Consider the following changes to the recipe. Predict the result of each change, and explain your reasoning. Assume that each change occurs individually, without enacting any of the other changes.


a. Step 2 is eliminated.


b. Before step 5, the dough is rolled into very thin sheets.


c. In step 6, the dough rises for only 30 minutes

Answers

Answer 1

a. When Step 2 is dropped or eliminated: Around 75°F (24°C) with high humidity is the perfect temperature for baking dough because it promotes a calm, consistent, and tasty rise.

Part a: Your yeast won't be content if you go too much from that range. In the part after this, we'll walk you through making a proof box to regulate humidity and temperature.

b. The dough is rolled into very thin sheets prior to step 5. This sticky is the dough to the touch? If so, the dough was most likely under-kneaded. Add more flour and knead the dough until it feels silky and smooth to the touch and doesn't adhere to your hands any more.

c. Step 6 only requires the dough to rise for 30 minutes. Kneading requires skill. If you use too little yeast, the dough may not be properly enriched with it. In that case, the dough won't be strong enough to rise. If the dough is overworked, it could become so stiff that it cannot rise.

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Correct Question:

Consider the following changes to the recipe. Predict the result of each change, and explain your reasoning. Assume that each change occurs individually, without enacting any of the other changes.

Pizza Recipe Steps:

Check your yeast type and expiration date. Check the environment. Check the flour type and your kneading technique. Ease up on the salt. Use the proper container. Turn up the temperature to 80–90 °F (27–32 °C).  Add more yeast.  Blend in the starter.  Knead in more flour. Knead the dough properly.

Then Find:

a. Step 2 is eliminated.

b. Before step 5, the dough is rolled into very thin sheets.

c. In step 6, the dough rises for only 30 minutes.


Related Questions

An animal species has a diploid or 2n number of chromosomes of 12. How many different combinations of chromosomes are possible in the gametes?
Answer choices
A. 128
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
E. 64

Answers

There are 64 different possible combinations of chromosomes in the gametes of this species.

In this case, the diploid number of chromosomes (2n) is given as 12. During meiosis, the chromosome pairs separate, and each resulting gamete receives only one copy of each pair. Therefore, each gamete will have n or 6 chromosomes.

To determine the number of different combinations of chromosomes in the gametes, we can use the formula 2^n, where n is the number of chromosomes in a single set. In this case, n is 6, so we have:

2^6 = 64

Hence, the correct answer is E.

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what happens to the access nutrients within the soil?

Answers

Plant roots can absorb nutrients from the soil and use them for growth, or they can go through different chemical and biological changes in the soil.

Plants employ the nutrients they take in to produce tissues and perform metabolic functions. Any extra nutrients that the plant does not immediately require can either be retained in the tissues of the plant or discharged back into the soil. Chemical processes including oxidation, reduction, and complexation can impact the availability of nutrients to plants in soil.

For instance, certain nutrients could bind to soil constituents and become less accessible to plants. The availability of nutrients in the soil can also be impacted by biological activity. Bacteria and fungus in the soil have the ability to decompose organic matter and release nutrients for plant uptake. The atmospheric nitrogen can also be changed by nitrogen-fixing bacteria into a form that plants can use.

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True multicellularity is a major characteristic oTrue multicellularity is a major characteristic of A. all eukaryotes and a few prokaryotes. B. animals and plants only. C. eukaryotes only. D. protists, plants, and animals. E. prokaryotes and protists.

Answers

Answer: Eukaryotes only

Only eukaryotes exhibit true multicellularity as a major trait. So, the correct option is C.

What are Eukaryotes?

Eukaryotes are organisms whose cells have membrane-bound organelles in addition to a nucleus. Eukaryotic creatures come in a great variety, including most algae, all animals, plants, fungus, and protists.

The most popular classification recognizes are Monera (prokaryotes), Animalia (Metazoa), Plantae, Fungi, and Protista where as the last four eukaryotic kingdoms, along with the "Whittaker" five kingdom structure. Only eukaryotes display true multicellularity as a major characteristic.

Organelles such as mitochondria (cellular energy exchangers), the Golgi apparatus (a glandular device), the endoplasmic reticulum (a canal-like structure of membranes within the cell), and lysosomes are also present in eukaryotic cells.

Thus, the correct option is C.

