Calculate the acceleration of a ball that starts from rest, rolls down a ramp, and gains a speed of 30m/s in 4.0 seconds.

Answers

Answer 1

The  acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

The acceleration of the ball can be calculated using the following formula:

a = (v_f - v_i) / t

where "a" is the acceleration, "v_f" is the final velocity, "v_i" is the initial velocity, and "t" is the  time.

In this case, the initial velocity "v_i" is zero since the ball starts from rest, and the final velocity "v_f" is 30 m/s. The time "t" is 4.0 seconds. So we have:

a = (30 m/s - 0 m/s) / 4.0 s
a = 7.5 m/s^2

Therefore, the acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

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Related Questions

13) Red and orange stars are found evenly spread throughout the galactic disk, but blue stars are typically found A) in the halo.
B) only in or near star-forming clouds.
C) only in the central bulge.
D) evenly spread throughout the galactic disk.

Answers

B) only in or near star-forming clouds. Red and orange stars are found evenly spread throughout the galactic disk, but blue stars are typically found only in or near star-forming clouds.

This is because blue stars are generally younger, massive, and hotter, and they have shorter lifespans compared to red and orange stars. They do not live long enough to spread out across the galactic disk.These regions are known as star-forming clouds, or nebulae. Blue stars are very bright and hot, and emit a lot of ultraviolet radiation, which is useful for star formation. They also tend to be short-lived, and eventually fade away.

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Question 87
The nature of all radiation is the same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wave length.
a. True
b. False

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The same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wavelength is false, as different types of radiation have distinct characteristics, and their effects can vary significantly.

The statement "The nature of all radiation is the same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wavelength" is false.

Radiation refers to the emission of energy as electromagnetic waves or as moving subatomic particles. Different types of radiation have different characteristics, and their nature is not the same. For example, there are several types of radiation such as ionizing and non-ionizing radiation, which have different properties.

Ionizing radiation has enough energy to remove tightly bound electrons from atoms, creating ions. This type of radiation includes X-rays, gamma rays, and alpha and beta particles. On the other hand, non-ionizing radiation has less energy and cannot ionize atoms. Examples of non-ionizing radiation include ultraviolet, visible light, and radio waves.

Moreover, different types of radiation can have different effects on living organisms. For instance, high levels of ionizing radiation can cause cellular damage and increase the risk of cancer, while non-ionizing radiation such as UV radiation can cause skin damage and increase the risk of skin cancer.

In summary, the statement that the nature of all radiation is the same, and the difference lies only in the frequency and wavelength is false, as different types of radiation have distinct characteristics, and their effects can vary significantly.

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Question 8 Marks: 1 The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should beChoose one answer. a. against the prevailing wind b. with the prevailing wind c. perpendicular to the prevailing wind d. changed daily to be perpendicular to the prevailing wind

Answers

With the prevailing wind is the direction of operation of a sanitary landfill. This is because landfills produce a significant amount of unpleasant odors and gases such as methane.

This create public health concerns and environmental pollution. The direction of operation should be aligned with the prevailing wind direction, so that the wind can carry the odors and gases away from populated areas and sensitive receptors, such as schools and residential areas. . Modern landfills are engineered with several layers of protective liners, such as clay or synthetic materials, to prevent contaminants from leaching into the surrounding soil and groundwater. Landfills also have systems for collecting and treating leachate, which is the liquid that forms as rainwater percolates through the waste. Methane, which is a potent greenhouse gas, is generated as organic matter in the landfill decomposes. Modern landfills are equipped with gas collection systems that capture methane and other gases and use them to generate electricity or heat. This process, called landfill gas-to-energy, helps to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and provides a source of renewable energy.

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A certain first-order reaction has a rate constant of 2.30×10−2 s−1 at 19 ∘C. 1. What is the value of k at 57 ∘C if Ea = 80.0 kJ/mol ?

Answers

The value of k at 57°C is approximately [tex]0.199 s^{-1}.[/tex] when a certain first-order reaction has a rate constant of [tex]2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1}[/tex] at 19°C.

