in 2006, pluto was declared a dwarf planet. the three criteria for planethood are: 1.) it orbits the sun 2.) it must be gravitationally rounded 3.) it must have cleared the neighborhood around its orbit what of these criteria is pluto missing?

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Answer 1

Pluto is missing the third criterion for planethood which states that 3, it must have cleared the neighborhood around its orbit.

What is the planet Pluto about?

Pluto is a dwarf planet in our solar system, located in the Kuiper Belt beyond the orbit of Neptune. It was discovered in 1930 and was considered the ninth planet in our solar system until 2006, when it was reclassified as a dwarf planet due to its size and failure to meet the third criterion for planethood, which states that a planet must have cleared its orbit of other debris.

Pluto has five known moons and is primarily composed of rock and ice. It has a highly elliptical orbit that takes it closer to the sun than Neptune at certain points, but also farther away than any other planet in our solar system.

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Related Questions

Question 33
To improve the accuracy of global warming predictions:
a. better computer models need to generated
b. more understanding of ocean dynamics is needed
c. more knowledge of the carbon cycle is needed
d. a better understanding of gas exchange is needed

Answers

To improve the accuracy of global warming predictions, a combination of all of these options may be necessary. Better computer models can help simulate and predict climate patterns more accurately, while a deeper understanding of ocean dynamics and the carbon cycle can provide more precise data for these models to use.

Additionally, a better understanding of gas exchange can help researchers more accurately track the levels of greenhouse gases in the atmosphere, which can further improve predictions. Overall, it is important to continually work towards refining our understanding of climate patterns and the factors that contribute to global warming in order to make more accurate predictions for the future.


To improve the accuracy of global warming predictions, a combination of factors is needed, including: a) better computer models, b) more understanding of ocean dynamics, c) more knowledge of the carbon cycle, and d) a better understanding of gas exchange. These elements contribute to a comprehensive understanding of the warming process, enabling more accurate predictions for future climate changes.

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According to the metric system, 1 ________ = 1,000,000 g.

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According to the metric system, 1 metric ton (also known as a tonne) = 1,000,000 grams.  In the United States and some other countries, a ton is often used to refer to a unit of weight.

The metric system is a system of measurement used in most of the world that is based on the International System of Units (SI). The SI unit for mass is the kilogram (kg), which is defined as the mass of a specific cylinder of platinum-iridium alloy kept at the International Bureau of Weights and Measures in France.

The metric ton, also known as the tonne, is a unit of bin the metric system that is equal to 1,000 kilograms. This unit is commonly used to measure large masses of objects such as vehicles, cargo, and building materials.

Since 1 kilogram is equal to 1,000 grams, 1 metric ton is equal to 1,000 x 1,000 = 1,000,000 grams. This means that if you have a mass of 1,000,000 grams, you have a mass of 1 metric ton. Similarly, if you have a mass of 2,000,000 grams, you have a mass of 2 metric tons, and so on.

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given that it takes 13 newtons to stretch a spring 0.2 meters from the equilibrium position, how much work is required to stretch the spring 0.3 meters from the equilibrium position?

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It takes 13 newtons to stretch a spring 0.2 meters from the equilibrium position, approximately it will take 2.9 25 joules of work to stretch the spring 0.3 meters from the equilibrium position.

We first need to use Hooke's Law, which states that the force required to stretch or compress a spring is directly proportional to the displacement from its equilibrium position.
So, if it takes 13 newtons to stretch a spring 0.2 meters from the equilibrium position, we can set up the following equation:
F = kx
where F is the force (in newtons), k is the spring constant (in newtons per meter), and x is the displacement (in meters). Solving for k, we get:
k = F/x
k = 13 N / 0.2 m
k = 65 N/m
Now that we know the spring constant, we can use the formula for work:
W = (1/2)[tex]kx^2[/tex]
where W is the work done (in joules), k is the spring constant (in newtons per meter), and x is the displacement (in meters).
Plugging in the values for x (0.3 m) and k (65 N/m), we get:
W = [tex](1/2)(65 N/m)(0.3 m)^2[/tex]
W = 2.925 joules
Therefore, it takes approximately 2.925 joules of work to stretch the spring 0.3 meters from the equilibrium position.