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Of the twenty amino acids utilized in the body, nine are considered ______ , which means that the body does not produce enough to meet physiological needs and they therefore, must be obtained from the diet. A conditionally essential amino acid occurs when its synthesis is inhibited or does not meet physiological need during some pathophysiological conditions. When this occurs, a ______amino acid becomes a ______ amino acid and therefore must be obtained from the diet.

Answers

Of the 20 amino acids utilized in the body, 9 are considered essential amino acids, which means that the body does not produce enough to meet physiological needs and they therefore must be obtained from the diet. A conditionally essential amino acid is an amino acid that is normally considered non - essential but becomes essential under certain circumstances when the body does not produce enough to meet the individual’s needs.

Amino acids are chemicals that make proteins when they combine. The building blocks of life are amino acids and proteins. Amino acids are left over after proteins are digested or broken down. To support the body, the human body uses amino acids to build proteins: Food should be broken down.

Histidine, isoleucine, leucine, lysine, methionine, phenylalanine, threonine, tryptophan, and valine are the necessary amino acids. Alanine, asparagine, aspartic acid, glutamic acid, and serine are non-essential amino acids

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Full Question : Of the 20 amino acids utilized in the body, 9 are considered __________ , which means that the body does not produce enough to meet physiological needs and they therefore must be obtained from the diet. A conditionally essential amino acid is an amino acid that is normally considered _____________ but becomes ___________ under certain circumstances when the body does not produce enough to meet the individual’s needs

Which of the following evolutionary innovations of seed plants enabled them to outcompete ferns and other seedless plants that dominated through the end of the Carboniferous period?A. heterospory B. reduced, dependent gametophytes C. vascular systems D. flowers

Answers

Reduced, dependent gametophytes enabled seed plants to outcompete ferns and other seedless plants that dominated through the end of the Carboniferous period Seedless vascular plants, such as lycophytes, ferns, and horsetails, exhibit two main adaptations over non vascular plants: real roots, and vascular tissue.

B is the correct option.

In the early stages of land life's invasion, these modifications permitted seedless vascular plants to outcompete non vascular plants. Producing a large number increases the possibility that at least one will wind up in an area with the proper environmental conditions, as spores can only germinate in those conditions.

Other less visible examples of endo symbiotic organelles in eukaryotic organisms include mitochondria (found in most eukaryotes) and chloroplasts (found only in plants and algae).

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Which is closest in physical proximity to the nucleic acid of a virus?
A. spike
B. capsid
C. envelope.

Answers

Answer:

B. capsid

Explanation:

The capsid is closest in physical proximity to the nucleic acid of a virus. The capsid is the protein shell that encloses and protects the nucleic acid of a virus. It is made up of many protein subunits that come together to form a complex structure around the viral genome. The capsid can be thought of as a protective shell that shields the genetic material of the virus from the external environment and from host immune responses. The envelope and spikes are other components of some viruses, but they are located outside the capsid and are not in direct physical contact with the viral nucleic acid.

What is the name of classification system used to name?

Answers

Answer:

binomial naming system

The binomial naming system is the system used to name species. Each species is given a name that consists of two parts. The first part is the Genus to which the species belongs and the second part is the species name. For example, Apis mellifera (the honey bee).

At which stage of the cell cycle does DNA replication occur?
a) G2
b) G1
c) metaphase
d) anaphase
e) S

Answers

Option b is correct. The first stage of the cell cycle during cell division is known as the gap 1 phase. In this stage of the cell cycle, the cell is metabolically active and is continuously growing.

Nevertheless, DNA replication is not occurring during this stage. The cell develops and performs typical cellular tasks during the G1 phase. The DNA is replicated during the synthesis (S) phase, producing two copies of each chromosome.The majority of the resources in the cell are used for DNA replication. In human cells, all 46 chromosomes are duplicated. Chromosome duplication takes place in the eukaryotic cell cycle during "S phase" (the phase of DNA synthesis), and chromosome segregation takes place in "M phase" (the mitosis phase).

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distal definition anatomy

Answers

In anatomy, the term "distal" refers to a position or location that is farther away from the center of the body or point of reference. It is the opposite of the term "proximal", which refers to a position or location that is closer to the center of the body or point of reference.

For example, in the human arm, the shoulder joint is proximal to the elbow joint, while the wrist joint is distal to the elbow joint. Similarly, in the human leg, the hip joint is proximal to the knee joint, while the ankle joint is distal to the knee joint.

