If you wanted to isolate a copy of the gene that codes for protein found in the stomach, could that gene be located in cheek cells?

Answers

Answer 1

Yes, every single bodily cell of an organism contains all of its DNA.

Yet, because the stomach protein is distinct and not present in cheek cells, mRNA from those cells is unable to transfer the gene's Gene sequence to the stomach proteins for synthesis. Cheek cells are used to harvest DNA because they include a membrane-enclosed nucleus and other organelles. This DNA, which contains genetic information inherited from the preceding generation, is stored in the nucleus. Purified water is used to harvest cheek cells, which are then added to a saline or soap solution. Alcohol causes the DNA to precipitate out of the solution, making the DNA visible.

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Related Questions

||EARTH SCIENCE||
Identify one way oceans can influence climate change. (1 point)
• Ocean salinity affects water volume.
Oceans moderate warming by absorbing carbon dioxide.
• Ocean currents affect tidal movement.
O Ocean acidity affect marine organisms.

Answers

Oceans moderate warming by absorbing carbon dioxide. The correct option is B.

How do oceans affect climate change?

When carbon dioxide is released into the atmosphere, it is absorbed by the ocean surface and dissolved into seawater. This process helps to reduce the amount of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere, which would otherwise contribute to global warming. However, as the ocean absorbs more carbon dioxide, it becomes more acidic, which can harm marine organisms and ecosystems. Additionally, as the ocean warms, it can also cause changes in ocean currents and weather patterns, which can have further impacts on climate change.

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what procedure can be used to retrieve a stone that is in the kidney pelvis?

Answers

The main procedure used to retrieve a stone that is in the kidney pelvis is called extracorporeal shockwave lithotripsy (ESWL).

The ESWL procedure uses high-energy shock waves to break up the stones into smaller bits that may be passed in the urine. It is non-invasive. This therapy is typically recommended over alternative approaches like open surgery since it is less intrusive and has less hazards.

The kidney stone is the only target of the ESWL technique, which involves placing the patient on a water-filled cushion. The stone is broken up into small enough bits by the shockwave fragments that they may be passed in the urine.

The treatment typically lasts 30 to 60 minutes and is carried out while the patient is under general anaesthesia.

The patient is often observed for a few hours following the treatment to make sure that all of the pieces have gone. If any of the particles are too big to pass, further therapy may occasionally be required.

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why is it important that meiosis result in daughter cells that have half of the original cell’s chromosomes?

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Answer:

Each daughter cell will have half of the original 46 chromosomes, or 23 chromosomes. Each chromosome consists of 2 sister chromatids. The daughter cells now move in to the third and final phase of meiosis: meiosis II. At the end of meiosis I there are two haploid cells.

Which description applies to post-translational gene regulation? O a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand O protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as folding O processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins O mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of introns O heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence

Answers

Option 3 is Correct. Post-translational gene regulation is characterised by the processing of exons in mRNA to produce single genes that code for several proteins.

The modulation of active protein levels is referred to as post-translational regulation. There are several types. The process is carried out either through reversible processes (posttranslational changes like phosphorylation or sequestration) or through irreversible actions (proteolysis).

The phrase "regulation of gene expression after translation" is the one that best describes post-translational control. The term "post-translational control" describes the regulation of proteins following translation. Protein structures can be changed as a result of post-translational regulation. An operon is a group of genes that is controlled by a single promoter. In bacteria, optrons are typical.

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Correct Question:

Which description applies to post-translational gene regulation?

1. a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand

2. protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as folding

3. processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins

4. mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of introns

5.  heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence

A client is attempting to become pregnant and is using varied methods to identify ovulation. What assessment finding would most clearly suggest that the client is ovulating?
a. The client has clear, thin cervical mucus
b. Cervical mucus is absent
c. The client menstruated eight days ago
d. The client's progesterone levels are peaking

Answers

The correct answer is option D: The assessment finding that would most clearly suggest that the client is ovulating is a peak in progesterone levels.