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The work required to stretch the spring 0.3 meters from the equilibrium position is 2.925 joules.

The work required to stretch a spring is given by the formula:

[tex]W = (1/2)kx^2[/tex]

where W is the work done (in joules), k is the spring constant (in newtons per meter), and x is the displacement of the spring from its equilibrium position (in meters).

To find the spring constant, we can use the formula:

k = F/x

where F is the force applied (in newtons) and x is the displacement (in meters).

In this case, the force required to stretch the spring 0.2 meters is 13 N, so the spring constant is:

[tex]k = F/x = 13 N / 0.2 m = 65 N/m[/tex]

Now we can use the work formula to find the work required to stretch the spring 0.3 meters:

[tex]W = (1/2)kx^2 = (1/2)(65 N/m)(0.3 m)^2 = 2.925 J[/tex]

Therefore, the work required to stretch the spring 0.3 meters from the equilibrium position is 2.925 joules.

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air enters a converging-diverging nozzle with low velocity at 2.0 mpa and 100 c. if the exit area of the nozzle is 3.5 times the throat area, what must the back pressure be to produce a normal shock at the exit plane of the nozzle?

Answers

where Mach is the Mach number at the exit. Plugging in the values, we can find the pressure and temperature at the exit plane of the nozzle.

To solve this problem, we can use the equations for isentropic flow and normal shock wave relations.

First, we need to find the Mach number at the throat of the nozzle. We can use the isentropic flow equations for this:

Mach number at throat = sqrt(2/(gamma - 1) * [ (P_inlet/P_throat)^((gamma-1)/gamma) - 1 ])

where gamma is the ratio of specific heats for air (approximately 1.4), P_inlet is the inlet pressure (2.0 MPa), and P_throat is the pressure at the throat (unknown). Plugging in the values, we get:

Mach number at throat = sqrt(2/(1.4 - 1) * [ (2.0/ P_throat)^((1.4-1)/1.4) - 1 ])

Next, we can use the area ratio given to find the Mach number at the exit:

Area ratio = A_exit/A_throat = 3.5

Mach number at exit = sqrt( 2/(gamma + 1) * [ (P_exit/P_throat)^((gamma-1)/gamma) - 1 ] + 1 )

We can assume that the flow is choked at the throat, meaning that the Mach number at the throat is 1. To produce a normal shock wave at the exit, the Mach number at the exit must be greater than 1.4, which is the critical Mach number for air at 100 C. We can iterate on different values of P_exit until we find the value that gives a Mach number of 1.4 at the exit.

Once we have found the correct value of P_exit, we can use the normal shock wave relations to find the pressure and temperature at the exit:

P_exit/P_inlet = [(gamma+1)/2]^(gamma/(gamma-1)) * [ 1 + (gamma-1)/2 * Mach^2 ]^(-(gamma)/(gamma-1))

T_exit/T_inlet = [ 1 + (gamma-1)/2 * Mach^2 ]^(-1)

where Mach is the Mach number at the exit. Plugging in the values, we can find the pressure and temperature at the exit plane of the nozzle.

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Two small balls, each of 1-lb weight, hang from strings of length L=3 ft. The left ball is released from rest with θ=35∘. The coefficient of restitution of the impact is e = 0. 76. Through what maximum angle does the right ball swing?

Answers

Two small balls, each of 1-lb weight, hang from strings of length L=3 ft. The left ball is released from rest with θ=35∘. The coefficient of restitution of the impact is e = 0. 76, the maximum angle through which the right ball swings is approximately 18.4 degrees.

When the left ball is released, it swings down and collides with the right ball. The two balls then swing together as a single system. Due to the law of conservation of momentum, the momentum of the system is conserved during the collision. However, energy is lost due to the coefficient of restitution.