The terms "distal" and "proximal" are also used in reference to structures within organs or tissues. For instance, in the kidney, the distal convoluted tubule (DCT) is the part of the nephron that is farthest from the glomerulus, while the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) is the part of the nephron that is closest to the glomerulus.

Overall, the terms "distal" and "proximal" are important concepts in anatomy that help to describe the position, location, and relationship of structures within the body.

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Indicate if the conditions described would result in the development of a male or a female individual. SRY is a gene on the Y chromosome that is involved in initiating the development of the male phenotype in humans.- An individual with only one X chromosome and a Y chromosome with an SRY gene mutation - One X chromosome and a Y chromosome with the SRY gene deleted - One each of the X and Y chromosome - Only one X chromosome - One normal X chromosome and an X chromosome with an SRY gene insertion - Two X chromosomes and a Y chromosome - Four X chromosomes and a Y chromosomeMale?Female?

Answers

If the conditions described would result in the development of a male or a female individual. SRY is a gene on the Y chromosome that is involved in initiating the development of the male phenotype in humans.

MALE

One each of the X and Y chromosomeOne normal X chromosome and an X chromosome with an SRY gene insertionTwo X chromosomes and a Y chromosomeFour X chromosomes and a Y chromosome

FEMALE

An individual with only one X chromosome and a Y chromosome with an SRY gene mutationOne X chromosome and a Y chromosome with the SRY gene deletedOnly one X chromosome

What is SRY gene insertion?

Sex-determining region Y protein (SRY), or Testis-determining factor (TDF), is a DNA-binding protein (also known as gene-regulatory protein/transcription factor) encoded by the SRY gene that is responsible for the initiation of male sex determination in therian mammals (placental mammals and marsupials). SRY is an intron less sex-determining gene on the Y chromosome. Mutations in this gene lead to a range of disorders of sex development with varying effects on an individual's phenotype and genotype.

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Fill The Blank! species that retain fertilized eggs internally, nourish the embryo with a yolk, and give birth to live young are said to be _______.

Answers

Species that retain fertilized eggs internally, nourish the embryo with a yolk, and give birth to live young are said to be ovoviviparous.

What is the fertilized ?

The fertilized egg, otherwise known as a zygote, is the product of the union of an egg and a sperm. It is the earliest stage of an embryo and is formed when a sperm penetrates an egg, resulting in the merging of the two cells' genetic material. After fertilization, the egg begins to divide and form a multi-celled embryo, which will eventually become a fetus and then a baby. Fertilization occurs in the fallopian tube in females and marks the beginning of the development of a new individual.

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signals being transmitted by neurons in a circuit enter the spinal cord via the dorsal root and exit the spinal cord via the ventral root. (True or False)

Answers

True, signals being transmitted by neurons in a circuit enter the spinal cord via the dorsal root and exit the spinal cord via the ventral root.

Afferent neurons are different from most other neurons in that they have a distinctive structure. Their cell bodies are found in the dorsal root ganglion, which is situated directly outside the spinal cord.

The motor neuron cell bodies that transmit axons via the ventral roots of spinal nerves to terminate on striated muscles are found in the ventral horns.

The brain's pathways are made up of cells called neurons, which transmit electrical and chemical messages. They come in a variety of sizes and forms. Its connections and forms enable them to perform specific tasks like memory storage and muscle control.

By a tiny opening known as a synapse, information travels from one neuron to another. Electrical signals are converted into chemical signals at the synapse in order to cross the gap. The signal turns back into an electrical signal once it has crossed across.

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single bonds on fatty acid tails indicate a _______________ fat.

Answers

Single bonds on fatty acid tails indicate a saturated fat.

The saturated fat theory is a widely discussed concept in the field of nutrition, which proposes that a diet high in saturated fats can contribute to the development of heart disease and other health problems.

The theory is based on the idea that saturated fats, which are primarily found in animal products such as meat, butter, and cheese, can raise levels of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) cholesterol in the blood. LDL cholesterol is often referred to as "bad" cholesterol because it is associated with an increased risk of heart disease.

Proponents of the saturated fat theory argue that people should limit their intake of saturated fats and replace them with healthier fats, such as unsaturated fats found in nuts, seeds, and vegetable oils. However, in recent years, the theory has been challenged by some researchers who question the evidence behind it and propose that other factors, such as excess sugar and refined carbohydrates in the diet, may be more important contributors to heart disease.

