Answer and Explanation:
1. False: Photosynthesis allows the production of organic matter from inorganic materials drawn from the extracellular environment.
2. True
3. False: The plant performs photosynthesis to produce glucose (a type of sugar) for energy and oxygen is a byproduct of this process.
4. True
what is genotype of true breeding ?
The genotype of a true-breeding organism refers to the genetic makeup of an individual that consistently produces offspring with the same traits over multiple generations.
True-breeding organisms are homozygous for a particular trait, meaning that they carry two identical alleles for that trait. For example, a true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds would have a genotype of YY, with two dominant alleles for yellow seed color.
In genetics, the term "true breeding" is often used in the context of Mendelian inheritance. This refers to the idea that when two true-breeding individuals with different homozygous genotypes are crossed, the resulting offspring will also be heterozygous for that trait.
For example, when a true-breeding plant with the genotype YY (yellow seed) is crossed with a true-breeding plant with the genotype yy (green seed), the resulting offspring will all be Yy (yellow seed).
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Why is the oxidation of NADPH energetically favorable? None of these answers The reduced form of NADPH is more stable than the oxidized form. The biosynthetic reactions that are coupled to NADPH oxidation are energetically favorable. NADPH is the form of the molecule that can gain two high-energy electrons. The oxidized form, NADP+, is more stable than the reduced form NADPH Oxidation of NADPH breaks a high-energy phosphoanhydride bond.
Option C, "The biosynthetic reactions that are related to NADPH oxidation are energetically beneficial," is the right response.
NADPH oxidation is a beneficial activity from an energetic standpoint because it is associated with a biosynthetic reaction.
Two extremely powerful electrons that originate from the reduced form of NADPH are used to fuel the production of organic molecules such as fatty acids and amino acids. Hence, the oxidation of NADPH results in the production of energy that powers the biosynthetic process.
Because the oxidized form, NADP+, is less stable than the reduced form, NADPH, the dissociation of a high-energy phosphoanhydride bond does not initiate the process
Thus, the oxidation of NADPH is energetically favorable since it is connected to a biosynthetic reaction.
A high energy electron is created when PSII absorbs a photon; this electron then passes through cytochrome b6f and eventually arrives to PSI through an electron transport chain. A second photon is subsequently absorbed by the reduced PSI, producing a more potently reducing electron that converts NADP+ to NADPH. Water serves as the first electron donor in oxygenic photosynthesis, producing oxygen (O2) as a byproduct.
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what organism causes ring of calcification around the heart
The organism which causes ring of calcification around the heart is called Calcific aortic stenosis.
Calcific aortic stenosis is a medical disorder in which the heart's aortic valve becomes partly blocked owing to calcium deposits. The aortic valve is a flap-like device that connects the heart's left ventricle to the aorta, the body's biggest artery. It controls how much oxygen-rich blood flows from the heart to the rest of the body. Calcium deposits on the aortic valve can cause the valve to stiffen and constrict, making blood flow through it more difficult. Symptoms include chest discomfort, shortness of breath, disorientation, and fainting.
Although the specific cause of calcific aortic stenosis is unclear, it is believed to be a mix of variables such as age, genetics, and other medical disorders such as high blood pressure, high cholesterol, and diabetes. The illness is more frequent in elderly persons, and males are more prone than women to get it.
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what does mendel’s law of independent assortment state?
Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment asserts that during gamete production, various gene alleles assort independently of one another.
When crossing two distinct pea plants with two distinct traits, Mendel came up with the Law of Independent Assortment. He crossed plants with yellow, round peas with plants that had wrinkled, green peas. All of the kids had yellow, round peas because wrinkled and green were subordinate to round and yellow.
The emergence of arbitrary chromosomal pairings is known as independent assortment. The Independent Assortment principle is a result of Metaphase I. If independent assortment does not take place, the features of the offspring would be identical to those of the mother or father since the genes are not being randomly combined.
