Answer:
Lysine
Leucine
Serine
Glutamine
How to tell the difference between fertilized and unfertilized eggs?
After an egg has been cracked, looking at the yolk will show whether it has been fertilized. With unfertilized eggs, a white dot might be visible, but in fertilized eggs, a concentric circle will be visible.
Without shattering the eggs, how can you distinguish between fertilized and unfertilized ones?If the egg is fertile, you should notice a black area in the center of the egg and some veins that resemble spider webs starting to form around it. If it's not, you should only be able to make out the outline of the egg's yellow yolk.
How can you tell if an egg from a chicken is fertilized?The germinal disc, a little white dot on the yolk surface of all eggs, is present. It is a collection of cells that, if the egg is fertilized, will grow into a chick.
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In the 1960s, mitochondrial dna was discovered with the use of an electron microscope. the presence of mitochondrial dna in eukaryotic cells suggests what about the origin of life on earth?
It's possible that mitochondria were free-living cells (endosymbiotic theory).
What is the proof that mitochondria first appeared in eukaryotes?Mitochondria appear to have evolved only once throughout all of evolution, much like eukaryotes themselves. The mitochondrial DNA is conserved in all known eukaryotic groupings, which provides the strongest support for the idea that mitochondria had a single origin. These genes are definitely homologous and frequently inherited.
What does research on mitochondrial DNA indicate on the ancestry of contemporary Europeans?There was no genetic similarity between the hunter-gatherers and modern Europeans, according to a study of ancient and current mtDNA samples. This finding suggests that modern Europeans are descended from settlers who brought farming to the area, not from the indigenous populations.
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What happens once an item breaks through the surface tension of water?
A.
It sinks.
B.
It floats.
C.
It becomes hot.
D.
It becomes cold.
Question 3 (2 points) How does Sally fail Esperanza in the vignette "Red Clowns"?
A.) Sally tricks Esperanza into riding the tilt-a-whirl when Esperanza does not want to.
B.) When Esperanza calls for Sally to help her, Sally does not come.
C.) Esperanza trusted Sally, but she realizes that Sally and the boys have been making jokes about her behind her back.
D.) Sally promises Esperanza that she is going to start making better choices, but she doesn't actually change at all.
Atrium In the story "Red Buffoons" from the chapter "The Red Clowns," Sally deceives Esperanza. Sally ignores Esperanza's request for assistance when she hears her calling.
Esperanza blames Sally in Red Clowns, but why?Isabel says this in "Red Clowns" after being sexually abused by a bunch of lads at a carnival. Instead of condemning the boys who assaulted Sally and caused her harm and anguish, she reiterates her claim that her buddy lied.
What else does Betty do that Esperanza finds offensive?Esperanza accuses Sally of leaving her defenseless after being attacked by a bunch of boys. She is also upset with Sally for misinforming her about romance and sex. Esperanza put herself in harm's way by admiring and following Sally.
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A set of biology exam scores are normally distributed with a mean of 707070 points and a standard deviation of 666 points. Let x=x=x, equals the score on a randomly selected exam from this set. Find p(x<73)p(x<73)p, left parenthesis, x, is less than, 73, right parenthesis. You may round your answer to two decimal places.
The answer is P(x < 73) = 0.6915
Table Z is a table that contains area values under the normal curve. A data distribution is said to be normal if it resembles a bell shape, where the mean value will be close to the median value. In addition, data with large or small values are relatively few or clustered in the middle.
Here given a mean of 70 points and a standard deviation of 6 points. X represents the exam scores that are randomly selected from this set
Z-score, for randomly selected exam score x:
P(x <73) = P(x-70)/6 < (73-70)/6
P(x <73) = P(2 < 1/2) → find the value table Z
P(x <73) = 0.6915
Correct writing of questions:
A set of biology scores are normally distributed with a mean of 70 points and a standard deviation of 6 points. Let X= equals the score on a randomly selected score from this set.
Find P(X<73)
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How many stomach compartments does a ruminant have?
The rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum are the four sections of a ruminant's stomach. Volatile fatty acids, which are the cow's principal source of energy, are produced by rumen microorganisms after meal is fermented.
Which organ of a ruminant actually serves as its stomach?The four divisions in a ruminant's stomach are the rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum (Van Soest, 1994). In contrast to the abomasum, which is the actual stomach and resembles the non-ruminant stomach in both anatomy and function, the rumen, reticulum, and omasum are where pregastric fermentation and feed breakdown occur.