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the female gametophyte is found in which part of the flower?

Answers

The female gametophyte, also known as the embryo sac, is found in the ovary of the flower.

What is a flower?

A flower is the reproductive structure found in flowering plants, also known as angiosperms. Flowers are made up of various parts, including the petals, sepals, stamens, and pistil, which work together to produce seeds for reproduction.

The female gametophyte, also known as the embryo sac, is found in the ovary of the flower. The ovary is typically located at the base of the pistil, which is the female reproductive organ of the flower. The female gametophyte is produced within the ovule, which is contained within the ovary, and is essential for fertilization and the development of the seed.

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Why was protein considered to be the source of genetic material in the 1940s multiple choice question?

Answers

Proteins were macromolecules with great heterogeneity and functional specificity.

Why were the proteins thought to be in genetic materials?

It was known that proteins had a high degree of variability in their structure, due to the large number of amino acid building blocks they can be made from. This variability was thought to be the key to explaining the diversity of traits seen in organisms.

In the late 1940s and early 1950s, the discovery of the structure of DNA by Watson and Crick, along with the work of other researchers, provided strong evidence that nucleic acids, specifically DNA, were the actual carriers of genetic information.

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what is the name of the blood cell responsible for blood clotting?

Answers

Blood cell responsible for blood clotting is Platelets or thrombocyte.

In general , Platelets are considered as a small or  irregular shaped fragment of cell.  These are manufactured in  bone marrow and are present in the blood. They are actively involved  in the process of hemostasis, which is the body's natural process of stopping bleeding.

Also, when the  blood vessel get damaged, platelets moves at the site of injury and form a plug, that stop the bleeding. It takes the first step in the process of blood clotting, that as result leads to the formation of a stable blood clot and stop further bleeding.

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what are the three different roles of dna polymerase

Answers

DNA polymerase is an enzyme that is essential for DNA replication, or the process of replicating DNA molecules during cell division. The three distinct functions of DNA polymerase are as follows:

Polymerization, Proofreading, Repair

DNA polymerase's principal function is to catalyse the addition of nucleotides to the 3' end of a developing DNA strand. DNA polymerase has a strong affinity for the complementary nucleotide to the template strand, and it adds the nucleotide to the template in a complimentary way.

Proofreading: DNA polymerase undertakes proofreading during polymerization to guarantee that the proper nucleotide is added to the developing DNA strand. If an erroneous nucleotide is introduced, the DNA polymerase may identify the error and delete the faulty nucleotide before the polymerization process can continue.

Repair: By deleting and replacing nucleotides, DNA polymerase may repair damaged DNA. This process is known as nucleotide excision repair, and it is crucial for maintaining the genetic material's integrity. When DNA is damaged, DNA polymerase detects it and removes the damaged nucleotide before replacing it with the proper one.

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which brucella species has positive h2s production and may or may not need co2 for growth?

Answers

The Brucella abortus species produces a lot of H₂S and doesn't necessarily require CO₂ to flourish. Because these are Sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB).

Brucella abortus is a bacteria that belong to the Brucellaceae family. This is a Gram-negative bacterium. It is also a non-motile, oxidase-positive, rod-shaped, catalase-positive bacterium. This bacteriaum is non-capsulated and non-sporulating.

These bacteria produce hydrogen sulfide (H₂S) because they use sulfate as their terminal electron acceptor during the metabolism of organic matter. So these bacteria produce H₂S during amino acid degradation. They also show growth in the absence of carbon dioxide. These bacteria are therefore referred to as Sulfate-reducing bacteria (SRB).

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Can insertion of one nucleotide into a gene lead to a frameshift mutation?

Answers

Answer:

Insertion or deletion of one or more nucleotides during replication can also lead to another type of mutation known as a frameshift mutation. The outcome of a frameshift mutation is a complete alteration of the amino acid sequence of a protein.

Explanation:

what is the frequency range for normal human hearing?

Answers

Answer:

range from about 20 Hz to 20 kHz

Explanation:

Humans have cut and frayed he woven tapestry of Earth’s biodiversity. List three ways.

Answers

Answer: ANSWER OF GIVEN QUESTION

Explanation:

Carriers are defined as individuals who carry the allele for a given trait without showing the phenotype. What must be the genotype of carriers of the red hair allele: homozygous dominant, heterozygous, or homozygous recessive? How many distinct gamete types can carriers produce?

