audit report and adverse audit report is not auditor issues. Thus, the final and correct answer is option b.

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A single panel or group of panels units designed for assembly in the form of a single panel, including buses and automatic over-current devices, and equipped with or without switches for the control of light, heat or power circuits.
100 definations

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Based on the information provided, it sounds like the question is asking for a definition of a panel or panel unit that can be used for controlling light, heat, or power circuits. A panel is typically a collection of electrical components, including buses and over-current devices, that are assembled into a single unit for ease of installation and use.

These panels may be equipped with switches or other control devices to help manage the flow of electricity within a building or other structure. Some panels may be designed for use in specific applications, such as lighting or HVAC systems, while others may be more general-purpose units that can be used for a variety of purposes. Overall, panels are an important part of many electrical systems and can help to simplify the installation and management of these systems.

The degree to which one input can be substituted by another without having an impact on the entire manufacturing process is referred to as input substitutability. Perfect substitutability is described in panel (a), where inputs can be swapped out for one another with no change to the manufacturing process.

The complimentary inputs discussed in panel (d) are extremely specialised and cannot be substituted in any way. Inputs can be swapped, although there are some restrictions and costs involved, as shown in Panel (c).

When inputs are intermediate items, their capacity to be substituted depends on how elastic the market for the ultimate product is, as shown in panel (b). Consequently, panel is the appropriate order from easy to toughest scenario of input substitutability.

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What are PG binders tested for high temperature wise?

Answers

PG binders, also known as Performance-Graded binders, are tested for their high-temperature performance properties.

Rutting is the permanent deformation of asphalt pavement caused by repeated traffic loading, and flow is the tendency of the asphalt binder to deform and flow under high temperatures. The high-temperature performance of PG binders is determined through a series of laboratory tests known as the Superpave performance grading system. These tests measure the viscosity and stiffness of the binder at high temperatures, as well as its resistance to rutting and flow. The results of these tests are used to assign a performance grade to the binder, typically a two-letter designation such as PG64-22, which indicates its performance properties at high and low temperatures. By selecting PG binders with appropriate high-temperature performance properties, engineers and paving professionals can ensure that the asphalt pavement will resist deformation and cracking under high traffic and high-temperature conditions, providing a durable and long-lasting pavement structure.

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What happens when a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different than the value that is in the FCS field?

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The switch's behavior in response to a frame with an incorrect CRC value is to protect the integrity and reliability of the network by preventing corrupted or modified frames from being transmitted further.

When a switch receives a frame and the calculated CRC value is different from the value in the FCS (Frame Check Sequence) field, it means that the frame has been corrupted or modified during transmission. The switch will discard the frame and not forward it to its intended destination. This is because the FCS field is used to ensure the integrity of the data being transmitted. The FCS field contains a checksum calculated over the entire frame, including the header and payload. If the calculated CRC value does not match the value in the FCS field, it means that the frame has been modified or corrupted during transmission. In such cases, the switch may also generate an error message or log entry to alert network administrators to the problem. The error message may provide information about the nature of the error, such as the source and destination addresses of the frame, the interface on which it was received, and the reason for its rejection.

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In Java, after an exception is handled, control resumes ---------. This is known as the------model of exception handling.a. after the last catch block (or the finally block, if there is one), terminationb. after the last catch block (or the finally block, if there is one), resumptionc. just after the throw point, terminationd. just after the throw point, resumption

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In Java, after an exception is handled, control resumes just after the throw point, which is the point in the code where the exception was thrown. This is known as the resumption model of exception handling.

When an exception is thrown in Java, the runtime system searches for an appropriate catch block that can handle the exception. Once a catch block is found, the exception is handled, and control resumes just after the throw point. This means that the program continues to execute from the point immediately following the statement that caused the exception to be thrown.

If there are multiple catch blocks, the one that matches the exception type is executed. Once the appropriate catch block has executed, any finally block associated with the catry-tch statement is executed before control resumes just after the throw point.

In the resumption model of exception handling, the program continues to execute from the point immediately following the throw point after an exception is handled. This is in contrast to the termination model of exception handling, where control terminates and the program stops executing after an exception is handled.

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A large, coal-fired electric power plant produces 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity each day. Assume that an input of 10,000 BTU's of heat is required to produce an output of 1 kilowatt-hour of electricity.