Progesterone levels in the client are at their highest. The ovaries create the hormone progesterone, which is necessary for ovulation to take place.

The client is likely in the middle of her ovulatory cycle when her progesterone levels are high. Progesterone levels will be at their peak during ovulation, and this may be determined by testing using an endocrine profile.

Also, during ovulation, the client's cervical mucus will be transparent and thin, which will make it simpler for sperm to access the egg for fertilisation.

Progesterone levels are the most accurate indication of ovulation, but cervical mucus and the time of the menstrual cycle are also significant factors.

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32. 30 detik1 ptQ. A retrovirus gets its name from teh fact that, when it infects a cell, a retrovirus-injects pieces of its protein coatproduces a DNA copy of its RNAconverts its capsid proteins into RNA

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Given that its genetic makeup is single-stranded RNA nucleotides, HIV is categorized as a retrovirus.

Furthermore, once within the infected host cell, the reverse transcriptase enzyme that retroviruses possess has the ability to create a DNA duplicate of their RNA. The virus can enter a cell through a variety of processes, including properly adhering to the cell. For this to happen, the virus needs a suitable protein on its cell surface that can bind to the receptor of the host cell. It considers the viral particle to be harmless after attaching to the cell and releases the virus into the host cell.

After that, the virus releases its genetic material into the cell, where it can multiply by exploiting the host's enzyme system and grow in number. In this way, they moved from one cell to the next.

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What are the proteins released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells and regulate the immune response?
a. Interferon.
b. Interleukins.
c. Cytokines.
d. Lymph.

Answers

The proteins released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells and regulate the immune response are called cytokines.

Cytokines are a diverse group of proteins that act as signaling molecules in the immune system, allowing cells to communicate with one another and coordinate the immune response.

Interleukins are a specific type of cytokine that are produced by leukocytes and help to regulate the growth and activity of immune cells, while interferons are another type of cytokine that play a key role in the immune response to viral infections.

Lymph is a fluid that circulates in the lymphatic system and plays a role in the immune system, but it is not a protein released by leukocytes to recruit other immune cells.

Hence, the correct option is C.

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Amino acids are delivered to the ribosome in their appropriate order by:________

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Amino acids are delivered to the ribosome in their appropriate order by tRNA.  An anticodon is a nucleotide bases triplet on the tRNA. Moreover, this anticodon identifies the specific peptide that the tRNA transports.

Molecule delivers each amino acid to the ribosome. A string of amino acids is created by sequentially combining these amino acids. The chain folds up to create the finished protein after the final amino acid is added.

Each DNA nucleotide that corresponds for an amine group determines the order of the amino acids. The order of the amino acids .

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Consider the following reaction. What type of bond is holding the two atoms together? K+Br-> K*+ Br -> KBr

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The two atoms are joined by an ionic sort of connection. One chemical element differs from the others due to its atoms, which are tiny pieces of substance. The main structural component of an atom is its nucleus.

What substances comprise atoms?

The primary particle types that make up an atom are quarks and electrons. The nucleus of an atom is surrounded by a region of electrons. Every electron has a negative electrical charge attached to it. Quarks are the building blocks of the protons and neutrons that make up the atom's nucleus.

Why are atoms named?

Yet when it comes to the atom's name, we have to go back to ancient Greece around the year 400 B.C. Democritus, a great philosopher, suggested the use of the Greek word atomos, which means "uncuttable."

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Place the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation. A) Diaphragm moves inferiorly B) Ribs move up and out C) Internal intercostals contract D) Decrease in width of thorax E) External intercostals contract E) Diaphragm moves superiorly F) Thorax increases in volume G) Ribs move down and in

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Expiration and inspiration are the two main components of pulmonary ventilation. These are the appropriate pulmonary breathing phases for the tasks listed below.