Are four stomachs present in all ruminants?Two-toed feet and a four-chambered stomach are characteristics of most ruminants. Reduced or occasionally missing are the upper incisors.
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Part E: Estimate Greenhouse Gas Emission
You’ll design your eco-friendly home to reduce the use of carbon dioxide compared to the average home in the state. Estimate greenhouse gas emissions for your house. Use these three government tools to generate the data you need.
First, go to the US Energy Information Administration and click “Average monthly residential electricity consumption, prices, and bills by state.” Find your state and the average kilowatt-hours of electricity used per month in your state. Multiply that number by 12 to get the amount of energy used in one year.
Then visit the EPA's Greenhouse Gas Equivalencies Calculator and enter the kilowatt-hours of energy for one year into the “If You Have Energy Data” box. Select kilowatt-hours of electricity and click Calculate. The kilowatts converted into emissions equivalents (such as miles driven and average household energy). This information will give you a better perspective on the greenhouse gas emissions for the average home in your state.
Finally, click the EPA's Power Profiler and enter the ZIP code. Choose one of the electrical companies listed (any one will work) and press Enter. Scroll down to see how much of the energy in this ZIP code comes from renewable energy and nuclear energy (a nonrenewable, cleaner energy source) compared to fossil fuel sources (oil, coal, and gas). You’ll also see bar graphs that compare your ZIP code’s energy profile to the national average.
Based on the data you gathered, answer the following questions:
What conclusion can you draw about the emissions of greenhouse gases for the average home in your state or ZIP code? What factors do you think contribute to this emission rate?
How do the emissions in your ZIP code compare to greenhouse gas emissions across the nation? Even if it’s better than the national average, is there room for improvement?
The greenhouse gas is harmful for the earth's environment, and this happens when there is a maximum amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere, which is caused by a lot of human usage of fossil fuels for electricity, etc.
What are the negative effects of green house gases?Several gases are released into the atmosphere, and as a result, the atmosphere warms, negatively impacting many living things such as animals and plants. To reduce the negative consequences of this warming, the emission of carbon dioxide should be decreased.
Hence, the greenhouse gas is harmful for the earth's environment, and this happens when there is a maximum amount of carbon dioxide released to the atmosphere, which is caused by a lot of human usage of fossil fuels for electricity, etc.
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Exactly 14. 5 moles of co2 are produced from burning how many moles of ch4 in excess oxygen?.
From the combustion results 14.5 mol of CH₄ in excess oxygen.
The combustion reaction is an example of an exothermic reaction because the heat generated from the combustion process is transferred from the system to the surroundings. In the combustion reaction that occurs in fire is the release of energy to the surroundings (producing heat) which causes the surrounding air (environment) to become hotter.
The balanced reaction shows that for every molecule of CH₄ consumed, one molecule of CO₂ is formed. Exactly 14.5 moles of CH₄ are needed for 14.5 moles of CO₂. Note that for every molecule of CO₂ produced, only 2 molecules of O₂ are needed.
CH₄ + 2O₂ → CO₂ + 2H₂O
You need 14.5 x 2 = 29 moles of O₂.
So, in this question, we get an excess of O2.
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What are 2 other species concepts that can be used to identify species?
Phylogenetic Species Concept (PSC) and Ecological Species Concept (ESC) are the two concepts which is used to identify the species.
Phylogenetic Species are defined as genealogically, independent of mode of reproduction. In this concept a species is a "tip" on phylogeny which is the smallest set of organisms that share an ancestor and can be distinguished from the other such sets.
Ecological Species are termed as the lineages of organisms which is maintained by the selection forces. It is a set of organisms which share environmental niches, with differences between forms in response to the availability of resources and groups being adaptive behaviors.
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what energy carrier compound is found in all living systems
The energy carrier found in all living systems is Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP).
What is Adenosine triphosphate?ATP is the direct source of energy for all metabolic activities in the cell. The energy bound in ATP comes from the energy released in the breakdown of organic compounds in cells, namely in the process of respiration.
ATP is formed from the process of glycolysis that takes place in the mitochondria. Mitochondria are cell organelles that have an internal membrane where glycolysis takes place. Glycolysis is the breakdown reaction of glucose from food into pyruvic acid and ATP. As an energy carrier, ATP is also found in many mitochondria.
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Which type of macromolecule is constructed of long chains of amino acids?
O proteins
O nucleic acids
O lipids
O carbohydrates
Genes turn on or off to regulate the activity of :
a. differentiation
b. RNA
c. mutation
d. multifactorial disorders
Option c is Correct. To control the action of mutation, genes are switched on and off.