Homologous chromosomes are randomly allocated to daughter cells during cell division during meiosis, whereas distinct chromosomes segregate apart from one another. The term for this is independent assortment.
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When a vibrating sound source causes areas of high and low pressure to radiate outward through the air, we call this a/an _______________________.A. auditory stimulus
B. frontal lobe
C. thalamus
D. amygdala
explain why the resting membrane potential is not equal to the k equilibrium potential.
The resting potential of a membrane is not equal to the K equilibrium potential as the membrane is depolarized and therefore it is going to have a more positive value than the K equilibrium potential.
What basically generates the resting membrane potential is the potassium ions which leak from the inside of a particular cell to the outside through leaky potassium channels and therefore generates a negative charge in the inside as compared to the outside. At rest, the membrane is impermeable to sodium ions and this is because all of the sodium ion channels are closed.
In a normal cell, the permeability of sodium ions is about 5% of the potassium ion permeability whereas the respective equilibrium potentials are +60 mV for sodium ( which is represented as ENa) and −90 mV for potassium (represented as EK). Thus, we can say that the membrane potential will not equal to EK but rather have a more positive value.
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the soma of psuedounipolar neurons is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord. (True or False)
Pseudounipolar neurons' soma is not located in the grey matter of the spinal cord. It is located in the spinal ganglion. So the statement about pseudounipolar neurons is false.
A form of neuron known as a pseudounipolar neuron has just one extension from the cell body. This type of neuron's axons split into two sections. As they grow, they become bipolar neurons. From the cell body, they extend two processes, one of which goes to the peripheral locations and the other to the spinal cord.
The cell body of this neuron gives birth to a single process, which divides into an axon and a dendrite. The thickening present in each dorsal root called the spinal ganglion contains the soma of the pseudounipolar neurons. The given statement is considered false.
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which evolutionary innovation of seed plants enabled them to outcompete ferns and other seedless plants that dominated through the end of the carboniferous period? A.A photosynthetic sporophyte B.reduced, dependent gametophytes C.vascular systems D.flowers
Reduced, dependent gametophytes the end of the carboniferous period.
The correct option is B.
What is an example of a gametophyte?The fern that springs to mind when you thinking of Indiana Jones or a forest floor is a gametophyte. The lovely, fringed leaves is haploid, which means they only have one set of chromosomes, and they produce sex cells during mitosis like other gametophyte plants do.
What is the gametophyte's structure?The gametophyte stage of life is the predominant one among bryophytes. The male and female gametes are produced by the gametophyte's antheridia and archegonia, etc. Gametangia are all of these elements put together.
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True or False: capillary bulk flow is so efficient that less than 1% of the water filtered into the tissues at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end of the capillary bed.
The given statement "capillary bulk flow is so efficient that less than 1% of the water filtered into the tissues at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end of the capillary bed" is false because Capillary bulk flow is the movement of fluid between the blood and the interstitial space due to a pressure gradient.
It is an important process for maintaining proper fluid balance in the body. However, not all of the fluid that is filtered out of the blood at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end. Some of the excess fluid is reabsorbed into the lymphatic vessels, which return it to the bloodstream.
The amount of fluid reabsorbed depends on a variety of factors, including the pressure gradients, the permeability of the capillary walls, and the presence of lymphatic vessels. In general, the efficiency of capillary bulk flow varies depending on the tissues and organs involved, and less than 1% reabsorption is not a universal phenomenon.
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akin to urban legends, there are curious genetics legends - things like eye color being determined by one gene, with a brown eye allele being completely dominant to blue. the problem comes when simple myth meets the complex reality of how eye color and many other traits are transmitted. why is the inheritance of so many traits difficult to explain using only mendel's view of genetics? view available hint(s)for part a akin to urban legends, there are curious genetics legends - things like eye color being determined by one gene, with a brown eye allele being completely dominant to blue. the problem comes when simple myth meets the complex reality of how eye color and many other traits are transmitted. why is the inheritance of so many traits difficult to explain using only mendel's view of genetics? failures in the predictive power of mendel's ideas about inheritance are artifacts that reflect our incomplete understanding of the organisms under study. mendel worked with peas, not humans, and the genetic principles that operate in a simple organism such as a pea plant cannot be applied to an organism as complex as a human. mendel was correct for the traits he investigated, but his principles must be extended (not discarded) to explain many more complex patterns of inheritance. mendel's laws of segregation and independent assortment apply only in a limited set of cases in sexually reproducing organisms.