To find the value of k (rate constant) at 57°C for a first-order reaction with a known rate constant at 19°C and an activation energy (Ea) of 80.0 kJ/mol, you can use the Arrhenius equation:
[tex]k2 = k1 * e^{((Ea/R) * (1/T1 - 1/T2))}[/tex]
Where:
- k1 is the rate constant at the initial temperature [tex](2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1})[/tex]
- k2 is the rate constant at the final temperature (what we need to find)
- Ea is the activation energy (80.0 kJ/mol, which is 80000 J/mol)
- R is the gas constant (8.314 J/(mol·K))
- T1 is the initial temperature in Kelvin (19°C + 273.15 = 292.15 K)
- T2 is the final temperature in Kelvin (57°C + 273.15 = 330.15 K)

Now, plug the values into the Arrhenius equation and solve for k2:
[tex]k2 = (2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1}) * e^{((80000 J/mol)/(8.314 J/(mol*K))} * (1/292.15 K - 1/330.15 K))[/tex]
k2 ≈ 0.199 s^(-1)

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What happens when T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus?

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When T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus, the viral particles incorporate the radioactive phosphorus into their DNA.

The T7 bacteriophage (or T7 phage) is a bacteriophage, a virus that infects bacteria. It infects most strains of Escherichia coli and relies on these hosts to reproduce. The T7 bacteriophage has a lytic life cycle, meaning it destroys the cells it infects.

Phosphorus is a key component of the DNA molecule's backbone. As the bacteriophages replicate and produce new viral particles, the radioactive phosphorus gets passed on to the progeny, allowing scientists to track the spread and localization of the bacteriophages within a bacterial population. This technique helps in understanding the replication and infection process of the T7 bacteriophages and contributes to research in virology and microbiology.

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Question 31
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except
a. Hydrostatic loops
b. Vacuum breakers
c. Air gap separation
d. Backpressure units

Answers

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except d. Backpressure units

Backsiphonage is the reverse flow of potentially contaminated water into the potable water supply due to a reduction in pressure. Various methods can be used to prevent backsiphonage, including:
a. Hydrostatic loops: These are vertical loops of piping that create a physical barrier to prevent the backflow of water.
b. Vacuum breakers: These devices break the vacuum in the water supply line, preventing water from flowing backwards.
c. Air gap separation: This is a physical separation between the water supply outlet and the receiving vessel, creating a barrier that prevents backsiphonage.
However, backpressure units are not designed to prevent backsiphonage. Instead, they are used to prevent backpressure backflow, which occurs when the pressure downstream of a connection becomes greater than the pressure upstream.

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Question 18
The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be:
a. with the prevailing wind
b. perpendicular to the wind
c. against the wind
d. does not matter

Answers

The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be perpendicular to the prevailing wind. This is because it helps to prevent the spread of odors and other matter that may be carried by the wind.

It also ensures that the wind does not cause litter and debris to be blown out of the landfill, which can contribute to environmental pollution. So, the correct answer is b. perpendicular to the wind .Pollution is the introduction of harmful materials into the environment. These harmful materials are called pollutants. Pollutants can be natural, such as volcanic ash. They can also be created by human activity, such as trash or runoff produced by factories. Pollutants damage the quality of air, water, and land.

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about how many middle school students were surveyed for this graph?

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around 162, hope this helps!

a mass m is attached to an ideal massless spring. when this system is set in motion, it has a period t . what is the period if the mass is doubled to 2 m ?

Answers

The period of a mass-spring system is given by T = 2π√(m/k), where m is the mass of the object attached to the spring and k is the spring constant. Since the spring is ideal and massless, k remains constant when the mass is changed.

Using the equation T = 2π√(m/k), we can find the period when the mass is doubled. Let's call the new period T2 and the original period T1.

T1 = 2π√(m/k)
T2 = 2π√(2m/k)

To find the relationship between T1 and T2, we can take the ratio of the two equations:

T2/T1 = √(2m/k)/√(m/k)
T2/T1 = √(2)

Therefore, when the mass is doubled, the period of the system increases by a factor of √(2).

The period of the mass-spring system will increase by a factor of √(2) when the mass is doubled.