Answers

To generate 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity daily, the power plant needs a technology which provides an input of 120 billion BTUs of heat (12 million x 10,000).

To produce 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity per day, the large, coal-fired electric power plant requires 120 billion BTUs of heat each day (12 million kWh/day x 10,000 BTU/kWh = 120 billion BTUs/day).
A large, coal-fired electric power plant produces 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity each day. To produce 1 kilowatt-hour of electricity, an input of 10,000 BTUs of heat is required. Therefore, to generate 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity daily, the power plant needs an input of 120 billion BTUs of heat (12 million x 10,000).

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Based on the information provided, we can calculate the total input of heat required to produce the 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity generated by the power plant each day.

First, we need to convert the units of measurement for the input of heat from BTUs to kilowatt-hours. One kilowatt-hour is equal to 3,412 BTUs (British Thermal Units).

So, 10,000 BTUs is equal to 2.938 kilowatt-hours (10,000 ÷ 3,412).

Next, we can calculate the total input of heat required for the power plant to produce 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity each day:

12,000,000 kilowatt-hours × 2.938 kilowatt-hours per BTU = 35,256,000,000 BTUs

Therefore, the large, coal-fired electric power plant requires an input of approximately 35.3 billion BTUs of heat each day to produce 12 million kilowatt-hours of electricity.

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Circuits leading to or through gasoline dispensing equipment shall have _______.
514.11

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Fuel dispensing equipment circuits must include an interlock that cuts power to the dispenser in the event of tampering with or disconnecting the dispenser from the system.

The purpose of this criterion, as stated in section 514.11 of the National Electrical Code (NEC), is to avoid electrical risks connected with petrol dispensing equipment. In the event of tampering or disconnecting, an interlock is a mechanism that is intended to cut off power to the dispenser. This is important because petrol vapors may readily catch fire or explode. As a result, the interlock acts as a safety mechanism to stop electrical risks and safeguard both clients and staff at petrol station dispensers.

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Conductors in Parallel(310-10(H)(1)(Table 250-122): What size equipment grounding conductor is required in each raceway for an 800 ampere, 500 kcmil feeder parallel in two raceways?

Answers

A 3/0 AWG equipment grounding conductor is required in each raceway for an 800-ampere, 500-kcmil feeder parallel in two raceways, as per NEC Section 310-10(H)(1) and Table 250-122.

To determine the size of the equipment grounding conductor required in each raceway for an 800-ampere, 500 kcmil feeder parallel in two raceways, follow these steps:

1. Refer to the National Electrical Code (NEC) Section 310-10(H)(1) and Table 250-122.

2. Look for the size of the overcurrent protection device (OCPD) protecting the feeder conductors, which is 800 amperes in this case.

3. According to Table 250-122, for an 800-ampere OCPD, the required equipment grounding conductor size is 3/0 AWG (American Wire Gauge).

4. Since the feeder is parallel in two raceways, you will need to provide a 3/0 AWG equipment grounding conductor in each raceway.

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Which frequencies does Zigbee operate on?
1.4 GHz, 90 MHz, and 500 MHz
2.7 GHz, 400 MHz, and 865 MHz
2.4 GHz, 500 MHz, and 818 MHz
2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz

Answers

The frequencies Zigbee operates on are 2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz.. These frequencies are part of the ISM.

Zigbee operates on three main frequencies, which are 2.4 GHz, 900 MHz, and 868 MHz. These frequencies are part of the ISM (industrial, scientific, and medical) bands, which means that they are unlicensed and can be used by anyone.

The 2.4 GHz frequency is the most commonly used frequency for Zigbee devices and is also used by other wireless technologies like Wi-Fi and Bluetooth. The 900 MHz and 868 MHz frequencies are typically used for longer-range communications, making them ideal for applications like smart grid and industrial automation.

Overall, Zigbee's ability to operate on multiple frequencies makes it a versatile and reliable wireless technology for a wide range of applications.

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The connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode ___________ accessible.
250.68

Answers

The connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode must be accessible according to section 250.68 of the National Electric Code. This ensures that the connection can be easily inspected and maintained as needed.
Thus, the connection of a grounding electrode conductor or bonding jumper to a grounding electrode must be accessible. This requirement is stated in section 250.68 of the National Electrical Code (NEC). This accessibility ensures that the connections can be easily inspected and maintained to ensure the safety and effectiveness of the grounding system.

