how can teens reduce their risk of obesity, cardiovascular disease, and type 2 diabetes?

Answers

Answer 1

The teens can reduce the risk of obesity, cardiovascular disease, and type 2 diabetes by doing exercise and eating good food.

The diseases associated with bad health are cardiovascular disease, diabetes they are also called lifestyle diseases as changes in lifestyle can make them go away or reduce the chances of getting one. The best ways to avoid these lifestyle diseases include

Exercise: doing exercise regularly reduces the risk of these as body remain in healthy state with immune system lowering in pro-inflammatory nature majorly responsible for these conditions.

Diet: Major contributor of these diseases is diet. Eating healthy food, lowering sugars and fats, eating more vegetables, reducing red meat consumption can help to control these diseases.

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Related Questions

a primigravida has just delivered at term, and the nurse is palpating the fundus. where should the nurse expect to find the patient’s fundus?

Answers

After delivering a baby at term, the nurse would expect to find the fundus (the top of the uterus) in the midline of the abdomen, approximately halfway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus (belly button).

In the immediate postpartum period, the fundus will typically be located at or just below the level of the umbilicus, and it should feel firm and well-contracted. As the uterus continues to involute (shrink back down to its pre-pregnancy size), the fundus will gradually descend and become smaller and more difficult to palpate over time.

It's important for the nurse to monitor the position and tone of the fundus regularly after delivery to assess for any signs of uterine atony or postpartum hemorrhage.

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lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a _____ who primarily prescribes medications.

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Lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a psychiatrist who primarily prescribes medications.

Who is a psychiatrist?

An M.D. or D.O. who focuses on mental health, particularly substance use issues, is known as a psychiatrist.

Psychiatrists are trained to evaluate psychiatric issues on both the mental and physical levels. Many reasons lead people to seek out psychiatric assistance.

A psychiatrist is a medical professional who focuses on identifying and treating disorders of the mind. A psychologist and some other mental health specialists can identify anxiety and offer therapy (psychotherapy).

Thus, Lee is a psychopharmacologist, a type of psychiatrist that mostly writes prescriptions for drugs.

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FILL IN THE BLANK. dr. gomez wants to see how children usually interact on the playground. she should probably use a(n) _______

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Dr. Gomez is interested in how kids typically interaction playgrounds. Empiricism is likely something she should employ.

Which of the following is an illustration of a naturalistic observation?

Example: You observe student conduct in a classroom without take part in the events yourself. Your participants are aware that you are watching them. Significantly, none of these occur in experimental lab settings; rather, they all occur in naturalistic contexts.

What must be carried out in order for a research study to be considered an authentic experiment?

True experiments must include manipulation, controls, random assignment or random selection. The most important aspects are the manipulation and control of these elements. Simply put, to control any aspect of the environment is to purposefully alter it.

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the recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receive the first dose of the ________ vaccine at birth.

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The recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receives the first dose of the HepB vaccine at birth.

The hepatitis B vaccine preferable is if the first dose is given within 12–24 hours of birth, but kids not immunized previously can get it at any age. Some low birth weight infants will get it at 1 month or when they're discharged from the hospital. After the first dose, the second dose should be given within 1 to 2 months.

A child’s influenza vaccination history before the 2010–11 influenza season is irrelevant to determining the number of influenza vaccine doses needed for a child aged 6 months through 8 years. Ignore any influenza vaccine (including monovalent) received before the 2010–11 season.

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how soon should you be evaluated if you have a blood borne pathogen response?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation: Within hours of the exposure, ideally within 1-2 hours if possible.

a client is being admitted from the emergency room reporting shortness of breath, wheezing, and coughing. what would the nurse formulate as an appropriate nursing diagnosis?

Answers

A nurse assigns a room to a patient admitted with Hepatitis-A. CHF (congestive heart failure) diagnosis would be an appropriate roommate for this patient.

What is CHF and it symptoms and causes?

CHF (congestive heart failure) occurs when the heart muscle cannot pump enough blood. When this happens, it often causes blood to pool and fluid to build up in the lungs, which can cause SOB (shortness of breath).

Early signs of CHF: Excess water in body tissues such as ankles, feet, legs and abdomen. coughing or wheezing. Difficulty breathing. Weight gain not attributable to anything else.

Therefore, A nurse assigns a room to a patient admitted with Hepatitis-A. CHF (congestive heart failure) diagnosis would be an appropriate roommate for this patient.