We can conclude that increasing the mass of an ideal massless spring system will increase its period. In this case, doubling the mass will increase the period by a factor of √(2).

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Does the current through R1 increase, decrease, or stay the same? Select the correct answer and explanation.

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

when the switch is closed in the current conducting circuit the resistor r1 sees the same potential difference so the current through r1 stays the same.

air enters a converging-diverging nozzle with low velocity at 2.0 mpa and 100 c. if the exit area of the nozzle is 3.5 times the throat area, what must the back pressure be to produce a normal shock at the exit plane of the nozzle?

Answers

where Mach is the Mach number at the exit. Plugging in the values, we can find the pressure and temperature at the exit plane of the nozzle.

To solve this problem, we can use the equations for isentropic flow and normal shock wave relations.

First, we need to find the Mach number at the throat of the nozzle. We can use the isentropic flow equations for this:

Mach number at throat = sqrt(2/(gamma - 1) * [ (P_inlet/P_throat)^((gamma-1)/gamma) - 1 ])

where gamma is the ratio of specific heats for air (approximately 1.4), P_inlet is the inlet pressure (2.0 MPa), and P_throat is the pressure at the throat (unknown). Plugging in the values, we get:

Mach number at throat = sqrt(2/(1.4 - 1) * [ (2.0/ P_throat)^((1.4-1)/1.4) - 1 ])

Next, we can use the area ratio given to find the Mach number at the exit:

Area ratio = A_exit/A_throat = 3.5

Mach number at exit = sqrt( 2/(gamma + 1) * [ (P_exit/P_throat)^((gamma-1)/gamma) - 1 ] + 1 )

We can assume that the flow is choked at the throat, meaning that the Mach number at the throat is 1. To produce a normal shock wave at the exit, the Mach number at the exit must be greater than 1.4, which is the critical Mach number for air at 100 C. We can iterate on different values of P_exit until we find the value that gives a Mach number of 1.4 at the exit.

Once we have found the correct value of P_exit, we can use the normal shock wave relations to find the pressure and temperature at the exit:

P_exit/P_inlet = [(gamma+1)/2]^(gamma/(gamma-1)) * [ 1 + (gamma-1)/2 * Mach^2 ]^(-(gamma)/(gamma-1))

T_exit/T_inlet = [ 1 + (gamma-1)/2 * Mach^2 ]^(-1)

where Mach is the Mach number at the exit. Plugging in the values, we can find the pressure and temperature at the exit plane of the nozzle.

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12. What is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone?
A) 0.50 rad/s2
B) 1.0 rad/s2
C) 4.5 rad/s2
D) 9.0 rad/s2
E) 18 rad/s2

Answers

9.0 rad/s2, which is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone.

The magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone can be calculated using the formula:
angular acceleration = change in angular velocity / time
We are not given the change in angular velocity, but we are given information about the tangential acceleration and radius of the grindstone. We can use these values to find the angular acceleration.
The tangential acceleration of the grindstone can be calculated using the formula:
tangential acceleration = radius x angular acceleration
We are given that the tangential acceleration is 2.25 m/s2 and the radius is 0.25 m. Therefore, we can rearrange the formula to find the angular acceleration:
angular acceleration = tangential acceleration / radius
angular acceleration = 2.25 m/s2 / 0.25 m
angular acceleration = 9.0 rad/s2
Therefore, the answer is D) 9.0 rad/s2, which is the magnitude of the angular acceleration of the grindstone.

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Question 8 Marks: 1 Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers andChoose one answer. a. gate valves b. indirect waste piping c. air vents d. water meters

Answers

Cross-connection controls are an essential component of any plumbing system. These controls include various devices and measures that prevent contaminants from flowing back into the potable water supply.

Some common examples of cross-connection controls are air gaps, backflow preventers, and vacuum breakers. Gate valves, indirect waste piping, air vents, and water meters are not typically considered cross-connection controls.

These devices serve different functions, such as regulating water flow, removing wastewater, and measuring water usage.
 Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers, and indirect waste piping. The correct answer is b. indirect waste piping.