Mendel was correct for the traits he investigated , while his principles must be extended to explain many more complex patterns of inheritance .
What is Mendel's Law of Inheritance ?The procedure by which a child inherits genetic information from a parent is known as inheritance.
Dominance Law : The first law of inheritance is often known as Mendel's law. Only the dominant trait in the phenotypic will be passed down to hybrid offspring, in accordance with the law of dominance.
The Segregationist Legislation : According to the law of segregation, two copies of each hereditary factor segregate during gamete development so that offspring inherit one element from each parent.
Law of Independent Assortment : The law of independent assortment states that a pair of traits segregates independently of another pair during gamete formation.
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when a sperm and an ovum fuse, a one-celled __________ is formed.
When a sperm and an ovum fuse, a one-celled Zyogte is formed. zygote, the fertilised egg cell produced when a female gamete (egg, or ovum) and a male gamete combine (sperm).
The zygote stage is brief and is followed by cleavage, when the single cell divides into smaller cells, in the embryonic development of humans and other animals. The zygote is the embryonic stage at which a genetically distinct organism emerges. The zygote is diploid because it contains genes from both parents (carrying two sets of chromosomes).
All organisms, with the exception of bacteria, reproduce sexually, and a common characteristic of this process is the combining of haploid gametes to create a diploid zygote.
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describe the experiments by griffith, avery, mcarty, and mcleod that determined the role for dna as the genetic material.
The experiment by Griffith, Avery, McCarty, and McLeod confirmed the role of DNA as genetic material and laid the foundation for future work on the structure and function of DNA.
What is the Griffith experiment?In the 1920s and 1930s, several scientists including Frederick Griffith, Oswald Avery, Colin McLeod, and Maclyn McCarty conducted experiments that ultimately led to the conclusion that DNA is the genetic material responsible for heredity.
Griffith's experiment involved two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria: a virulent strain that caused pneumonia and a non-virulent strain that did not. Griffith found that when he injected mice with heat-killed virulent bacteria, the mice survived, but when he injected a mixture of heat-killed virulent bacteria and live non-virulent bacteria, the mice died. He concluded that some factors from the virulent strain had transformed the non-virulent strain into a virulent one.
In 1944, Avery, McLeod, and McCarty built on Griffith's experiment by using enzymes to break down the different components of the virulent strain of bacteria to see which one was responsible for the transformation. They found that when they destroyed the DNA in the virulent strain, the non-virulent bacteria were not transformed, but when they destroyed the protein or lipid components, transformation still occurred. They concluded that DNA was the transforming principle, the genetic material responsible for heredity.
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Which is the most ancient Arthropod lineage still in existence?a. Myriapodab. Cnidaria c. Brachiopoda d. Crustacea
The oldest Arthropod lineage still existing is the Crustacea. The correct answer is option(d).
Arthropods are ineffectual mammals with an exoskeleton, a separate material, and paired slay and prepare animals for meat limbs. Arthropods form the phylum Arthropoda. They are distinguished by their slay and prepare an animal for meat appendages and cuticles made of chitin, frequently mineralized accompanying calcium carbonate.
Crustaceans form a large, various bug taxon which contains aforementioned animals as decapods, source insignificant, branchiopods, fish rats, krill, remipedes, isopods, barnacles, copepods, amphipods and mantis insignificant. The crustacean group may be considered a subphylum under the clade Mandibulata.