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Which term describes how the Mac operating system handles files created, deleted, or modified since the last backup when the backup drive is temporarily missing?A) Disk dumpB) SnapshotC) System restore pointD) Tarball

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The term that describes how the Mac operating system handles files created, deleted, or modified since the last backup when the backup drive is temporarily missing is B) Snapshot.

A snapshot is a point-in-time copy of the contents of a volume. When Time Machine creates a backup of your Mac, it takes a snapshot of your files and folders at that moment. If the backup drive is temporarily missing, Time Machine will continue to take snapshots of your files and folders. When the backup drive is reconnected, Time Machine will copy over the differences between the latest snapshot and the previous backup to ensure that your backup is up to date. This allows you to restore your files to a point in time even if the backup drive was not available for a period.

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When compared to air, the transmission of ultrasonic waves through a solid material is ___________.a) The sameb) More effectivec) Less effectived) none of the above

Answers

When compared to air, the transmission of ultrasonic waves through a solid material is b) more effective.

When ultrasonic waves propagate through a solid material, they encounter fewer obstacles and disturbances than when they propagate through air. As a result, the transmission of ultrasonic waves through a solid material is more effective than through air. The solid material provides a denser and more uniform medium for the ultrasonic waves to travel through, which results in less energy loss and better propagation of the waves.

This makes ultrasonic testing techniques highly effective for detecting flaws or defects in solid materials, such as metals, plastics, and composites. Ultrasonic waves can be used to detect cracks, voids, inclusions, and other types of flaws in solid materials, making it a valuable tool in non-destructive testing and evaluation.

Option b is answer.

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QUESTION 8
Technician A says that NO2 is used by the DPF to convert soot to harmless emissions. Technician B says that the DPF catalysts
convert NO into harmless emissions. Who is correct?
O a. Technician A
O b. Technician B
O c. Both Technician A and Technician B
O d. Neither Technician A nor Technician B
QUESTION 9
Technician A says that some soot leakage between the DPF substrate and the metal shell is acceptable. Technician B says that only
soot leakage from cells on the clean or downstream side of the DPF is acceptable. Who is correct?
a. Technician A
O b. Technician B
O c. Both Technician A and Technician B.
O d. Neither Technician A nor Technician B

Answers

Neither Technician A nor Technician B provides the perfect answer to both enquiries.

How to explain the information

In response to the first, NO2 is not integral in altering soot into negligible discharges. As an alternative, the DPF utilizes a synthesis of physical filtration and chemical interactions to capture and shift the soot into less detrimental effluent. Nevertheless, NO2 is produced from diesel combustion, consequently leading to smog creation and acid rain.

Concerning the second, any substantiation of soot from the filter element to the metal sheathing is not approved. The aim of the DPF is to detain and contain the soot; therefore, any release can give subscription to augmented emissions and minimized system effectiveness.

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A closed traverse was run from A to B, then C and back to A, with radiations made at B and C to Y and X respectively. The diagram below shows the reduced observations made at A and B and the field notes recorded when the theodolite was set up at C. When the distances were observed at C, the tape was placed on evenly sloping ground and the appropriate vertical angle observed. Reduce the field notes made at C, in the spaces on the booking sheet. (5 marks)

Answers

The appropriate calculation and diagram is attached.

What are field notes?

Field notes are a type of shorthand or abbreviated notes taken by researchers, scientists, and other professionals who work in the field. Field notes can include observations, conversations, measurements, and other data that are recorded quickly and efficiently in real-time.

Field notes are typically taken using pen and paper, although they can also be recorded digitally using smartphones or other electronic devices. They are often used in qualitative research, such as ethnography, where the researcher is studying a culture or community in its natural setting.

Field notes may include descriptive details about the setting, the people being observed, their behaviors, and any other relevant information that the researcher feels is important. They may also include personal reflections and insights that the researcher has while conducting the research.

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What are PG binders tested for low temperature wise?

Answers

"PG binders are tested for low-temperature susceptibility, or their ability to resist cracking and deformation in cold weather conditions."