Answers

Carriers are those who "carry the allele for a certain characteristic without showing the phenotype," as the question states.

This implies that heterozygosity is required for all carriers. Since that red hair is a recessive trait, we'll call it the r allele in lowercase. Brown hair is the predominant characteristic, thus we'll refer to the R allele in capital letters.

If a person had brown hair as their dominant trait, they would be homozygous dominant (RR). That isn't a carrier in the sense of the term.A person with red hair would exhibit the recessive phenotype if they were homozygous recessive (rr). Also, they are not a carrier.Hence, the genotype that is heterozygous is left (Rr). The individual would have brown hair, which is the dominant phenotype, but they only have one r-recessive allele.

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In a whitetail deer, females seldom grow antlers . which BEST explains why male whitetail deer grow antlers but females seldom grow antlers?

Answers

Male whitetail deer grow antlers as a secondary sexual characteristic to attract and compete for mates. Females, on the other hand, typically invest more in producing and caring for offspring than in competing for mates, and therefore do not grow antlers.

Antlers are a costly trait to develop, requiring a significant amount of energy and nutrients. Male whitetail deer have evolved to grow larger antlers to signal their strength and fitness to potential mates and competitors, as well as to engage in physical contests with other males. Female whitetail deer, on the other hand, have evolved to prioritize their reproductive efforts towards gestation and nursing, and thus invest more in producing high-quality offspring than in competing for mates.

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the basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibers and adipose cells present. (True or False)

Answers

The statement "the basic difference between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues is in the amount of elastic fibers and adipose cells present." is False.

The arrangement of collagen fibres is the primary distinction between dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues. Collagen fibres in dense irregular connective tissue are arranged irregularly, whereas collagen fibres in dense regular connective tissue are arranged parallel to each other.

The amount of elastic fibres and adipose cells present in both types of connective tissues can vary, but this is not the defining feature that distinguishes dense irregular and dense regular connective tissues.

Connective tissue is a type of tissue that supports and structures other tissues and organs in the body. It is made up of cells and an extracellular matrix made up of different fibres and ground substance.

Dense irregular connective tissue and dense regular connective tissue are two types of connective tissues that differ in how their collagen fibres are arranged.

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The autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system _____. a. are components of the peripheral nervous system. b. relay information about the internal and external environment. c. contain both motor and sensory nerves. d. All of the above

Answers

Based on the given statements on the autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system, the correct option is d. All of the above.

The autonomic nervous system and the somatic nervous system are both parts of the peripheral nervous system, which is the nervous system outside of the brain and spinal cord.

The somatic nervous system is in charge of regulating voluntary movements as well as sensory perception. It is made up of motor neurons, which send signals from the central nervous system to the skeletal muscles, and sensory neurons, which send information from the body to the central nervous system.

The autonomic nervous system, on the other hand, regulates involuntary bodily processes such as heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion. The sympathetic nervous system is in charge of the body's "fight or flight" response, while the parasympathetic nervous system is in charge of the body's "rest and digest" response.

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The main trait that animals have in common with plants and fungi is that they are all multicellular eukaryotes. Which of these traits distinguishes animals from plants and fungi?

Answers

Explanation:

Animals are typically motile main trait that animals have in common with plants and fungi is that they are all multicellular eukaryotes. Which of these traits distinguishes animals from plants and fungi?

Answer in full

Animals are typically motile, whereas plants and fungi are not.

What part of the brain processed input from the retinas of both eyes ?

Answers

Answer:

celebrum

Explanation:

allow good vission

which muscle contracts to bend the arm at the elbow?

Answers

Answer:

the biceps brachii muscle.

Explanation:

The muscle that contracts to bend the arm at the elbow is the biceps brachii muscle. The biceps brachii muscle is a two-headed muscle located in the upper arm, and its primary function is to flex the elbow and supinate the forearm. When the biceps muscle contracts, it pulls on the tendon attached to the forearm, which causes the forearm to move upward towards the shoulder, resulting in a bending motion at the elbow joint. The biceps brachii muscle is commonly referred to as the "biceps" and is responsible for many everyday movements, such as lifting objects, pushing and pulling, and performing other manual tasks.

the lymphatic system is best described as a _______________ system.

Answers

The lymphatic system is best described as a circulatory system.

what is the circulatory system?