We can use conservation of energy to find the maximum height the left ball reaches at the moment of impact. The initial potential energy of the left ball is given by mgh, where m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the ball above its rest position. At the moment of impact, all of the potential energy of the left ball is converted into kinetic energy, which is then transferred to the right ball during the collision. Therefore, we can equate the potential energy of the left ball to the kinetic energy of the right ball just after the collision

mgh = (1/2)m[tex]v^{2}[/tex]

Where m is the mass of the right ball, v is its velocity just after the collision, and h is the maximum height reached by the left ball. Using the fact that the two balls have equal masses, we can solve for v

v = [tex]\sqrt{2gh}[/tex]

Next, we can use conservation of energy to find the maximum height the right ball reaches. At the highest point of the swing, all of the energy is in the form of potential energy, which is given by mgh, where m is the mass of the ball, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and h is the height of the ball above its rest position. Using the fact that the system loses energy due to the coefficient of restitution, we can write

(1/2)m[tex]v^{2}[/tex] = emgh

Where e is the coefficient of restitution. Solving for h, we get:

h = ([tex]v^{2}[/tex]) /(2eg)

Substituting the expression for v derived above, we obtain

h = (2g(L - L*cos(theta)))/(2eg)

Where theta is the initial angle of the left ball, and L is the length of the strings. Finally, we can use the conservation of energy again to find the maximum angle reached by the right ball. At the highest point of the swing, all of the energy is in the form of potential energy, which is given by mgh. Setting this equal to the initial potential energy of the system, we have

mgh = 2mg(L - L*cos(theta))

Solving for the maximum angle, we get

max angle = arccos((2L - h)/(2L))

Substituting the expression for h derived above, we obtain

max angle = arccos(1 - (eLcos(theta))/(gL))

Plugging in the given values, we get

max angle ≈ 18.4 degrees

Therefore, the maximum angle the right ball swings is approximately 18.4 degrees.

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Question 18
The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be:
a. with the prevailing wind
b. perpendicular to the wind
c. against the wind
d. does not matter

Answers

The direction of operation in involving a sanitary landfill should be perpendicular to the prevailing wind. This is because it helps to prevent the spread of odors and other matter that may be carried by the wind.

It also ensures that the wind does not cause litter and debris to be blown out of the landfill, which can contribute to environmental pollution. So, the correct answer is b. perpendicular to the wind .Pollution is the introduction of harmful materials into the environment. These harmful materials are called pollutants. Pollutants can be natural, such as volcanic ash. They can also be created by human activity, such as trash or runoff produced by factories. Pollutants damage the quality of air, water, and land.

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What is the recommended minimum water pressure in a water distribution system at any time, including fire flow conditions?
a) Greater than Zero
b) 10 psi
c) 20 psi
d) 30 psi

Answers

The prescribed minimum water pressure in a water distribution system is not less than option C: 20 psi at ground level, at any time, including fire flow conditions.

However, the minimum pressure shouldn't be less than 25 psi when there is a maximum instantaneous demand. The distribution system's typical working pressure shouldn't be lower than 35 psi. Pressure reduction devices should be used to control pressures that could be higher than 90 psi.

In order to keep pressure within a desirable range across a distribution system, which may have different terrain and water demand, pressure control is necessary. Effective pressure control can reduce main breaks, maintain excellent water quality, and reducing water waste and increasing energy efficiency.

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Lineweaver-Burke Plot
1) What is Km? The greater Km is?
2) What is Vmax?

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Km is the substrate concentration at which the reaction rate is half of Vmax. The greater Km, the lower the enzyme-substrate affinity. Vmax is the maximum rate of reaction achieved by an enzyme at saturating substrate concentration.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot is a graphical representation of enzyme kinetics data used to determine the kinetic parameters of an enzyme-catalyzed reaction. Km is a measure of the affinity between the enzyme and substrate, with a lower Km indicating a higher affinity. Vmax, on the other hand, is a measure of the enzyme's maximum activity at saturating substrate concentrations.