One series of inhalation and expiration makes up a respiratory cycle. Expiration is the process through which air leaves the lungs, while inspiration is the process by which air enters them. The diaphragm flattens and tightens during inhalation, and the chest cavity widens.

The diaphragm relaxes and assumes its dome-like form during exhalation, forcing air out the lungs.

A) movement of the inferior diaphragm

B) The ribcage rises and spreads;

C) the internal intercostals contract

F) The thorax expands;

G) the ribs descend and inward.

D) A narrowing of the thorax

E) Contracting external intercostals.

H) Superior diaphragm movement

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Correct Question:

Place the following actions with the correct phase of pulmonary ventilation. A) Diaphragm moves inferiorly B) Ribs move up and out C) Internal intercostals contract D) Decrease in width of thorax E) External intercostals contract F) Thorax increases in volume G) Ribs move down and in. H) Diaphragm moves superiorly.

in which organelle does the process of the electron transport chain occur?

Answers

The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes and Electron carrier molecules located in the inner mitochondrial membrane in eukaryotic cells.

In prokaryotic cells, the electron transport chain occurs in the cell Membrane. The electron transport chain is an essential part of aerobic Respiration, the process by which cells produce energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) by using oxygen to break down glucose or other molecules.

The electron transport chain is a series of protein complexes that Transfer electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors, ultimately Generating a proton gradient across the inner mitochondrial membrane. This proton gradient is then used to generate ATP through a process called oxidative phosphorylation.

Overall, the electron transport chain is a critical process for the Production of ATP and plays a key role in cellular respiration.

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What are the muscles in your legs?

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The quadriceps, hamstrings, adductors in the upper leg or thigh, and calves in the lower legs are the major muscular groups in the legs.

These muscle groups are composed of many lesser muscles, and there are additional stabilising muscles that are not included in these groups. Upper limb muscles include the quadriceps and hamstrings. Calf muscles collaborate with other lower limb muscles to help you move your feet.

The anterior compartment of the thigh is made up of three main muscles (actually, two muscles and one muscle group): the pectineus, sartorius, and quadriceps femoris. Furthermore, the iliopsoas muscle terminates in the anterior region.

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Select all of the following that are true with respect to genomes. Check all that apply. A) In eukaryotic cells, the genome is usually divided up into multiple chromosomes. B) In prokaryotic cells, the genome is usually divided up into multiple chromosomes. C) In eukaryotic cells, the genome usually consists of just one circular DNA molecule. D)In prokaryotic cells, the genome usually consists of just one circular DNA molecule

Answers

Choose any of the following comments about genomes that are accurate. Mark each box that applies. The genome is typically divided into several chromosomes in eukaryotic cells. within prokaryotic

The human genome is what?

The 23 pairs of chromosomes in cell nuclei plus a smaller DNA molecule present in each mitochondria make up the human genome, which is the full set of nucleotide sequences for humans.

Why is the genome significant and what does it do?

Every genome contains all the data required to create that organism and for its growth and development. Billions of cells (100,000,000,000,000) make up our bodies, and each one contains a complete set of instructions for building us, much like a recipe book for the body. Our genome is a collection of instructions that is composed of DNA.

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________ a superior projection on the ________ bone, attaches to the dura mater and secures the brain within the skull.

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Crista Galli a superior projection on the Ethmoid bone, attaches to the dura mater and secures the brain within the skull.

Crista Galli “ Rooster's comb,”; a superior protuberance that attaches to the dura mammy, helping to secure the brain within the cranium. Cribriform plates Located side to the crista galli; form a portion of the roof of the nasal depression and the bottom of the anterior cranial fossa.

The Crista Galli is a superior bony protuberance that is an attachment point for a covering subcaste of the brain. On either side of the crista galli is the cribriform plate. It forms the roof of the nasal depression and contributes to the anterior cranial fossa.  The scaled fissure joins the parietal bone and the temporal bone. The sphenofrontal fissure links the anterior bone and the sphenoid bone.