Genes can be activated and inactivated by each cell. This procedure, known as gene regulation, is crucial to healthy growth. Genes are switched on and off in various ways during development to give a brain cell, for instance, a different appearance and behavior from a liver cell or a muscle cell.
Cells can respond swiftly to environmental changes thanks to gene regulation. RNA switches, also known as riboswitches, control which genes are activated and deactivated in a manner like to a light switch. Although it might seem like a straightforward operation, biologists have been baffled by the inner workings of these switches for decades.
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What is a known benefit of cardiorespiratory training?
An important indicator of physical health and general wellness is cardiorespiratory fitness. During physical exercise, the heart, lungs, and circulatory system must cooperate to provide oxygen to the muscles.
Fitness for the heart and lungs can enhance one's overall quality of life. Exercise on a regular basis can boost energy levels, making it simpler to do daily chores. Fitness for the heart and lungs is crucial for daily living since it has many positive effects on the body, mind, and spirit.
Cardiorespiratory fitness is a key factor in enhancing physical health. Regular exercise has been shown to lower the risk of Type 2 diabetes, hypertension, cardiovascular disease, and stroke. It can also aid in increasing muscular mass and decreasing body fat. Additionally, consistent exercise can enhance lung health, cardiorespiratory fitness has advantages for the mind and the body in addition to the physical ones. Regular exercise can lessen stress, elevate mood, and sharpen the mind. Exercise can enhance cognitive performance while lowering anxiety and depressive symptoms
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If the P generation are constricted with genotype ss and smooth with genotype SS what texture will the genotype Ss be in the F1 generation?
If the P generation individuals are constricted with genotype ss while smooth individuals have genotype SS then the texture for the genotype Ss in the F1 generation cannot be determined because we need to know the dominance relationships between both alleles, which is achieved by crossing pure lines.
What are dominance relationships in a genetic cross?The dominance relationships in a genetic cross make reference to which allele is dominant in complete dominance cases.
Therefore, with this data, we can see that the dominance relationships in a genetic cross depend on the dominant allele gene variant.
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What 7 traits did Mendel study in peas?
Seven traits that Gregor Mendel studied in peas include:
pea shape (wrinkled or round),pea color (yellow or green),flower color (white or purple),pod shape (inflated or constricted),pod color (yellow or green),position of flowers (terminal or axial), andplant size (dwarf or tall).Gregor Mendel (20 July 1822–6 January 1884) was an Austrian biologist that was widely known for his pea plant experiments. Mendel is often called the father of genetics.
He studied the inheritance of seven different traits in peas, which included height, flower and seed colors, and seed shape. To do so, Mendel first established pea lines with two different forms of a trait, such as yellow vs. green color. For generations, Mendel grew these lines until they were pure-breeding (which meant they always produced offspring identical to the parent), and then he bred them to each other and observed how the traits were inherited.
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HELP FASTT!!!! GIVING BRAINLIEST IF THERES MULTIPLE ANSWERS!!!! What types of living things were prevalent during the Mesozoic Era? Select all that apply.
flowering plants
humans
marsupials
large reptiles
the answer is large reptiles
Explanation:
When the first dinosaurs, marine reptiles, lizards and tortoises appeared mammals appeared during the Triassic but they remianed unsignficant until their competitors tje dinosaurs became extinct at the end od cretaceous they all ruled the land and air
All of the traits listed for the common ancestor are [missing from/shared by] both groups.
All of the traits listed for the common ancestor are shared by both groups.
What are the traits of common ancestor?The traits of a common ancestor refer to the characteristics and features that are shared by two or more groups of organisms that are believed to have descended from a common ancestor. These traits can include physical characteristics, genetic information, and behavioral patterns. Some examples of traits that might be found in a common ancestor include:
A particular type of skeletal or muscular structureA specific type of cell or organelleA unique genetic sequence or regulatory elementA specific type of behavior or adaptation to a certain environmentIt's important to note that the traits of a common ancestor are often inferred from the study of living organisms and their evolutionary relationships, as well as from the fossils records. Therefore, the exact traits of a common ancestor can be difficult to determine and may be subject to change as new information is discovered.
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how are genetically modified organisms used in biotechnology for medicine. please help me!
Answer:
Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are used in biotechnology for medicine to produce therapeutic proteins, such as insulin and growth hormone, and to create genetically modified cells for use in gene therapy. Additionally, GMOs are also used in the production of vaccines.
Answer: How? I shall explain...
Explanation:
So Biotechnology is the mix of natural sciences and engineering sciences in order to achieve applying organisms, cells and organic matter for products and services.