The Lineweaver-Burk plot is used to determine both Km and Vmax from a series of enzymatic reactions at varying substrate concentrations. The greater the Km, the lower the enzyme-substrate affinity, which can be indicative of a weaker binding between the two molecules.

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A puck is sliding on the ice with 25 J of kinetic energy. After 3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy. Find the work done on the puck.

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The work done on the puck is -25 J, after  3 seconds, the puck comes to a stop and has no more kinetic energy.

What is work done?

Work done is described  as the amount of force needed to move an object a certain distance.

The work-energy principle states that the work done on an object is equal to the change in its kinetic energy.

The change in kinetic energy is:

ΔK = Kf - Ki = 0 - 25 = -25 J

Note that the  negative sign indicates that the kinetic energy of the puck decreased.  

W = ΔK = -25 J

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How much percent of participants delivered 450-volt shock in the Milgram obedience study?

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In the Milgram obedience study, approximately 65% of participants delivered the maximum 450-volt shock.

This experiment, conducted by psychologist Stanley Milgram in the early 1960s, aimed to investigate the extent to which individuals would obey authority figures even when instructed to inflict harm on others. Participants were led to believe they were administering electric shocks to a "learner" in another room, with the intensity of the shocks increasing each time an incorrect answer was given.

The learner was, in fact, a confederate of the experimenter and did not receive any real shocks. The purpose of the study was to examine obedience to authority, particularly in light of the atrocities committed during World War II. The results were surprising and alarming, as 65% of participants ultimately delivered the maximum 450-volt shock, despite the apparent distress of the learner.

The Milgram obedience study demonstrated the power of authority and the willingness of individuals to obey, even when such obedience may result in causing harm to others. It highlights the importance of understanding situational factors and the role they play in influencing human behavior.

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13) Red and orange stars are found evenly spread throughout the galactic disk, but blue stars are typically found A) in the halo.
B) only in or near star-forming clouds.
C) only in the central bulge.
D) evenly spread throughout the galactic disk.

Answers

B) only in or near star-forming clouds. Red and orange stars are found evenly spread throughout the galactic disk, but blue stars are typically found only in or near star-forming clouds.

This is because blue stars are generally younger, massive, and hotter, and they have shorter lifespans compared to red and orange stars. They do not live long enough to spread out across the galactic disk.These regions are known as star-forming clouds, or nebulae. Blue stars are very bright and hot, and emit a lot of ultraviolet radiation, which is useful for star formation. They also tend to be short-lived, and eventually fade away.

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Question 80 Marks: 1 In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then into steam, usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of
Choose one answer. a. 278 degrees F b. 260 degrees F c. 250 degrees F d. 258 degrees F

Answers

In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then into steam, usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of b. 260 degrees F

Distillation is a common method for purifying and desalinating water, and it works by taking advantage of the different boiling points of the substances present in the mixture. By heating the sea water to 260 degrees F, the water vaporizes into steam, leaving behind the dissolved salts and other impurities.

The steam is then condensed back into pure water, which is collected separately from the remaining impurities. This process is widely used in various industries and for producing potable water in areas where fresh water sources are scarce or contaminated. It is essential to maintain the correct starting temperature for efficient distillation and to prevent damage to equipment and ensure the quality of the purified water. In distillation, sea water is heated to the boiling point and then into steam, usually under pressure, at a starting temperature of b. 260 degrees F

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about how many middle school students were surveyed for this graph?

Answers

around 162, hope this helps!

an important news announcement is transmitted by radio waves to people who are 100. km away, sitting next to their radios, and by sound waves to people sitting across the newsroom, 3.0 m from the newscaster. who receives the news first? explain. take the speed of sound in air to be 343 m/s.

Answers

The people 100 km away listening to their radios via radio waves receive the news first.