The circulatory system, also known as the cardiovascular system, is a complex network of organs, vessels, and cells responsible for circulating blood and other essential substances throughout the body. The primary function of the circulatory system is to deliver oxygen and nutrients to cells and tissues and to remove waste products such as carbon dioxide.

The circulatory system consists of the heart, blood vessels, and blood. The heart is a muscular organ that pumps blood throughout the body. Blood vessels include arteries, veins, and capillaries. Arteries carry oxygenated blood from the heart to the body's tissues, while veins carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. Capillaries are tiny blood vessels that connect arteries and veins, allowing for the exchange of nutrients and waste products between the blood and the body's tissues.

The lymphatic system is as a type of circulatory system, which differs from the cardiovascular system that circulates blood, as the lymphatic system circulates lymph fluid throughout the body.

However, unlike the cardiovascular system, which circulates blood throughout the body, the lymphatic system circulates lymph, a fluid that contains white blood cells, throughout the body. The lymphatic system is important for maintaining fluid balance in the body, as well as for immune function, as it helps to defend against pathogens and other harmful substances.

Therefore, The lymphatic system can be characterized as a type of circulatory system, responsible for circulating lymphatic fluid throughout the body, in contrast to the blood circulation of the cardiovascular system.

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How many total ATP molecules are produced by 1 molecule of glucose completing cellular respiration?
a)2
b) 6
c) 24
d) 36

Answers

1 molecule of glucose completes the process of cellular respiration by producing 36 ATP molecules.

What occurs to the molecules of NADH and FADH2 created during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle?

The Krebs Cycle and glycolysis generate the molecules NADH and FADH2, which are then delivered as electrons to the electron transport chain. A proton gradient is produced by the electron transport chain, which ultimately results in the generation of a significant amount of ATP.

How does the generation of ATP affect the flow of electrons from NADH and FADH2 through the electron transport chain?

During oxidative phosphorylation, O2 and electrons from NADH and FADH2 combine, and the energy generated from these oxidation/reduction events is used to power the production of ATP from ADP.

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What is CH3Cl strongest intermolecular forces? Read the excerpt from Eighty Years and More: Reminiscences, 1815-1897. So, as soon as we were dismissed, I ran down the hill, rushed breathless into [my fathers] office, laid the new Greek Testament, which was my prize, on his table and exclaimed: "There, I got it!" He took up the book, asked me some questions about the class, the teachers, the spectators, and evidently pleased, handed it back to me. Then, while I stood looking and waiting for him to say something which would show that he recognized the equality of the daughter with the son, he kissed me on the forehead and exclaimed, with a sigh, "Ah, you should have been a boy. "Based on this excerpt, what can be stated about Elizabeth Cady Stantons achievements during her childhood? what is sidebar overview? URGENT PLEASE!!Many companies rely on multilayered security systems that have become antiquated. What would you want in computerized security system and what threats would it counter? What is the unique identifier that identifies a specific patient visit known as? when are bills that are introduced in congress most likely to meet their demise? Click on the items that can help resolve an interpersonal conflict.mediatorcommunicationangerdenialcooperationcompromise What are two parts of a logical argument according to Aristotle? how to store chocolate covered strawberries overnight an advantage you should gain as you increase driving experience is that Federal mandates are laws passed by Congress that order state governments to take certain actions, such as improving building access for the handicapped. State officials sometimes object to federal mandates because the mandates often do not provide the ___________the action requires. (time, money) A 65. 0 kg ice skater standing on frictionless ice throws a 0. 15 kg snowball horizontally at a speed of 32. 0 m/s. At what velocity does the skater move backward?. What percentage of a participant's income are group long-term disability benefits amounts typically limited to? how to break a while loop in arduino ide he aws global infrastructure includes regions, availability zones, and edge locations. which best describes the relationship between the infrastructure components? pencils have a range of values from very light to very dark. if you wanted a dark value, which of these pencil numbers would be the darkest? What is the source that produces long-lived hazardous wastes ? What best describes what stream-aligned teams do?- Analyze value streams and transform them using lean-agile principles- Build and deliver customer value with minimal dependencies on other teams- Promote better flow of communications between leadership, trains and teams- Use process-mapping to identify and eliminate process bottlenecks. which complication may occur if the brain tumor obstructs the ventricles? __________ is the measurement of physical characteristics, such as fingerprints, DNA, or retinal patterns, for use of verifying the identity of individuals.