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which medication would most likely cause the client’s eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects? ketorolac ofloxacin diclofenac vidarabine

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The medication that would most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects is Ofloxacin.

Ofloxacin is an antibiotic that belongs to the class of drugs known as fluoroquinolones, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It is administered topically, often as eye drops, to treat eye infections such as conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, and bacterial infections of the eyelid.One of the most common side effects of ofloxacin eye drops is eye irritation, which can include itching and burning of the eyelids and eyes.

Other side effects of ofloxacin eye drops may include redness, tearing, blurred vision, or sensitivity to light. If these symptoms persist or worsen, patients should contact their healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.

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Answer:

vidarabine

Explanation: vidarabine is an antiviral agent that causes sensitive reactions such as itching eyelids and burning eyes.

Which one of the following goals is not a purpose of clinical protocols?Select one:a. Advance the knowledge base of nursingb. Promote consistency of carec. Set forth standards of cared. Support the clinical decision making of nurses

Answers

(Option A)  Advance the knowledge base of nursing is not a purpose of clinical protocols.

What are clinical protocols?

Clinical protocols are standardized, evidence-based procedures or guidelines that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various medical conditions. They are developed by healthcare organizations or professional associations and are designed to promote consistent and high-quality care.

Clinical protocols are designed to promote consistency of care, set forth standards of care, and support the clinical decision-making of healthcare professionals. They are typically evidence-based guidelines or procedures that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various conditions.

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The physician orders NPH U100 insulin 16 units SC every AM for a client. The nurse prepares the insulin dose. To ensure safety, what does the nurse do?
- Give the insulin to the client.
- Bring the vial.
- Ask another nurse to double-check the measurement.
- Encourage the client to administer the insulin.

Answers

To ensure safety, Ask another nurse to double-check the measurement. Option C is correct.

Dosages must be precisely measured. Request that a colleague double-check insulin and heparin measurements, odd amounts (big or tiny), and any medications to be administered intravenously. Insulin is a peptide hormone generated by pancreatic islet beta cells and encoded by the INS gene in humans. It is regarded to be the major anabolic hormone in the body.

Insulin is a hormone produced in the pancreas by beta cells. The pancreas is located underneath and behind the stomach. Insulin is required for the transport of blood sugar (glucose) into cells. Glucose is stored inside cells and utilized for energy later.

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The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?
a.Administering refrigerated drops
b.Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops
c.Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops
d.Inserting earplugs after administering the drops

Answers

The procedure that would assist drug penetration into the ear canal when administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa is option B: inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then aiding the drops.

What is acute bacterial otitis externa?

Acute bacterial otitis externa (ABOE) is an outer ear canal infection caused by bacteria. It is commonly referred to as "swimmer's ear" because it often occurs in people who spend a lot of time in the water.

What are the causes and treatment of acute bacterial otitis externa?

Common causes of ABOE include excessive moisture in the ear canal, irritation from objects in the ear, and damage to the ear canal from cotton swabs or other objects. Treatment typically involves using antibiotic ear drops and measures to prevent further irritation or damage to the ear canal.

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the report of an older adult client’s ophthalmologic examination states variability with the amsler grid. which activity will the nurse consider as being unsafe for this client?

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If an older adult client has variability with the Amsler grid, it means that the client is experiencing visual impairment, which can affect their ability to carry out activities that require good vision.

The nurse will consider any activity that can put the client at risk due to their visual impairment as being unsafe. For example, driving, using sharp objects, or operating heavy machinery may be considered unsafe for this client. Additionally, the nurse may also consider activities that require good vision and balance, such as climbing stairs or walking on uneven surfaces, as potentially unsafe for the client. The nurse will need to assess the client's level of impairment and work with them to identify strategies to manage their visual impairment and reduce the risk of injury.

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The nurse is teaching a group of young women about screening for chlamydia. Which client statement demonstrates that nursing teaching has been effective?a) "If I am a 40-year-old woman with a 'new' partner, I need to be screened again."b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."c) "At age 30, I need yearly testing, even if I have been monogamous for several years."d)"My partner got tested and treated for an STI so I don't need to be tested.

Answers

The correct answer is b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."