To determine who receives the news first, we need to compare the time it takes for the radio waves and sound waves to travel to their respective listeners. Let's use the formula:
time = distance / speed
For radio waves, the distance is 100 km (100,000 m) and the speed of radio waves is the speed of light, which is approximately 3 x 10^8 m/s. So the time for radio waves:
time_radio = 100,000 m / 3 x 10^8 m/s ≈ 3.33 x 10^-4 s
For sound waves, the distance is 3.0 m and the speed of sound in air is given as 343 m/s. So the time for sound waves:

time_sound = 3.0 m / 343 m/s ≈ 0.0087 s
Comparing the two times, we see that time_radio (3.33 x 10^-4 s) is much smaller than time_sound (0.0087 s).

Therefore, the people 100 km away listening to their radios via radio waves receive the news first.

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Voltage drop considerations are for ________ and not for safety; therefore, sizing conductors for voltage drop is not a Code requirement.

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Voltage drop considerations are for efficiency and performance, not for safety; therefore, sizing conductors for voltage drop is not a Code requirement.

The main purpose of addressing voltage drop is to ensure that electrical devices receive adequate voltage to operate properly, without negatively impacting their performance or lifespan.

Voltage drop is the reduction in voltage that occurs as electrical current flows through a conductor due to the resistance of the conductor itself. If the voltage drop is too high, it can cause electrical devices to malfunction or operate inefficiently. For this reason, electrical engineers and designers typically calculate the expected voltage drop in a circuit and specify a minimum conductor size to limit the voltage drop to an acceptable level.

While the NEC (National Electrical Code) does not require specific voltage drop calculations or minimum conductor sizes based on voltage drop, it does provide guidance on conductor sizing based on load, temperature, and other factors that can affect the safety and performance of an electrical system.

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Question 62 Marks: 1 Many defects in x-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

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The given statement "Many defects in X-ray units are easy to find and need no instruments" is true because most of them can be easily identified by visual inspection or basic functional tests.

Many defects in X-ray units can be easily found and may not require the use of instruments. Some common defects that can be detected through visual inspection or basic functional tests include loose or damaged connections, malfunctioning switches, broken cables or wires, and damage to the X-ray tube.

For example, if an X-ray unit fails to produce any X-rays, it may be due to a loose or broken connection, a blown fuse, or a malfunctioning switch. Similarly, if the X-ray images are blurry or distorted, it may be due to a damaged or worn-out X-ray tube or a faulty collimator.

While some defects may require more advanced diagnostic tools, such as X-ray detectors or oscilloscopes, many can be detected and corrected through basic troubleshooting techniques.

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Question 31
Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except
a. Hydrostatic loops
b. Vacuum breakers
c. Air gap separation
d. Backpressure units

Answers

Backsiphonage may be prevented by all of the following methods except d. Backpressure units

Backsiphonage is the reverse flow of potentially contaminated water into the potable water supply due to a reduction in pressure. Various methods can be used to prevent backsiphonage, including:
a. Hydrostatic loops: These are vertical loops of piping that create a physical barrier to prevent the backflow of water.
b. Vacuum breakers: These devices break the vacuum in the water supply line, preventing water from flowing backwards.
c. Air gap separation: This is a physical separation between the water supply outlet and the receiving vessel, creating a barrier that prevents backsiphonage.
However, backpressure units are not designed to prevent backsiphonage. Instead, they are used to prevent backpressure backflow, which occurs when the pressure downstream of a connection becomes greater than the pressure upstream.

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Question 8 Marks: 1 The direction of operation of a sanitary landfill should beChoose one answer. a. against the prevailing wind b. with the prevailing wind c. perpendicular to the prevailing wind d. changed daily to be perpendicular to the prevailing wind

Answers

With the prevailing wind is the direction of operation of a sanitary landfill. This is because landfills produce a significant amount of unpleasant odors and gases such as methane.