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absolute zero corresponds to about -273K. (True or False)

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Given statment "absolute zero corresponds to about -273K." is true.

True. Absolute zero is the theoretical temperature at which all matter has zero thermal energy. It is the lowest possible temperature that can be achieved, and it corresponds to about -273.15 degrees Celsius or -459.67 degrees Fahrenheit.

This temperature is considered to be the baseline for all other temperatures, as it represents the absence of any thermal energy. At absolute zero, all matter would be in a state of perfect order, with no movement or energy.
The concept of absolute zero was first proposed by William Thomson (Lord Kelvin) in the 19th century, and its importance in the field of physics cannot be overstated. It forms the basis of many important theories, such as the laws of thermodynamics and quantum mechanics.

Scientists have been able to achieve temperatures very close to absolute zero in the laboratory using various cooling techniques, such as laser cooling and evaporative cooling.

These ultra-cold temperatures have allowed researchers to study the behavior of matter in ways that were previously impossible.
In conclusion, absolute zero does indeed correspond to about -273K, making it one of the most fundamental concepts in physics. Its discovery and study have revolutionized our understanding of the natural world and continue to drive scientific innovation today.

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Lineweaver-Burke Plot
1) What is Km? The greater Km is?
2) What is Vmax?

Answers

Km is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax. The greater Km, the lower the enzyme-substrate affinity. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction achieved by an enzyme at saturating substrate concentration.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot is a graphical representation of enzyme kinetics data used to determine the kinetic parameters of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Km is a measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate, with a lower Km indicating a higher affinity. Vmax, on the other hand, is a measure of the enzyme's maximum activity at saturating substrate concentrations.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot is used to determine both Km and Vmax from a series of enzymatic reactions at varying substrate concentrations. The greater the Km, the lower the enzyme-substrate affinity, which can be indicative of a weaker binding between the two molecules.

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With a 1/16" ball penetrator and a penetration depth of 0.082 mm, this makes

Answers

It appears that a penetration depth of 0.082mm would result in a superficial Rockwell hardness value of approximately 18, using a 1/16" ball penetrator and the corresponding test load.

However, as you mentioned, there are various superficial Rockwell scales that use different combinations of penetrators and test loads.

It's important to use the appropriate scale for the material being tested and to follow standardized testing procedures to ensure accurate and reproducible results.

The Rockwell hardness test requires a specific testing procedure, including the use of a calibrated hardness tester, a specific type of penetrator, and standardized testing conditions.

The hardness values obtained from this test are dependent on the material being tested, and cannot be determined solely based on penetration depth.

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correct form of question would be

With a diamond or ball penetrator and a penetration depth of 0.082mm this makes 100 – 0.082/0.001 = 18 superficial Rockwell.

Due to the different combinations of penetrators and test loads, there is a great number of superficial Rockwell scales, whichare labelled with different letters. The respective letter is also preceded by a number which indicates the total load used in the test (see Table 2)

Penetrator- F=441,3N / F=294,2N / F=147,1N /

Diamond Cone = 45 N / 30 N / 15 N

Ball 1/16"1,5875mm= 45 T / 30 T / 15 T

Ball 1/8"* = 45 W / 30 W / 15 W

Ball 1/4"* = 45 X / 30 X / 15 X

Ball 1/2"* = 45 Y / 30 Y / 15 Y

How much percent of participants delivered 450-volt shock in the Milgram obedience study?

Answers

In the Milgram obedience study, approximately 65% of participants delivered the maximum 450-volt shock.

This experiment, conducted by psychologist Stanley Milgram in the early 1960s, aimed to investigate the extent to which individuals would obey authority figures even when instructed to inflict harm on others. Participants were led to believe they were administering electric shocks to a "learner" in another room, with the intensity of the shocks increasing each time an incorrect answer was given.

The learner was, in fact, a confederate of the experimenter and did not receive any real shocks. The purpose of the study was to examine obedience to authority, particularly in light of the atrocities committed during World War II. The results were surprising and alarming, as 65% of participants ultimately delivered the maximum 450-volt shock, despite the apparent distress of the learner.