This statement demonstrates that the nursing teaching has been effective. Chlamydia is a common sexually transmitted infection (STI) that can lead to serious health problems if left untreated. Screening for chlamydia is recommended for sexually active women under the age of 25, as they are at higher risk of infection. The recommended frequency of screening may vary depending on factors such as age, sexual activity, and number of partners. The statement that a sexually active 19-year-old needs to be screened every two years indicates an understanding of the importance of regular screening.

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Which form of elder maltreatment is the most common?
A. Financial exploitation
B. Psychological (emotional) abuse
C. Caregiver neglect
D. Physical abuse

Answers

The most common form of elder maltreatment is caregiver neglect.

What is maltreatment?

Maltreatment is a general term used to describe abusive or neglectful behavior toward another person, especially a child or vulnerable adult. Maltreatment can take many forms, including physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Physical abuse involves the use of physical force that causes injury, pain, or impairment. Sexual abuse involves any form of sexual activity without consent or with someone who is unable to consent. Emotional or psychological abuse involves actions that cause emotional or mental anguish, such as constant criticism, insults, or threats. Neglect is the failure to provide basic needs such as food, shelter, or medical care. Financial exploitation involves the unauthorized or improper use of an individual's funds, assets, or property. Maltreatment can have long-lasting negative effects on the victim, including physical injuries, emotional trauma, social and developmental delays, and financial harm. It is important to recognize the signs of maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities to protect the safety and well-being of the victim.

Here,

Elder neglect is the failure of a caregiver to provide basic necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or medical care to an older person. It can also involve the failure to provide emotional support and social engagement.

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During an assessment, the nurse reviews a pregnant client's medical record and sees that her prepregnant weight was 60 kg. The patient's height is 1.6 m. What should be the maximum weight of the patient by the end of the third trimester?

Answers

The pregnant client's medical file is reviewed by the nurse during an evaluation, and she notices that her pre-pregnancy weight was 60 kg. The patient is 1.6 meters tall. As a result, the client's overall weight should be 76 kg at that end of pregnancy.

How to find the pregnant client's weight?

Keep track of your weight growth throughout your pregnancy and compare it to the suggested ranges for a healthy amount of weight gain.

Weighing yourself every week should ideally be done on a single day and at the same time, without shoes, while wearing loose-fitting clothing.

The client was 1.6 m tall and 60 kg before becoming pregnant.As a result, the client's BMI is (60/1.62 kg/m2) = 23.43 kg/m2.This suggests that the patient's body mass index is within normal bounds.When pregnant, a woman with the a normal body mass index should put on between 11.3 and 15.9 kg.Hence, the client's maximum weight gain would indeed be 60 + 15.9 = 75.9 kg.

As a result, the client's overall weight should be 76 kg at that end of pregnancy.

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The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing what?
A. Measuring the patient's apical pulse before and after crying
B. Assessing the patient's apical pulse 30 minutes after crying
C. Measuring the patient's pulse deficit after crying
D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate

Answers

The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate.

You can check your pulse by simply putting someone's fingers over just a large artery near your skin. One of the eight common blood vessel pulse sites is the apical pulse. It's located in the left chest region, just below your nipple.

A stethoscope is used to listen for the apical pulse over the chest, where the mitral valve of the heart is most easily heard. The apical pulse is sited at the fourth sacral region at the left middle of the chest in young children and babies.

It is also recommended to assess the apical pulse in newborns and children under the age of five because radial transients are difficult to pinch and count in this age group. Apical pulses are typically measured in children under the age of five.

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What interventions should the nurse implement in caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) following a head injury? Select all that apply.

Answers

Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a rare condition that results from inadequate secretion or action of the hormone vasopressin, which regulates the body's fluid balance. A head injury can cause DI by damaging the pituitary gland, which produces vasopressin.

In caring for a client with DI following a head injury, the nurse should implement the following interventions:

Monitor the client's fluid intake and output closely, including urine output and serum electrolyte levels.

Administer medications as prescribed, such as desmopressin acetate to replace the missing vasopressin hormone.

Encourage the client to maintain adequate fluid and electrolyte balance, including consuming foods and fluids with high electrolyte content.

Educate the client and family on the importance of consistent medication adherence and regular follow-up with the healthcare provider.

Monitor the client for signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, such as dry mucous membranes, rapid heart rate, and low blood pressure.

By implementing these interventions, the nurse can help manage the client's symptoms and prevent complications associated with DI, such as dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

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A client with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of an infection. The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of which finding?