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The why and how of biology liberty?

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The concept of biological liberty refers to an individual's right to make decisions regarding their own body and biological processes.

It encompasses the right to choose whether or not to engage in certain medical procedures, the right to access medical treatments, and the right to make decisions about reproduction.

The "why" of biological liberty is rooted in the principle of autonomy, which asserts that individuals have the right to make decisions about their own lives, including their own bodies. It recognizes that individuals are best placed to make decisions about what is in their own best interest and that these decisions should be respected and protected.

The "how" of biological liberty involves creating legal and social frameworks that protect and promote individual autonomy in matters related to biology and healthcare. This can include laws and regulations that ensure access to healthcare services, protections against discrimination, and safeguards for informed consent.

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If the right lateral spinothalamic tract is severed,
A. muscles on the left side are paralyzed.
B. muscles on the right side are paralyzed.
C. pain impulses from the left side are blocked.
D. pain impulses from the right side are blocked.

Answers

If the right lateral spinothalamic tract gets severed then the pain impulses which are coming form the left side are blocked.

The correct option is option C.

The spinothalamic tract is basically a part of the anterolateral system or a part of the ventrolateral system, which is a sensory pathway all the way to the thalamus. The lateral spinothalamic tract (which is also known as the lateral spinothalamic fasciculus), is basically a bundle of the afferent nerve fibers which are ascending through the white matter of the spinal cord, and carry the sensory information to the brain.

The spinothalamic tract basically consists of two types of adjacent pathways: anterior and lateral. The main function of this tract is to basically carry pain as well as temperature through the lateral part of the pathway as well as crude touch through the anterior part.

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Question 2 of 10
The diagram summarizes the electron transport chain of cellular respiration.
(e-
Enzyme complexes
H+
NADH
FADH₂
Enzyme complex
Electron transport chain
OA. The inner membrane
OB. The matrix
Based on the diagram, in which part of a mitochondrion does electron
transport happen?
Intermembrane space
C. The enzyme complexes
D. The intermembrane space
Matrix

Answers

In The inner membrane of a mitochondrion does electron transport happen.

Define electron transport chain .

An electron transport chain is a collection of protein complexes and other molecules that couple protons (H+ ions) across a membrane with the transfer of electrons from electron donors to electron acceptors via redox reactions (both reduction and oxidation occur concurrently). The ETC receives its electrons from NADH and FADH2 through the cooperation of four big multisubunit enzyme complexes and two mobile electron carriers. The electron transport pathway contains a large number of membrane-bound enzymes.

The electron transport chain uses the energy produced by the reactions between oxygen and reduced substances like cytochrome c and (indirectly) NADH and FADH2 to pump protons into the intermembrane region, creating the electrochemical gradient over the inner mitochondrial membrane.

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what are the 22 bones of the skull

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There are 22 bones in the skull, as well as a ton of cartilage and ligaments. All of the skull's other bones, excluding the mandible, are fused together.

The majority of adult specimens have 22 bones in the skull, which are connected by cranial sutures. The skull serves a structurally supporting and protective purpose. The cerebrum, cerebellum, brainstem, and orbits are the interior contents of the skull that will harden and fuse during development to preserve them.

The skull's bones can be split into two primary groups:

There are 14 facial skeletal bones and 8 cranial bones.

The list of neurocranial bones is as follows: Ethmoid -1, Frontal -1, Occipital -1, Parietal -2, Sphenoid-1, Temporal -2

The list of facial skeleton bones is as follows:

Inferior nasal concha -2, Lacrimal -2, Mandible -1, Maxilla -2, Nasal -2, Platine -2, Vomer -1, Zygomatic -2

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during what phase does the nuclear membrane reform around the chromosomes?

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Telophase. Mitosis' final stage, with many of the procedures seen during prometaphase reversed.

The nuclear membrane reforms around the chromosomes clustered at the cell's poles, the chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse, and the mitotic spindle disappear.