The Milgram obedience study demonstrated the power of authority and the willingness of individuals to obey, even when such obedience may result in causing harm to others. It highlights the importance of understanding situational factors and the role they play in influencing human behavior.

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Can someone please help

Answers

99.16 Newtons is the new force of attraction between the particles.

What causes an atoms to attract one another?

The forces that hold atoms together to create molecules and solids are referred to as chemical bonds. The attraction between the electrons of one atom and the nuclei of another atom as a result of this electric force is what is known as a chemical bond.

[tex]F = (kq1q2)/r^2[/tex]

[tex]9,916 = (kq1q2)/r^2[/tex]

[tex]F = (k*(q1/5)*(q2/5))/(2r)^2[/tex]

[tex]F = (1/100)((kq1*q2)/(r^2))[/tex]

So, the new force of attraction is:

[tex]F = (1/100)*9,916 = 99.16[/tex]Newtons (rounded to 4 decimal places)

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Why is overriding your headlights at night dangerous?

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Overriding your headlights at night is dangerous because it reduces your reaction time and visibility. When you drive at a speed that doesn't allow you to stop within the distance illuminated by your headlights, you're overriding them. This can lead to accidents, as you might not see obstacles, pedestrians, or other vehicles in time to react.

Driving too fast for your headlights also affects your peripheral vision, making it more difficult to notice potential hazards on the side of the road.

Additionally, high speeds increase the likelihood of overcorrecting if you suddenly encounter a sharp curve or unexpected obstacle, potentially causing a loss of control.

To avoid these dangers, it is crucial to maintain a safe driving speed at night, ensuring you can stop within the illuminated area provided by your headlights.

This practice will help increase visibility and reaction time, reducing the risk of accidents and keeping you and others on the road safe.

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It's risky to turn off your headlights at night since it makes it harder to see and react. You are overriding your headlights when you are travelling at a speed that prevents you from stopping in the area.

That your headlights are illuminating. Because you might not see barriers, pedestrians, or other vehicles in time to react, this can result in accidents.

Peripheral vision is also impacted by driving too fast for your headlights, making it more challenging to see possible hazards on the side of the road.

High speeds also make it more likely that you may overcorrect if you suddenly come upon a sharp curve or an unexpected barrier, which could result in a loss of control.

Maintaining a safe speed while driving at night is essential to avoiding these risks and making sure you can stop inside the area your headlights have illuminated.

This routine will improve your vision and reaction time, lowering your risk of accidents and ensuring your safety and the safety of other drivers.

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Voltage drop considerations are for ________ and not for safety; therefore, sizing conductors for voltage drop is not a Code requirement.

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Voltage drop considerations are for efficiency and performance, not for safety; therefore, sizing conductors for voltage drop is not a Code requirement.

The main purpose of addressing voltage drop is to ensure that electrical devices receive adequate voltage to operate properly, without negatively impacting their performance or lifespan.

Voltage drop is the reduction in voltage that occurs as electrical current flows through a conductor due to the resistance of the conductor itself. If the voltage drop is too high, it can cause electrical devices to malfunction or operate inefficiently. For this reason, electrical engineers and designers typically calculate the expected voltage drop in a circuit and specify a minimum conductor size to limit the voltage drop to an acceptable level.

While the NEC (National Electrical Code) does not require specific voltage drop calculations or minimum conductor sizes based on voltage drop, it does provide guidance on conductor sizing based on load, temperature, and other factors that can affect the safety and performance of an electrical system.

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A horizontal force F is used to pull a 5-kilogram block across afloor at a constant speed of 3 meters per second. The frictionalforce between the block and the floor is 10 newtons. The work doneby the force F in 1 minute is most nearlyA. 0 JB. 30 JC. 600 JD. 1350 JE. 1800 J

Answers


The horizontal we need to use the formula for work done, which is Work = Force x Distance x cos theta in this case, the distance is not given, but we know that the block is moving at a constant speed of 3 meters per second. Distance = Speed x Time. Distance = 3 m/s x 60 s = 180 m

The time given is 1 minute, which is 60 seconds, Distance = 3 m/s x 60 s = 180 m Now we can calculate the work done by the force Of Work = F x Distance x cos theta Since the force is horizontal and the displacement is also horizontal, the angle between them is 0 degrees and cos0 = 1. Work = F x Distance We need to find the value of F. Since the block is moving at a constant speed, the force applied by F must be equal and opposite to the frictional force F = frictional force = 10 N Now we can substitute the values Work = 10 N x 180 m = 1800 J the answer is (E) 1800 J.