Answers

The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of Fistula formation with an abscess.

What is Crohn's disease ?

It is still unclear what exactly causes Crohn's disease. Diet and stress were once thought to be contributing factors to Crohn's disease, but today's medical professionals understand that these things only serve to exacerbate the condition.

Crohn's disease is a severe condition. Although there is presently no cure, there are medications that can effectively control the illness. You may experience flare-ups and remissions, like many other people with chronic conditions. See your doctor if you notice any changes in your symptoms or any new ones.

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which laboratory result would verify the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?

Answers

The Correct answer is D. CSF WBC count of 500/µL

An infection of the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord is known as bacterial meningitis (meninges).It is a serious condition that can be fatal if not treated promptly.

What is Bacterial Meningitis?

Bacterial meningitis is an infection of the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord (meninges), usually caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause damage to the brain and spinal cord and can even be fatal if not treated promptly. Common symptoms include fever, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, confusion, seizures, and drowsiness or lethargy. Diagnosis is made by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment involves antibiotics as well as supportive care.

The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis can be confirmed by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The laboratory results should show a high white blood cell (WBC) count (greater than 500 cells per microliter [/µL]), low glucose levels (<40 mg/dL), and high protein levels (>200 mg/dL). A low WBC count (<5,000/µL) on peripheral blood testing does not confirm a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.

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The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
a. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles
b. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition
c. Gastrointestinal system (GI) and lower extremity muscles
d. Respiratory system and facial muscles

Answers

Fatigue and muscular weakening of the respiratory system, face muscles, and extremities are symptoms of myasthenia gravis. The Brain, Gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems are unaffected by it.

Which symptoms should a patient with myasthenia gravis present with?

For more than 75% of patients, droopy eyelids or double vision is the most typical MG symptom at first presentation. Swallowing problems, slurred or nasal speech, chewing problems, and weakness in the face, neck, and extremities develop.

What is myasthenia gravis affecting?

Muscle weakness is a common long-term symptom of myasthenia gravis. The muscles that regulate the eyes and eyelids, facial emotions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking are the ones most frequently affected. Nonetheless, it can impact the majority of bodily parts.

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A 70 kg (154.3 lb) patient has been on mechanical ventilation for two days. Which indicates readiness to wean?

Answers

Successful ventilator weaning is predicted by an RR of 30 breaths/min and a spontaneous rapid-shallow breathing index (RSBI) of 105 (respiratory rate divided by the spontaneous Vt in liters).

What is meant by mechanical ventilation?

When you are unable to breathe on your own, mechanical ventilation is a sort of therapy that assists you or takes over for you. During surgery or if your lungs aren't functioning properly, you can be on a ventilator.The employment of a machine to aid with breathing is known as mechanical ventilation. When a patient has a condition that results in either high carbon dioxide levels or low oxygen levels (such as pneumonia), mechanical ventilators are routinely employed (such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease).

What are the disadvantages of mechanical ventilation?

It might not make financial sense to backup mechanical ventilation for a crucial facility. A mechanical ventilation system frequently experiences equipment failure or utility service interruptions. Both healthy and diseased lungs may be damaged by mechanical ventilation, but the latter's damage will be far more severe because of increased microscale tensions. The terms ventilator-associated lung injury (VALI) and ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI) have been used interchangeably (VALI).

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The nurse is reviewing the medication list for an assigned client. Which medication is the only one on the client's prescription sheet that does not have an ototoxic effect?
1. furosemide
2. acetaminophen
3. acetylsalicylic acid
4.vancomycin hydrochloride

Answers

Acetaminophen is the only one on the client's prescription sheet that does not have ototoxic effects. So, the correct option is B.

What are Ototoxicity?

Ototoxicity is defined as when a person develops hearing or balance problems caused by a drug that can occur when a person is on high doses of a drug which is used to treat cancer, infection, or other diseases. When doctors catch ototoxicity early, they can prevent it from getting worse.

Neomycin is a type of drug that is most toxic to the structure involved in hearing, the cochlea, so it is only recommended for topical use. While the drugs like Furosemide, Acetylsalicylic acid, etc. does show the ototoxic effect but Acetaminophen does not show this effect.

Thus, the correct option is B.