Think about if someones DNA has malfunctioned and the scientists need to change it. They use bio-engineered cells to go in the nucleolus of the cell and edit the DNA. (To the best of my tiny knowledge)
Scientists can't perform molecular sized operations for cells and organisms, so they use bio-engineered cells to do it. (Tell me if I'm wrong)
They can also create situations in contained environments to experiment with modified cells to see the results.
The study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.a. Trueb. False
Genetic is the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics is True.
DNA variations within individuals or communities are referred to as genetic variance. Gene sequence differences between members of a species are referred to as genetic variation. There are many genetic variants that appear in the human population, including differences in skin color, hair color, blood type, and dimples.Genetic variety is the existence of variance in gene sequences between different species' individual organisms. Examples of genetic variants seen in the human population include differences in skin tone, hair color, blood type, and dimples. Because inherited DNA varies from person to person, genetic variety allows for individual variances.
complete question:Genetic is the study of heredity and the variation of inherited characteristics.a. Trueb. False.
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What are two issues biomedical engineers continue to struggle with?
Two issues biomedical engineers continue to struggle with are Coordinating equipment service schedules and getting support from the manufacturer if problems arise.
Government regulatory agencies have strict guidelines on how often and who is qualified to monitor, test, calibrate, and maintain medical devices. These activities should be performed in accordance with the manufacturer's recommendations and state and federal laws. Tracking maintenance requirements for each piece of equipment can be an overwhelming task, especially when biomedical engineers are tasked with maintaining equipment across multiple facilities.
Devices often fail in the worst cases. Some biomedical engineers have the expertise to diagnose and troubleshoot problems in the field, but others are not familiar enough with the equipment to do so effectively. In such cases, the technician should contact the manufacturer for assistance.
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What talents do biomedical engineers need?
The talents that a biomedical engineer requires are creativity, patience, good communication, analytical and problem solving skills.
Biomedical engineering basically involves the application of various principles of engineering and also design concepts in the field of biology and medicine. It focuses on developing more integrated understanding on how different organisms function, improving the quality of human life, developing instruments which help in diagnosis and treatment of diseases etc.
A biomedical engineer must possess certain talents and skills like problem solving, calculative and analytical skills. They should also be creative and have good communication skills with patience and knowledge about how to design products which can help patients in the field of biology and medicine.
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Self Check Questions
1. Who is the “father of capitalism” and why is he given this title?
2. What is Keynesian economics?
3. According to the videos, what were the contrasting views of Keynes and Hayek?
4. Explain Friedman's views of government intervention in the economy. How are his views demonstrated in Jacob Clifford's video using “The Terminator”?
Keynesian Economics is a form of demand-side economics that encourages government action to increase and decrease demand and output.
What is the purpose of keynesian economics?Keynesian economics developed during and after the Great Depression from the ideas presented by Keynes in his 1936 book, The General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money.
Keynesian economics argues that the solution to a recession is expansionary fiscal policy, such as tax cuts to stimulate consumption and investment.
Keynesian economics is a theory that says the government should increase demand to boost growth. Keynesians believe that consumer demand is the primary driving force in an economy.
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Where will nearly all of the further human population growth take place in the world? what is a foreseeable problem with this?
Answer:
Nearly all of this future growth will occur in the 'South'—i.e. Africa, Asia (excluding Japan, Australia and New Zealand), and Latin America—where population size is projected to increase from 5.3 to 7.9 billion between 2005 and 2050
More than half of global population growth between now and 2050 is expected to occur in Africa. Africa has the highest rate of population growth among major areas. The population of sub-Saharan Africa is projected to double by 2050.
Explanation:
Global population growth and the destructive consumption habits of high-wealth countries put pressure on biodiversity and human communities, exacerbating food and water shortages, reducing resilience in the face of climate change, and making it harder for vulnerable groups to rise out of intergenerational poverty.
what would happen to the fox population if the mouse population increases?
They would get more meals.
Sorry if this is incorrect.
If the mouse population increases, the fox population is likely to increase as well since foxes rely on mice as a major food source. This is because with more mice, the foxes will have more food to hunt and will be able to reproduce more successfully.
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Which characteristic of an extinct organism makes it best suited to be used as an index fossil?
a. an organism whose fossils show evolutionary change over time .
b. an organism that was common only in specific types of environments
c. an organism that was commonly fossilized during a specific period of time
d. an organism whose fossils are found in rocks ranging in age from ancient to recent times
Characteristic of an extinct organism makes it best suited to be used as an index fossil is an organism that was commonly fossilized during a specific period of time.