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Question 53 Marks: 1 The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the ground water table or rock is 62 inches.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

The above statement is True. The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the groundwater table or rock is indeed 62 inches. This distance helps ensure proper wastewater treatment and prevents contamination of groundwater resources.

Groundwater table The water table is an underground boundary between the soil surface and the area where groundwater saturates spaces between sediments and cracks in the rock. Water pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal at this boundary

Groundwater, which is in aquifers below the surface of the Earth, is one of the Nation's most important natural resources. Groundwater is the source of about 37 percent of the water that county and city water departments supply to households and businesses (public supply).

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10. During the time a compact disc (CD) accelerates from rest to a constant rotational speed of 477 rev/min, it rotates through an angular displacement of 0.250 rev. What is the angular acceleration of the CD?
A) 358 rad/s2
B) 126 rad/s2
C) 901 rad/s2
D) 866 rad/s2
E) 794 rad/s2

Answers


The angular displacement, ω₀ is the initial angular velocity, α is the angular acceleration, and t is the time.
Since the CD starts from rest, ω₀ = 0. The angular displacement θ is given as 0.250 rev, which should be converted to radians 1 rev = 2π radiansθ = 0.250 rev × 2π rad/rev = 0.5π radians.


The angular acceleration = final angular velocity - initial angular velocity / timeSince the CD starts from rest, the initial angular velocity is 0. The final angular velocity is given as 477 rev/min. We need to convert this to radians per second
final angular velocity = 477 rev/min * 2π radians/rev * 1/60 min/sec = 49.87 radians/second The time it takes for the CD to reach this speed is not given, but we can find it using the formula for angular displacement angular displacement = final angular velocity + initial angular velocity / 2 * time Since the CD starts from rest, the initial angular velocity is 0. We can rearrange the formula to solve for time = 2 * angular displacement / final angular velocity + initial angular velocity
Plugging in the values, we get me = 2 * 0.250 rev / 49.87 radians/second + 0 = 0.01002 seconds Now we can calculate the angular acceleration angular acceleration = 49.87 radians/second - 0 / 0.01002 seconds = 4,977 radians/second^2
This is not one of the answer choices, but we can convert it to the given units angular. acceleration=4,977radians/second^2 * 1 rev/2π radians^2 * 1 min/60 sec^2 ≈ 794 rad/s^2Therefore, the answer is E 794 rad/s2. To find the angular acceleration of the compact disc CD, we can use the following equationθ = ω₀t + 1/2αt².

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an important news announcement is transmitted by radio waves to people who are 100. km away, sitting next to their radios, and by sound waves to people sitting across the newsroom, 3.0 m from the newscaster. who receives the news first? explain. take the speed of sound in air to be 343 m/s.

Answers

The people 100 km away listening to their radios via radio waves receive the news first.

To determine who receives the news first, we need to compare the time it takes for the radio waves and sound waves to travel to their respective listeners. Let's use the formula:
time = distance / speed
For radio waves, the distance is 100 km (100,000 m) and the speed of radio waves is the speed of light, which is approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s. So the time for radio waves:
time_radio = 100,000 m / 3 x 10^8 m/s ≈ 3.33 x 10^-4 s
For sound waves, the distance is 3.0 m and the speed of sound in air is given as 343 m/s. So the time for sound waves:

time_sound = 3.0 m / 343 m/s ≈ 0.0087 s
Comparing the two times, we see that time_radio (3.33 x 10^-4 s) is much smaller than time_sound (0.0087 s).

Therefore, the people 100 km away listening to their radios via radio waves receive the news first.

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A puck is sliding on the ice with 25 J of kinetic energy. After 3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy. Find the work done on the puck.

Answers

The work done on the puck is -25 J, after  3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy.