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which of the following processes consumes carbon A. decomposition B. Combustion C. weathering D. Photosynthesis (HELP FOR MY MID TERMS)
Answer:
Photosynthesis
Explanation:
Of the given processes, the process that consumes carbon is D. Photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (a type of sugar) and oxygen. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere and used to build the glucose molecule, which is stored in the plant or used as energy. This means that photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and fixes it in the form of organic molecules in the plant.
In contrast, the other processes listed either release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere or do not involve carbon at all:
A. Decomposition - the process of breaking down organic matter into simpler components. Decomposition can release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere as a byproduct.
B. Combustion - the process of burning a substance, usually for energy. Combustion releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere as a byproduct.
C. Weathering - the process of breaking down rocks and minerals into smaller pieces. Weathering does not directly involve carbon.
A pleural fluid specimen is received in the laboratory for aerobic culture. The specimen measures about 0.5 mL. How should the tech process this specimen for culture?
A. Use a sterile pipette and add a drop of fluid per agar plate
B. Insert a swab into the specimen container and inoculate all agar plates
C. Add 0.5 mL of saline to the 0.5 mL of fluid, vortex, and inoculate plates
D. Reject the specimen due to insufficient quantity for culture
Using a sterile pipette to add a drop of fluid per agar plate, is the appropriate way to process this pleural fluid specimen for aerobic culture. Here option A is the correct answer.
This method, known as the "drop plate" technique, is commonly used when the volume of the specimen is limited. To perform the drop plate technique, a sterile pipette is used to transfer a small amount of the specimen (in this case, a drop) onto the surface of an agar plate.
The plate is then gently tilted in all directions to spread the fluid over the surface of the agar. This process is repeated for each agar plate that will be used for culture. This method allows for the efficient use of limited volumes of specimens while ensuring that the culture plates are adequately inoculated with microorganisms that may be present in the sample.
Options B and C are not appropriate for processing a pleural fluid specimen for aerobic culture. Inserting a swab into the specimen container (Option B) can cause contamination and may not provide adequate inoculation of the agar plates. Adding saline to the specimen (Option C) can dilute the sample and make it more difficult to detect the presence of microorganisms.
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for the activated carriers widely used in metabolism nadh, nadph, fadh2. what is the the group with high-energy linkage? hydrogen and electrons phosphate carboxyl group methyl group glucose acetyl group
The group with high-energy linkage in the activated carriers NADH, NADPH, and FADH2 is hydrogen and electrons. (option 1)
NADH, NADPH, and FADH2 are activated carriers that play important roles in metabolism, particularly in cellular respiration and photosynthesis. These molecules are involved in the transfer of electrons and hydrogen ions, which are used to produce ATP, the primary energy currency of the cell. The hydrogen and electrons in these activated carriers are held in a high-energy state due to their ability to participate in redox reactions, which involve the transfer of electrons from one molecule to another.
This high-energy linkage is important because it allows the activated carriers to transfer energy-rich molecules between metabolic pathways, enabling the cell to efficiently use and store energy. Understanding the function and properties of activated carriers is essential in the study of biochemistry and cellular metabolism.
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Complete Question:
for the activated carriers widely used in metabolism nadh, nadph, fadh2. what is the the group with high-energy linkage?
hydrogen and electrons phosphate carboxyl group methyl group glucose acetyl groupSoil that remains above its parent rock:
A. Soil
B. Transported soil
C. Residual soil
D. Parent soil
E. Bedrock
What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme?
Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme's substrate.
Competitive inhibitors have unique sugars that are attracted to the enzyme.
Competitive inhibitors form unique covalent bonds with enzyme structures.
Competitive inhibitors cover the entire surface of an enzyme.
Option A: Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme's substrate, this is what enables them to bind to a specific enzyme.
A substrate is stopped when an inhibitor molecule binds to the active site of an enzyme and competes with it for the enzyme's attention. when an inhibitor that competes with the enzyme for the enzyme's active site is present and mimics the substrate while binding to the enzyme but not producing any products. In other terms, the presence of a competitive inhibitor causes a decrease in enzyme activity.