Telophase is the final stage of both mitosis and meiosis in a eukaryotic cell. Telophase occurs when prophase and prometaphase are reversed.

Telophase reverses the effects of prophase and prometaphase (disintegration of the nucleolus and nuclear membrane). As the chromosomes reach the cell poles, the nuclear envelope reassembles itself around each set of chromatids, nucleoli reappear, and the chromosomes begin to decondense back into the expanded chromatin that is present.

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why can't both strands of dna be replicated in the same fashion?

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The both strands of DNA cannot be replicated in the same fashion because of the difference in the chemical structures of the two strands.

The two strands of DNA, referred to as the leading strand and the lagging strand, are made up of different elements and have various structures.

A single-stranded DNA molecule with a continuous series of nucleotides that can be reproduced continuously makes up the leading strand.

The lagging strand, on the other hand, is made up of brief DNA fragments known as Okazaki fragments, each of which needs to be duplicated separately. It is hard to duplicate the two strands identically due to the differences in their chemical makeup and structure.

To achieve correct replication, the two strands of DNA must be reproduced separately. The lagging strand is formed in brief pieces, each beginning with a short RNA primer and moving in the 3' to 5' direction, as opposed to the leading strand, which is constantly generated in the 5' to 3' direction.

The Okazaki fragments are subsequently joined together by the DNA polymerase enzyme, which travels down the lagging strand. This guarantees correct replication of the two strands, enabling appropriate gene activity.

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Despite living oceans apart, the North American Kangaroo rat and the Australian hopping mouse lock similar. Both are noctural and burrow underground. What can you inter?

Answers

Similarities that we observe between the North American Kangaroo rat and the Australian hopping mouse, it can be concluded that they are  evolved with similar traits due to convergent evolution.

In general , the Convergent evolution is the phenomenon through which different species gets independently evolve and generating similar traits with response to identical environmental challenges.

Thus, both the Kangaroo rat and the hopping mouse have evolved with almost similar adaptations in their nocturnal and burrowing lifestyles. Both of these adaptations with enhanced senses such as hearing and night vision, physical features such as large hind legs for hopping and digging are the result of convergent evolution .

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which of these terms applies to an organism with extra sets of chromosomes?

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The term that applies to an organism with extra sets of chromosomes is "polyploid".

Polyploidy is a condition where an organism has more than two sets of chromosomes in their cells. Organisms can become polyploid through different mechanisms such as whole genome duplication, which results in the doubling of the entire genome, or through the hybridization of two different species that have different numbers of chromosomes.

Polyploidy is common in plants, but it can also occur in animals, including humans, although it is generally rare and often associated with genetic disorders. Polyploidy can occur naturally or be induced artificially.

In nature, polyploidy is most common in plants, where it can arise through the fusion of two different species, resulting in a hybrid offspring with a different number of chromosome sets than either parent. It can also occur through errors during meiosis, the process of cell division that produces reproductive cells.

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asphyxia due to obstruction of airway by food bolus complicating acute alcohol intoxication is called___

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Acute alcohol intoxication is a condition related to drinking an excess of liquor in a short measure of time. It's additionally called liquor harming.

Acute alcohol intoxication is a clinically destructive condition that typically follows the ingestion of a lot of liquor. Clinical indications are heterogeneous and include various organs and mechanical assemblies, with conduct, cardiovascular, gastrointestinal, aspiratory, neurological, and metabolic impacts.

An enormous extent of the ethanol in alcohol is consumed into the blood from the stomach and the rest from the small digestive system. 7 The more drawn-out liquor stays in the stomach, the more it takes to be assimilated, bringing down the pace of inebriation.

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Which of the following is most likely to be the direct result of lack of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn?
A) Decreased potential yield
B) Decreased dependence on chemical fertilizers
C) Increased susceptibility on plant disease
D) Increased resistance to pests

Answers

The correct answer is option C) Lack of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn results in increased susceptibility to plant disease.