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ballargean’s infant test in which an infant watched a moving screen either pass through or stop on an object suggested that

Answers

According to Baillargeon, newborns took far longer to gaze at the impossible event and were astonished because it didn't conform to their expectations for how physical objects should behave.

What does Piaget's theory mean by object permanence?

Understanding that things and people continue to exist even when you can't see them or hear them is a requirement for object permanence. This concept, which was first articulated by child psychologist Jean Piaget, marks a significant turning point in a baby's mental development.

What was measured by Baillargeon?

Baillargeon's studies of object permanence evaluate newborns' fixation times on (i.e., how long they look at) impossible versus probable occurrences in an effort to account for infants' lack of movement abilities.

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a partial agonist has what effect on neurotransmission?

Answers

As partial agonists have less intrinsic activity at receptors than complete agonists, they can behave either as a functional agonist and an antagonist on the amounts of naturally occurring neurotransmitters.

What accomplishes the partial agonist?

Partial agonists can bind to or activate the receptor, but they can't cause the complete range of effects that full agonists can. The highest reaction a partial agonist may elicit is known as its intrinsic activity, and it can be stated as a percentage, with a full agonist eliciting a 100% response.

Which one of the following statements is true?

Tramadol, butorphanol, and buprenorphine are a few examples of partial agonists. Mixed agonists and antagonists exhibit varied levels of action based on the opiate agonist as well as the dose. Buprenorphine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, or pentazocine are a few examples.

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A nurse is caring for a first-grader receiving prednisone (Meticorten). What outcome does the nurse expect with adrenocorticosteroid therapy?
1 Accelerated wound healing
2 Development of hyperkalemia
3 Increased antibody production
4 Suppressed inflammatory process

Answers

The nurse must be aware of the subtle signs of infection, such as changes in food, sleep habits, and behavior, because the inflammatory process has been suppressed.

What is the purpose of adrenocorticosteroids?

Adrenocorticosteroids perform a number of crucial physiological and pharmacological tasks. The main functions of the glucocorticoids (cortisol, corticosterone) are the regulation of glucose metabolism and the body's response to stress.

Which drug therapy reduces a child's varicella resistance?

In healthy children, oral acyclovir post-exposure prophylaxis appears to frequently prevent or decrease varicella, according to a number of small trials. Nevertheless, this strategy depends on the exposed child establishing sufficient, specific immune responses throughout the incubation phase.

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What does axis deviation indicate?

Answers

Right axis deviation RAD involves the direction of depolarisation being distorted to the right between +90º and +180º.

What is depolarization example?

Example: Depolarization in a nerve cell occurs when the cell undergoes an electrical shift. Most cells are negatively charged relative to their surroundings. This negative internal charge of the cell shifts to a positive through depolarization, which occurs for only a brief period of time.

Is depolarisation in the heart contraction?

Cardiac contraction is the end result of action potentials that are initiated at the sinoatrial node by the spontaneous depolarization of the nodal cells to threshold and the subsequent transmission of triggered action potentials in different cells of the cardiac conduction pathway to the atrial and ventricular muscle .

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The nurse prepares to assess a 7-year-old client. Which approach should the nurse use to support this client's developmental level?
A. Use play and praise cooperation
B. Maintain privacy and provide a gown
C. Provide a doll for play and give choices
D. Ensure confidentiality and provide teaching

Answers

The Correct answer is A. Use play and praise cooperation

When assessing a 7-year-old client, it is important to take into account their developmental level. The nurse should use play and praise cooperation when assessing the 7-year-old client.

What are ways to increase Development level of child?

There are many ways to increase the development level of a child, including reading to them, engaging in games and activities, providing them with opportunities to explore and using positive reinforcement and praise to encourage them. Additionally, providing a safe and nurturing environment and encouraging them to interact with other children can help to foster a child's development. Parents and caregivers can also promote development by helping children learn to express their feelings and emotions, teaching them problem-solving skills, and helping them learn to take responsibility for their actions.

This approach helps build trust and rapport with the child, and can make them more comfortable and relaxed during the assessment. Other approaches that can be used to support the client's developmental level include providing a doll for play, giving choices, and maintaining privacy and providing a gown.

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what type of connective tissue is part of the parietal serosa

Answers

A single layer of mesothelial cells and a thin layer of loose epicardial connective tissue divide the serosa (mesothelial cells), which forms a complete sac containing pericardial fluid, from the heart.

What materials make up the parietal layer?