An index fossil is a fossil that is used to help determine the age of rock layers and the relative ages of fossils found in different layers. Index fossils are typically chosen because they have a wide geographical distribution, they lived during a specific time period, and they are easily recognizable. Since the fossilization process is rare and the preservation of fossils is not guaranteed, the best index fossils are those that were commonly fossilized during a specific period of time, as it is more likely that these fossils will be found in rocks of that age, and thus can be used to help date the rock layers.
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what is pepsin secreted in its inactive form
Answer: Specific cells within the gastric lining, known as chief cells, release pepsin in an inactive form, or zymogen form, called pepsinogen. By doing so, the stomach prevents the auto-digestion of protective proteins in the lining of the digestive tract.
21 Steps of Circulation
Blood is pumped into the pulmonary arteries in the lungs from the right ventricle after entering the right atrium from the body for Circulation.
Twenty one steps involved in Circulation:1. Superior/Inferior Vena Cava
2. R Atrium
3. Tricuspid Valve
4. R Ventricle
5. Pulmonary Valve
6. Pulmonary Arteries
7. Pulmonary Arterioles
8. Pulmonary Capillaries
9. Pulmonary Venules
10. Pulmonary Veins
11. L Atrium
12. Mitral Valve
13. L Ventricle
14. Aortic Valve
15. Aorta
16. Systemic Arteries
17. Systemic Arterioles
18. Systemic Capillaries
19. Systemic Venules
20. Systemic Veins
21. Superior/Inferior Vena Cava
After absorbing oxygen, blood returns to the heart through the pulmonary veins, passing through the left atrium, left ventricle, and aorta before leaving the body through the tissues.
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Looking at the weather map, predict what weather would be happening in Nashville over the next couple days
Question 4 options:
Warm air moving from the south will cause several days of warm weather
Clear cold weather for several days
Rainy weather first, followed by clear skies
Rain and snow for several days
By looking at the weather map, a prediction of the weather which would be happening in Nashville over the next couple days include the following: C. Rainy weather first, followed by clear skies.
What is an occluded front?In Geography and Meteorology, an occluded front can be defined as a composite weather front that is specifically formed during cyclogenesis, which eventually causes a cold front to overtake a warm front or form over warm water and thereby, forcing it aloft with respect to surrounding air masses.
Since Nashville is closer to the cold front line as illustrated in the weather map shown in the image attached below, we can reasonably infer and logically deduce that this geographical region would experience a rainy weather first, and then followed by clear skies because the jet stream moves downward.
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The fact that sperm whales can dive to depths of 7,000 feet illustrates that
some sea creatures have adapted to hydrostatic pressure.
there is no food for sperm whales at the surface level of the ocean.
the sperm whale’s prey cannot survive at depths lower than 7,000 feet.
whales have adapted to pressure better than any other creature in the ocean.
The fact that sperm whales can dive to depths of 7,000 feet illustrates that some sea creatures have adapted to hydrostatic pressure. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
What are the characteristics of sperm whales?Sperm whales are mostly dark grey, though some whales have white patches on the belly. They are the only living cetacean that has a single blowhole asymmetrically situated on the left side of the crown of the head.
The heads of sperm whales are extremely large, accounting for about one-third of their total body length. The one common theory is that the fluid that represents the hardens to wax at the time of cold it helps the whale alter its buoyancy due to this it can dive deep and rise again. This is due to the fact known as hydrostatic pressure.
Therefore, the fact that sperm whales can dive to depths of 7,000 feet illustrates that some sea creatures have adapted to hydrostatic pressure. Thus, the correct option for this question is A.
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Which of the following is an example of bias? *
Repeating experiments with the same results.
Conducting a blind experiment.
Selecting results from one trial over those from other trials
Communicating unfavorable results.
Double-blind study occurs when neither the participants nor the researchers involved in a study know who’s been assigned to the control and treatment groups.
What is research detection bias?Detection bias refers to systemic disparities in how outcomes are determined between groups. Blinding (or masking) outcome assessors may lessen the possibility that knowing which intervention was received, rather than the intervention itself, influences outcome assessment.
Blinding (also known as masking) is a technique used to try to reduce such prejudice. To avoid selection bias, it is a principle of randomised controlled trials that the treatment allocation for each patient is not revealed until the patient has definitively entered the experiment. A clinical study in which neither the participants nor the researcher know the treatment or intervention they are getting until the trial is completed. As a result, the study’s findings are less likely to be skewed.
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