A food crop is more susceptible to plant disease when it lacks genetic variety. This is due to the decreased likelihood of any genetic variation that may offer disease protection in crops with limited genetic diversity.

As a result, a plant's likelihood of developing a genetic mutation that would enable it to fight off the disease is reduced when it is exposed to a particular pathogen, increasing the likelihood that the plant would be harmed by it.

Additionally, because the plant is unable to rely on other genetic variants to give protection, a crop with a lack of genetic variety is more likely to be afflicted by a single disease.

A general absence of genetic diversity in a food crop such as corn is most likely to result in increased susceptibility to plant disease.

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the eyeball is composed of three tissue layers. list them from outermost to innermost.

Answers

There are three tissue layers organised concentrically inside the eye, making up its interior structures: The outer layers consist of the sclera and cornea.

The iris, ciliary body, and choroid are the three divisions of the uvea, the intermediate vascular layer. The deepest layer is composed up entirely of nerve tissue, which is the retina.

Sclera: This outer layer is formed of dense connective tissue.

This layer's component nearest to the eye is called the cornea.

The choroid, which is the middle layer and is bluish in colour and has numerous blood veins, is present.

When compared to the front of the eyeball, where the ciliary body is formed, the layer is thinner at the posterior two-thirds of the eyeball.

Forward growth of the ciliary body creates the iris.

The part of the eye that may be seen as having colour is the iris.

The retina -This layer is the inner one.

Ganglion cells, bipolar cells, and photoreceptor cells are distributed in three layers, one on top of the other, inside to outside.

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Damage to your free nerve endings will have the following effect?​

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Damage to your free nerve ending will have which effects: correct answer is all of the following ( Inability to detect deep pressure , Inability to detect itching and tickling sensations  , Inability to feel pain ) Option d .

Temperature, mechanical stimulation (touch, pressure, stretch), and danger can all be detected by free nerve endings (nociception). As a result, several free nerve endings function as nociceptors, cutaneous mechanoreceptors, and thermoreceptors. They thereby demonstrate polymodality.

Detecting signals from injured tissue or the possibility of injury, nociceptors are sensory receptors that also, indirectly, react to chemicals generated by the damaged tissue. Nociceptor nerve endings are free (bare) nerve endings that may be found in the skin, muscle, joints, bone, and viscera.

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Full Question:  Damage to your free nerve endings will have which of the following effects? Select an answer and submit. For keyboard navigation, use the up/down arrow keys to select an answer.

a Inability to detect deep pressure

b Inability to detect itching and tickling sensations

с Inability to feel pain

d All of the above

Which groups consist of parasitic flagellated cells, such as trypanosoma, the organism that causes sleeping sickness?

Answers

Trypanosoma is a genus of kinetoplastids  and belons to phylum Euglenozoa.

In general , Euglenozoa are the group of unicellular organisms those are known by the presence of flagella and a single nucleus. This phylum  includes large  variety of organisms, some of them survive in free-living state while others are parasite.

Hence , the parasitic members of Euglenozoa comprises of Trypanosoma brucei, that is responsible for causing African trypanosomiasis or sleeping sickness in humans and animals, also the Leishmania species, which cause leishmaniasis, is a disease that impact on skin and many internal organs.

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What are the steps in the life cycle of a red blood cell?

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Erythrocytes go through three stages in their life cycle: creation, maturation, and destruction. One of the hematopoiesis's subprocesses, erythropoiesis, takes place in the red marrow.

What is the erythrocyte's primary purpose?

a kind of blood cell which the bone marrow produces and is present in the blood. Hemoglobin, a protein found in erythrocytes, conveys o from the lungs towards every cell in the body.

What does having a high erythrocyte count mean?

You have erythrocytosis, which is defined as an elevated red blood cell count. As a result, your blood is thicker than it ought to be, which raises the possibility of blood clots.