The binding of an inhibitor prevents the binding of the substrate, or target molecule, of the enzyme in the situation of competitive inhibition of enzyme catalysis. To do this, the binding site's active location on the substrate is somehow prevented.
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what is average length of newborn?
Although the typical range is 46 cm (18 in.) to 56 cm, the average length of full-term newborns at delivery is 20 in. (51 cm) (22 in.). Typically, newborns grow 4 to 5 cm (1.5 to 2 in) in their first month (2 in.).
In comparison to any other time, the first four months following birth are when your baby's head will develop at its quickest rate. The majority of healthy, full-term infants weigh between 5 pounds and 8 pounds and ounces (2.6 to 3.8 kg).
At full term, a birth weight of less than 5 pounds, 8 ounces (2.5 kilograms) is considered low, whereas one of more than 8 pounds, 13 ounces is considered higher than typical (4.0 kg). A newborn's birth weight is influenced by a variety of factors.
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Which two of the following has developmental social neuroscience linked to mother-infant attachment?
A. estrogen
B. testosterone
C.oxytocin
D. cortisol
E. dopamine
A. estrogen and C.oxytocin. Two developmental social neuroscience linked to mother-infant attachment. It seems that oxytocin and estrogen plays a crucial role in forging a strong link between parents and children.
Interactions that babies encounter during their early care. This has contributed to the understanding of the idea that parent-infant contact is essential for creating affiliative ties. Oxytocin is a hormone that newborns release when they sense security. This functions as brain fertiliser for them, making them happier newborns and more self-assured kids and adults. Oxytocin, a hormone that promotes calmness and happiness, is also released when you hold, smile, and converse with your infant.
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Which of these are found at a replication fork? Please select all that apply
DNA polymerase
DNA helicase
Double-stranded DNASingle-stranded DNA
Option b and c are the correct. DNA helicases unwind double-stranded DNA before polymerases do in order to create a replication fork with two single-stranded templates.
A single DNA double helix can be copied by replication processes into two DNA helices, which are then split into daughter cells during mitosis. A replication bubble is created when the circular bacteria chromosome's double-stranded DNA is opened at the point of replication. A replication fork, a Y-shaped junction where double-stranded DNA is split into two single strands, is present at each end of the bubble. Several other proteins, in addition to polymerases and primase, function at the replication fork.
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Which of these are found at a replication fork? Please select all that apply.
a. DNA polymerase
b. two single-stranded templates.
c. Double-stranded DNA
d. Single-stranded DNA
What is the name for the classification system that uses two names? answer choices. A. taxonomy levels. B. classification studies.C. Binomial NamingD. specific species
Linnaeus made the arrangement of "binomial nomenclature," which involves just two assignments variety and explicit designation as the species name. The correct answer is (C).
The binomial naming framework is the framework used to name species. Every species is provided a name that comprises two sections. The initial segment is the Variety to which the species has a place and the subsequent part is the species' name.
The ordered characterization framework (likewise called the Linnaean framework after its innovator, Carl Linnaeus, a Swedish botanist, zoologist, and doctor) utilizes various leveled models. Moving from the starting place, the gatherings become more unambiguous, until one branch closes as a solitary animal category.
Carolus Linnaeus, who is generally viewed as the organizer behind present-day scientific categorization and whose books are viewed as the start of current natural and zoological classification, drew up rules for doling out names to plants and creatures and was quick to utilize binomial terminology reliably (1758).
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List the conclusions that Griffith and Avery drew from their experiments.Griffith: Genetic info. could be transferred from one bacterial strain to another.Avery: Nucleic acid DNA stores and transmits genetic info. from one generation to the next.
Griffith reasoned that transforming factor must have been a gene since the bacteria's progeny carried the power to cause disease. Later, it was discovered that DNA was the "gene" in charge of the metamorphosis.
What is the purpose of DNA?Information is stored in DNA. It contains data necessary to produce proteins, which are other big molecules. The 46 lengthy structures known as chromosomes that make up each of the cells house these instructions. Many thousands of smaller DNA pieces, known as genes, make up these chromosomes.