The pericardium is a two-layered tissue that surrounds the proximal major arteries and the heart. It is made up of two layers: an outside parietal pericardium made of layers of collagen fibrils and elastin fibers, and an inner visceral pericardium, also known as the epicardium, when in touch with the myocardium.

Adipose tissue is there in the serosa?

Adipose tissues, which play a significant role in both innate and adaptive immunity, are found inside the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. These cavities are lined by serosal membranes with immune-active mesothelium. The serosal immune system is made up of them all.

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select all that apply consumers need to be skeptical of nutrition and health-related claims because __________the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers

Answers

Answer: the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation.
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources.

Explanation:

The two options that apply to the answer are:

1. nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources and

2. promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.

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The nurse is reviewing several orders for medications. Which dosage would cause the nurse to be concerned?
a) 500 mg
b) 50 mg
c) 0.5 mg
d) .5 mg

Answers

A number of pharmaceutical orders are being reviewed by the nurse. The dosage of 0.5 mg is the one that would worry the nurse.

What elements influence medicine dosages?

The medicine dose is influenced by a number of variables, including age, body weight, gender, delivery route, timing, ambient circumstances, disease state, and many more. A higher dose might be necessary when lean body weight rises because this will result in a commensurate rise in medication clearance.

Why does weight matter when prescribing medications?

The weight of a patient is crucial information since it is frequently used to determine the proper medicine dosage. The dose of a prescribed drug may differ materially from what is recommended when medication errors result from erroneous or unreported patient weights.

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what are the neurological symptoms of b12 deficiency

Answers

Neural modifications

eyesight issues.memory declineneedles and threadsAtaxia, or loss of bodily coordination, can affect your entire body and make it difficult to speak or move.

What is neurological disorder?Medically speaking, neurological disorders are conditions that impact the spinal cord, brain, and other nerves present throughout the body. The brain, spinal cord, or other nerves might exhibit structural, biochemical, or electrical abnormalities that can cause a variety of symptoms. The functioning of the brain, spine, or nerves can be damaged or altered, which causes neurological issues. The word "neurological" is derived from neurology, the area of medicine that addresses issues involving the nerve system. Neuro is short for nerve and nervous system.The brain, spine, and numerous nerves that connect the two are all affected by neurological disorders, which are central and peripheral nervous system diseases.

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to find the order of a reaction with respect to one reactant, you will monitor the 6/cm4 cmFind the value of x.Xx = [?] Writing and following a zero-based budget will help you avoid overspending and impulse purchases.a. trueb. false The peripheral nervous system is divided intoA. sympathetic division and parasympathetic division.B. brain and spinal cord.C. somatic system and autonomic system.D. motor division and sensory division. of the following, which has the greatest permeability?A. silty B. loam C. clay D. sandy What are specialized programs that assist you in locating information on the web and the Internet? four out of twelve people went out of town for the holidays. what percent of the people stayed home for the holidays How many grams of na2o are required to produce 160 grams of NaOH? Show your work Na2O+H2O->2NaOH goldman is most interested in how An ice company charged $3.10 for 5 bags of ice. If a convenience store bought 2 bags of ice, how much would it have cost them? 3 = X X = fill in the blanks think python: how to think like a computer scientist answers In the figure below, m/RSP = 79, mPWhat is m/QRP?OA. 90OB. 60OC. 150OD. 50SRNote picture not drawn to scale what is derivative of ln kx Which of the following would be sufficient for the Hardy-Weinberg equation to accurately predict genotype frequencies from allele frequencies?p+q=1 describe how the cardiovascular system responds to exercise and blood loss by balancing bloow volume and vascular resistance MYLENE Oui, il y a des lves sympathiques... Et demain? (4)_________ ARNAUD Peut-tre, mais demain je retrouve aussi Dominique. MYLNE (5)________ ARNAUD Pas du tout! Which of the following is a reason why it is difficult to defend against attacks today?A. Computers run so fast they can be configured by attackers to by-pass antivirus software.B. There are no laws that can be used to prosecute attackers so they freely operate without any fear.C. Attackers jam the wireless signals going to technology devices to prevent anti-malware software from running.D. Users are required to make difficult security decisions with little or no instruction. what is baseball in spanish What type of logical error underlies the argument that African Americans were inferior?a. genetic fallacyb. begging the claimc. hasty generalizationd. ad populum