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what is population of detroit

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Much less than in most American towns. Detroit was named one of the top 35 cities in the United States with the lowest expense of living in 2022 by Niche.

However, while the expense of living in Detroit is lower than the national average, the city still has a high poverty rate. Long known as the world's automobile centre, Detroit is also known for its distinctive Motown music sound from the 1960s. Detroit is home to a diverse ethnic population, including residents of Italian, English, German, Polish, Irish, Mexican, Middle Eastern, African, and Greek heritage.

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The authors initial stimulus for formulating the ninety-five theses was:_________

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The author's initial stimulus for formulating the ninety-five theses was the sales of indulgence.

An author is someone who creates written works, such as books, articles, essays, poetry, or plays. They use language to convey ideas, emotions, and stories to their audience.

Some authors write for pleasure or self-expression, while others write as a profession or for financial gain. Becoming an author often requires developing strong writing skills, creativity, persistence, and a willingness to revise and edit one's work.

The sale of indulgences served as the author's  first impetus for making the Ninety-five Theses.

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How much of a person would be in frame when shooting a video at personal distance?From the feet upFrom the shoulders or chest upFrom the thighs or waist upNeck and head only what is past participle in spanish 6. Find the total impulse of the following graph a physical disease caused by emotional stress without the involvement of a microorganism is called a(n): a writer and speaker who worked to abolish slavery? do all molecular structures have at least one imaginary frequency How does Gauss-Jordan Elimination work? where are the continental shelves wider the east coast or the west coast of north america? A West B. East which multimedia technology did popular video sharing sites replace with mp4 The OS assigns the first 64 bits of this IPv6 link local unicast address as Interface ID FE80:/10. Which portion of the address does that represent? A. Loopback B. Unicast prefix C. Multicast prefixD. Interface ID explain the historical circumstances thst lef to the development depocted on the map ABCD is a rhombus with m 25 = 3x+33 and m/2 = 4x-44, find x. Round to the nearest tenth experimental group definition Consider the following narrative describing the process of going to class:Gasemawoke to his alarm clock buzz. He got up and dressed for the day. Then, he ate a hearty breakfast of oatmeal, toast, orange juice, and coffee. He grabbed his books and prepared to leave for school. Before he left home, he checked the weather. If it looked like rain, he put on a jacket and took his umbrella, and he drove to school. If it looked sunny, he left his jacket and umbrella at home and walked to school. If he drove to school, he parked his car and walked to class. If he walked to school, he went straight to class.1. Assume that block 1 is the start event that begins this process. From the problem description, what is the trigger for the start of the process?2. What is the name of the BPMN symbol that should replace block 1?3. What is the name of the BPMN symbol that should replace block 2?4-Which of the following is the best label for block 2?5. Assume that block 5 represents the "check weather" task. Then, block 6 represents where the process branches depending on weather. What kind of gatewayshould be usedto replace block 6?6- Assume that block 7 represents a task labeled "put on jacket and take umbrella," and block 8represents a task labeled "drive to school." Which of the following is the best label for block 9?7. Which of the following is the name of the BPMN symbol that should replace block 12 to show that the two sequence options merge?8. Which of the following describes the BPMN symbol that replaces block 12?9. Which of the following is the name of the BPMN symbol that should replace block 13? 100 POINTS HELP PLEASE Solve for l if V = 120 w = 5 and h = 4 Identify the main reason for adding the solvent slowly to a volumetric flask.Select one:A: To ensure that the solvent has time to thoroughly dissolve any soluteB: To allow the air in the flask to become saturated with solventC: Because volumetric flasks are fragile and can break if a liquid is added too fastD: So that the liquid does not exceed the volume marking on the flask Which of the following would be a valid reason why a policy premium would be higher than the standard premium?The insurer is not a member of the MIBThe agent quoted the wrong priceThe insured does not have the necessary financial reservesThe insured does not meet established underwriting requirements what percent of the grains that you consume should be whole grains? which type of sediment is most common in the ocean by area?