Who or what named it DNA?Deoxyribonucleic acid is the term used to describe DNA because of its structure. With bases like adenine, cytosine, guanine, & thymine making up the phosphate backbone of the nucleic acid, pentose sugar is present in the deoxyribose part. Deoxyribose does not have a -OH group in position 2 of the sugar ring.
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what technique uses multiple x-ray exposures of the brain from different angles? A. CT Scan B. MRI
Option A is correct. The cross-sectional imaging is created by CT scan (computerised tomography) using several x-rays obtained at various angles.
Magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, makes use of both magnetic fields and radio frequencies.When compared to ordinary head X-rays, brain CT scans can offer more precise details about the brain's tissue and structural makeup, offering additional information about any injuries or disorders to the brain. A brain CT provides numerous views of the brain since the X-ray beam moves in a circle around the body. A more accurate, cross-sectional image of your body can be created using the imaging method known as computed tomography (CT), which combines X-rays and computer technology.
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In a short paragraph (5 or more sentences) explain a few reasons why deforestation occurs.
What are the proteins embedded in the cell membrane and what is their function?
Proteins embedded in the cell membrane are known as integral membrane proteins. They are essential components of the cell membrane and play a variety of important functions,
Transport: Some integral membrane proteins act as channels, pumps, or carriers, allowing molecules to move across the membrane.
Receptors: Some integral membrane proteins serve as receptors for signaling molecules, allowing cells to communicate with each other.
Enzymes: Some integral membrane proteins are enzymes that catalyze chemical reactions on the inside or outside of the cell.
Structural support: Some integral membrane proteins provide structural support to the cell membrane, helping to maintain its shape and stability.
Cell adhesion: Some integral membrane proteins are involved in cell-to-cell adhesion, allowing cells to stick together and form tissues.
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Why a virus can only infect specific cells and organisms?
Only specific species of hosts and subsets of those hosts' cells are susceptible to virus infection. The virus can only bind to the host cell surface if a certain surface molecule known as the viral receptor.
Viruses can be thought of as obligate intracellular parasites. In order to infect other cells and ultimately other people, the virus needs to adhere to a living cell, enter the cell, make its proteins and replicate its genome, and then find a means to leave the cell. Only specific species of hosts and subsets of those hosts' cells are susceptible to virus infection. The virus must be producing the materials it requires in the cell, such as the enzymes for which the virus genome lacks the necessary genes.
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what is three components of blood?
Explanation:
plasma
red blood cells
platelets
what percentage of the blood is composed of plasma?
The percentage of the blood that is composed of plasma is 55%.
What is plasma?Blood is a vital liquid flowing in the bodies of many types of animals that usually conveys nutrients and oxygen.
The blood is made up of the following components;
PlasmaRed blood cellWhite blood cellPlateletsPlasma of the blood is a clear component of blood or lymph containing fibrin. Plasma contains about 90 percent water, with 10 percent being made up of ions, proteins, dissolved gases, nutrient.
Blood is made up of plasma and solid components. Of these, the larger part is plasma, comprising about 55%.
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what physical mechanism is produced by a cold
The physical mechanism produced by a cold is a viral infection that triggers an immune response and inflammation in the respiratory tract.
A cold, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. It is caused by a variety of viruses, including rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. When a person contracts a cold virus, the virus attaches to and enters the cells lining the nose and throat. The virus then hijacks these cells' machinery to replicate itself, causing the infected cells to burst and release more virus particles into the body. As the body's immune system tries to fight off the infection, it produces inflammation in the respiratory tract, which can cause symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, cough, sore throat, and sneezing. These symptoms are the body's of trying to expel the virus and its debris from the respiratory tract. In summary, the physical mechanism produced by a cold is a viral infection that triggers an immune response and inflammation in the respiratory tract, leading to a range of symptoms that help the body fight off the infection.
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