PG (Performance Grade) binders are used in the construction of asphalt pavements to improve their durability and resistance to deformation over time. These binders are derived from crude oil and are classified based on their viscosity and temperature susceptibility. The low-temperature susceptibility of PG binders is determined by testing them under controlled conditions of cooling and deformation. This test is known as the Bending Beam Rheometer (BBR) test and it measures the ability of the binder to resist cracking and deformation at low temperatures. The test results are used to classify PG binders into different grades based on their low-temperature performance. By selecting the appropriate grade of PG binder for a given location and climate, engineers can ensure that asphalt pavements will perform well under cold weather conditions and provide safe and reliable driving surfaces for motorists.

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Although ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory, why would you choose to use it? Which type of computer typically requires ECC memory?

Answers

ECC memory is typically used in mission-critical systems or applications that require high levels of data integrity and reliability.

Systems that typically require ECC memory include servers, workstations, and other mission-critical systems that manage large amounts of data or perform complex calculations.

ECC (Error Correction Code) memory is a type of RAM that includes additional circuitry to detect and correct errors that can occur during data transmission.

ECC memory costs more than non-ECC memory due to the added hardware and complexity required to implement this functionality.

This includes servers, workstations, and other systems that are responsible for managing large amounts of data or performing complex calculations.

The main benefit of using ECC memory is that it helps to prevent data corruption and system crashes caused by memory errors.

If an error is detected in the memory, the ECC circuitry can correct it automatically, reducing the likelihood of system downtime or data loss.

ECC memory is commonly used in industries such as finance, healthcare, and scientific research, where the accuracy and reliability of data are critical.

It is important to note that not all computer systems support ECC memory and using it may require specific hardware configurations or operating system support.

Although ECC memory is more expensive than non-ECC memory, it is a worthwhile investment for systems that require high levels of data integrity and reliability.

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Asphalt cement does what while cold?

Answers

coldly hardens or solidifies. the molecules of asphalt cement cross-link to create a solid.

A extremely viscous liquid binder used in the construction of roads, highways, and other infrastructure, bitumen (sometimes referred to as bitumen), is also known as bitumen. It begins to cool and solidify after being applied to a road surface, producing a sturdy and long-lasting surface. Curing is the term for the process of hardening, and it normally takes a few days or weeks to finish. During this period, the molecules of asphalt cement cross-link to create a solid, cohesive matrix that gives the road surface structure and strength. Applying the asphalt cement at the proper temperature is crucial since either over- or under-heating can lead to decreased durability and performance.

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Current Carrying Conductors(310-15(B)(5): The neutral conductor of a balanced 4 wire wye circuit that is at least 50 percent loaded with nonlinear loads (electric discharge lighting, electronic ballast, dimmers, controls, computers, laboratory test equipment, medical test equipment, recording studio equipment, etc.) is not considered a current-carrying conductor for the purpose of applying bundle adjustment factors.(True/False)

Answers

True. The neutral conductor of a balanced 4 wire wye circuit that is at least 50 percent loaded with nonlinear loads is not considered a current-carrying conductor for bundle adjustment factors.  

Nonlinear loads cause the current on the neutral to be higher than the current on each phase conductor. This means the neutral conductor carries current that is not part of the load and does not contribute to heating. Therefore, it is not necessary to apply bundle adjustment factors to the neutral conductor in this situation. However, if the neutral conductor is undersized, it can still overheat and cause problems, so it must be appropriately sized.

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A blockage in the condensate drain is most quickly and safely removed by

Answers

A blockage in the condensate drain is most quickly and safely removed by using a wet/dry vacuum.

A blockage in the condensate drain of an air conditioning unit can cause water damage and potentially lead to the growth of mold and mildew. It is important to remove the blockage to avoid further complications.

First, turn off the power to the air conditioning unit to prevent any electrical hazards. Then, locate the condensate drain pipe and disconnect it from the air conditioning unit.

Next, insert the hose of the wet/dry vacuum into the opening of the condensate drain pipe and turn on the vacuum. The vacuum will create a suction that will dislodge and remove the blockage in the pipe.

If the blockage is still present after using the vacuum, try using a plumbing snake to break up and remove the blockage. Be cautious when using a plumbing snake and avoid causing any damage to the drain pipe.