What is work done?

Work done is described  as the amount of force needed to move an object a certain distance.

The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.

The change in kinetic energy is:

ΔK = Kf - Ki = 0 - 25 = -25 J

Note that the  negative sign indicates that the kinetic energy of the puck decreased.  

W = ΔK = -25 J

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If a main-sequence star suddenly started burning hydrogen at a faster rate in its core, it would become. a. larger, hotter, and more luminous. b. larger, cooler, and more luminous. c. smaller, hotter, and more luminous. d. smaller, cooler, and more luminous.

Answers

If a main-sequence star suddenly started burning hydrogen at a faster rate in its core, it would become larger, hotter, and more luminous.

The increase in the rate of hydrogen burning in the star's core would lead to a release of more energy, causing the outer layers of the star to expand and become less dense, which results in an increase in the star's size.

At the same time, the increase in energy production would cause the temperature of the star's core to increase, which would increase the star's overall temperature and luminosity.

Therefore, the star would become larger, hotter, and more luminous, moving away from the main sequence towards the giant branch on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.

The increased luminosity and temperature would make the star appear brighter and bluer.

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Question 63 Marks: 1 Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

a. True. Sounds with a frequency of 30 hertz (Hz) are considered very low pitch.

This is because low frequency sounds produce low pitch tones, and 30 Hz falls within the lower end of the human hearing range, which is typically between 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz. These lower frequencies are usually associated with bass notes, such as those in bass guitars and synthesizers.Low-pitched sounds are generally associated with bass sounds and have a slower frequency than higher-pitched sounds. Low-frequency sound waves travel farther than higher frequency sound waves and can be heard even when there is background noise.

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A ball at the end of a string is swinging as a simple pendulum. Assuming no loss in energy due to friction, we can say for the ball that
A. the potential energy is maximum at the lowest position of the ball.
B. the potential energy is maximum where the kinetic energy is a minimum.
C. the potential energy is maximum where the kinetic energy is maximum.
D. the kinetic energy is maximum at each end of the motion.

Answers

Answer:

Only (B) is correct:

PE + KE = constant

When Potential Energy is a maximum., the KE is zero

Also, PE depends on the height of the ball

Question 47 Marks: 1 The ______ of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.Choose one answer. a. sound pressure b. frequency c. intensity d. speed

Answers

The answer is c. intensity. The intensity of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit of time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.

This means that the energy of the sound wave is spread out over an area and the amount of energy that is transferred depends on the intensity of the sound wave. The direction of propagation refers to the direction in which the sound wave is traveling.

The intensity of a sound wave is the energy transferred per unit of time (sec) through a unit area normal to the direction of propagation.

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what is the link margin value that must be achieved to force an enemy jammer at equal distance to a receiving link 16 terminal to use 128 times more power than the transmitting terminal

Answers

The link margin needed is equal to the difference between the EIRP of the jammer signal and the transmitting terminal EIRP = EIRP(jammer) - EIRP(transmitted).

What is EIRP?

A wireless link budget, in general, predicts the potential losses that the signal being transmitted might experience and makes adjustments to the design parameters to mitigate the consequences of such losses. EIRP is frequently used to define the transmission power level needed in wireless connection budget estimates.  The power transmitted by an isotropic source is used as the reference by the EIRP. EIRP combines the transmitting antenna's gain and power. EIRP is calculated as the product of the transmitting antenna's power and gain. A comparison is made between the power radiated and gain of an isotropic source and the product of the power radiated and gain of a realizable antenna. A source that is isotropic radiates uniformly in all directions has a gain of one.

The link margin value that must be achieved to force an enemy jammer at equal distance to a receiving link 16 terminal to use 128 times more power than the transmitting terminal is the ratio of the equivalent isotropically radiated powers (EIRP) of the two signals (the transmitted and the jammer signal). 128 =  [tex]\frac{(EIRPjammer) }{(EIRPtransmitted)}[/tex]. Therefore, the link margin needed is equal to the difference between the EIRP of the jammer signal and the transmitting terminal EIRP = EIRP(jammer) - EIRP'(transmitted).

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