After the blockage has been removed, reconnect the condensate drain pipe to the air conditioning unit and turn the power back on. Finally, it is recommended to pour a mixture of one part bleach and ten parts water down the condensate drain to disinfect the pipe and prevent future blockages.

In conclusion, the safest and quickest way to remove a blockage in the condensate drain is by using a wet/dry vacuum. However, if the blockage persists, a plumbing snake can be used as a secondary method.

It is important to take caution and follow proper safety protocols to avoid causing any damage to the drain pipe or air conditioning unit.

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Q10)d) Is UDP reliable? Explain.

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UDP is not considered reliable because it does not provide error-checking or recovery mechanisms. Unlike TCP, which guarantees the delivery of packets and checks for errors, UDP sends packets without checking if they have been received or not.

This lack of reliability makes UDP a suitable protocol for applications that require speed and low latency, such as video streaming and online gaming, where occasional lost or delayed packets are acceptable. However, for applications that require accurate and complete data transmission, such as file transfers and email, TCP is the preferred protocol due to its reliability features.UDP, or User Datagram Protocol, is not considered reliable because it lacks built-in error checking and correction mechanisms. Unlike TCP, which provides guaranteed delivery and proper sequencing of data, UDP simply sends datagrams without verifying whether they reach their intended destination or are received in the correct order. This can result in lost or misordered data, making UDP less reliable for certain applications that require guaranteed delivery and data integrity. However, UDP's simplicity and lower overhead can be advantageous for real-time applications, like video streaming or online gaming, where some data loss is acceptable and maintaining low latency is more important.

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In a network that uses IPv4, what prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts?

Answers

In a network that uses IPv4, the prefix that would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts is /25.

This would provide 128 IP addresses, with 126 usable addresses for hosts (since the first and last addresses are reserved for network and broadcast addresses).

To determine the best prefix for a subnet containing 100 hosts in a network using IPv4, you should consider the following steps:



1. Calculate the number of bits required for the hosts: You need to find the smallest power of 2 that is greater than or equal to the number of hosts plus 2 (for the network and broadcast addresses). In this case, 100 + 2 = 102. The smallest power of 2 that is greater than or equal to 102 is 128 (2^7).



2. Calculate the subnet mask: Since there are 32 bits in an IPv4 address, and you need 7 bits for the hosts, the remaining bits will be used for the network portion. So, 32 - 7 = 25 bits for the network.


3. Determine the prefix: The prefix is the number of bits used for the network portion of the subnet mask. In this case, the prefix is /25.
In a network that uses IPv4, a /25 prefix would best fit a subnet containing 100 hosts.

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What was the first type of DIMM that ran synchronized with the system clock?

Answers

The first type of DIMM (Dual In-line Memory Module) that ran synchronized with the system clock is known as SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory).

What is SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access Memory)?

SDRAM was introduced in the late 1990s and became a significant advancement in memory technology. It synchronizes its operations with the system clock, enabling it to process data more efficiently than its predecessor, asynchronous DRAM.

This synchronization allowed for faster data transfers, improved overall system performance, and better compatibility with various CPU speeds.

SDRAM quickly became the standard for computer memory, paving the way for future developments like DDR SDRAM (Double Data Rate SDRAM), which further improved data transfer rates and system performance.

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Conductor Insulation Properties: Table _____ of the NEC provides information on conductor properties such as permitted use, maximum operating temperature and other insulation details.

Answers

Conductor Insulation Properties: Table 310.104(A) of the NEC provides information on conductor properties such as permitted use, maximum operating temperature, and other insulation details.

To be useful and safe, electric current must be forced to flow only where it is needed. It must be "channeled" from the power source to a useful load. In general, current-carrying conductors must not be allowed to come in contact with one another, their supporting hardware, or personnel working near them. To accomplish this, conductors are coated or wrapped with various materials. These materials have such a high resistance that they are, for all practical purposes, nonconductors. Nonconductors are generally referred to as "insulators" or "insulating material."

Only the necessary minimum amount of insulation is applied to any particular type of conductor designed to do a particular job. This is done because of several factors. The expense, stiffening effect, and a variety of physical and electrical conditions under which the conductors are operated must be taken into account. Therefore, there are a variety of insulated conductors available to meet the requirements of any job.

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(300-10) All metal raceways, cable armor, boxes, fittings, cabinets and other enclosures for conductors must be _____ joined together to form a continuous electrical conductor.

Answers

All metal raceways, cable armor, boxes, fittings, cabinets, and other enclosures for conductors must be bonded together to form a continuous electrical conductor.

This requirement is specified in the National Electrical Code (NEC) to provide an effective path for fault current to flow, which helps protect against electrical shocks and reduces the risk of fire. Bonding ensures that metal parts are at the same electrical potential and eliminates potential differences that could cause arcing or sparking. Proper bonding also helps to reduce electromagnetic interference (EMI) and ensures that sensitive electronic equipment is not affected by stray electrical currents.

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The counter RES instructiona is used to reset the counterB.is given the same reference address as the counter instructionc decrements the count when actuatedd both a and b

Answers

A. The counter RES instruction is used to reset the counter.

The counter RES instruction is used to reset the counter to its initial value or to a specified preset value. It is often used in conjunction with a rung condition that becomes true when a certain event occurs, such as a particular input being activated or a timer reaching its preset value. Option B is incorrect because the counter RES instruction is not given the same reference address as the counter instruction. Option C is incorrect because there is no counter instruction that decrements the count when actuated. Option D is incorrect because option B is incorrect.

How is an X-ray burst (in an X-ray binary system) similar to a nova?
Both result in the complete destruction of their host stars.
Both are thought to involve fusion of hydrogen into helium.
Both typically recur every few hours to every few days.
Both involve explosions on the surface of a stellar corpse.

Answers

While both events involve nuclear fusion reactions, they occur in different types of binary star systems and have different mechanisms for producing the observed phenomena.

None of the options provided is entirely correct. An X-ray burst in an X-ray binary system and a nova are both types of astronomical events, but they are not similar in all the ways listed. An X-ray burst is a sudden, intense burst of X-ray radiation that occurs in some X-ray binary star systems. These systems consist of a neutron star or a black hole in close orbit with a companion star. The X-ray burst is thought to occur when matter from the companion star accumulates on the surface of the neutron star and undergoes a runaway nuclear fusion reaction, resulting in the emission of a burst of X-rays. A nova, on the other hand, is a sudden, temporary brightening of a star that occurs in a binary star system consisting of a white dwarf and a companion star. In a nova, material from the companion star falls onto the surface of the white dwarf, causing a nuclear fusion reaction that releases a large amount of energy and produces a sudden increase in brightness.

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Nail and screws, where used as a fastening means, shall be attached by using brackets on the outside of the enclosure, or they shall pass through the interior within __________ inches of the back or ends of the enclosure.
314.23(1)

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In accordance with section 314.23(1) of the National Electrical Code (NEC), when nails and screws are used as a fastening means, they should be attached by using brackets on the outside of the enclosure, or they should pass through the interior within 1 1/4 inches of the back or ends of the enclosure.

The cell's plasma membrane establishes its boundary and divides its internal elements from the interior outside world.

Cholesterol, phospholipids, carbohydrates, and proteins make up the plasma membrane's essential building blocks.

The plasma membrane is a bilayer of phospholipids, with the hydrophilic exterior in contact with the outside world and the hydrophobic tails of the phospholipids protruding inside.

As a result, the plasma membrane has an outside that is hydrophilic and an inner that is hydrophobic.

A triangle's exterior angle and the inner angle next to it make up a linear pair. This implies that they make a straight line because a straight line has a length of 180 degrees. They are supplementary because they combine to make a 180° angle.

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Which three statements characterize the transport layer protocols? (Choose three.)

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Transport layer protocols are a critical part of the TCP/IP protocol suite, and they play a crucial role in ensuring that data is transmitted correctly and efficiently over a network.

The following are three statements that characterize transport layer protocols: The transport layer is responsible for providing reliable end-to-end data transmission between applications running on different devices over a network. Transport layer protocols define the format and rules for exchanging data between applications on different hosts. Transport layer protocols can provide flow control and congestion control mechanisms to prevent network congestion and ensure efficient use of network resources.  The transport layer is responsible for breaking up data into smaller packets and managing their transmission between applications running on different devices. It provides end-to-end reliability and error detection and correction, and it can also perform flow control and congestion control to prevent network congestion and ensure efficient use of network resources.

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