This create public health concerns and environmental pollution. The direction of operation should be aligned with the prevailing wind direction, so that the wind can carry the odors and gases away from populated areas and sensitive receptors, such as schools and residential areas. . Modern landfills are engineered with several layers of protective liners, such as clay or synthetic materials, to prevent contaminants from leaching into the surrounding soil and groundwater. Landfills also have systems for collecting and treating leachate, which is the liquid that forms as rainwater percolates through the waste. Methane, which is a potent greenhouse gas, is generated as organic matter in the landfill decomposes. Modern landfills are equipped with gas collection systems that capture methane and other gases and use them to generate electricity or heat. This process, called landfill gas-to-energy, helps to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and provides a source of renewable energy.

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Question 53 Marks: 1 The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the ground water table or rock is 62 inches.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

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The above statement is True. The recommended distance from the bottom of the trench to the groundwater table or rock is indeed 62 inches. This distance helps ensure proper wastewater treatment and prevents contamination of groundwater resources.

Groundwater table The water table is an underground boundary between the soil surface and the area where groundwater saturates spaces between sediments and cracks in the rock. Water pressure and atmospheric pressure are equal at this boundary

Groundwater, which is in aquifers below the surface of the Earth, is one of the Nation's most important natural resources. Groundwater is the source of about 37 percent of the water that county and city water departments supply to households and businesses (public supply).

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What happens when T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus?

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When T7 bacteriophages are grown in radioactive phosphorus, the viral particles incorporate the radioactive phosphorus into their DNA.

The T7 bacteriophage (or T7 phage) is a bacteriophage, a virus that infects bacteria. It infects most strains of Escherichia coli and relies on these hosts to reproduce. The T7 bacteriophage has a lytic life cycle, meaning it destroys the cells it infects.

Phosphorus is a key component of the DNA molecule's backbone. As the bacteriophages replicate and produce new viral particles, the radioactive phosphorus gets passed on to the progeny, allowing scientists to track the spread and localization of the bacteriophages within a bacterial population. This technique helps in understanding the replication and infection process of the T7 bacteriophages and contributes to research in virology and microbiology.

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Question 8 Marks: 1 Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers andChoose one answer. a. gate valves b. indirect waste piping c. air vents d. water meters

Answers

Cross-connection controls are an essential component of any plumbing system. These controls include various devices and measures that prevent contaminants from flowing back into the potable water supply.

Some common examples of cross-connection controls are air gaps, backflow preventers, and vacuum breakers. Gate valves, indirect waste piping, air vents, and water meters are not typically considered cross-connection controls.

These devices serve different functions, such as regulating water flow, removing wastewater, and measuring water usage.
 Cross-connection controls include air gaps, backflow preventers, vacuum breakers, and indirect waste piping. The correct answer is b. indirect waste piping.

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If the distance from a charge is doubled, is the magnitude of the electric field increased, decreased, or the same compared to the initial value increased,decreased,the same?

Answers

When the distance from a charge is doubled, the magnitude of the electric field decreases. This relationship can be explained by Coulomb's Law, which describes the electric force between two charged particles. The equation for the electric field (E) created by a point charge (q) is: E = k * |q| / r^2

where k is the electrostatic constant (8.99 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2), |q| is the magnitude of the charge, and r is the distance from the charge to the point where the electric field is being measured.
If we double the distance (r) from the charge, the denominator of the equation becomes (2r)^2, which is 4r^2. Therefore, the new electric field at this doubled distance would be: E' = k * |q| / (4r^2)
Comparing the initial electric field (E) to the new electric field (E'), we see that: E' = (1/4) * E
this result indicates that the magnitude of the electric field at the doubled distance is decreased to one-fourth of the initial value. In conclusion, when the distance from a charge is doubled, the magnitude of the electric field decreases, following an inverse square relationship.

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Please Help! It’s Greatly Appreciated! Will Mark as Brainliest!

Answers

Refer to the attached image.

A certain first-order reaction has a rate constant of 2.30×10−2 s−1 at 19 ∘C. 1. What is the value of k at 57 ∘C if Ea = 80.0 kJ/mol ?

Answers

The value of k at 57°C is approximately [tex]0.199 s^{-1}.[/tex] when a certain first-order reaction has a rate constant of [tex]2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1}[/tex] at 19°C.

To find the value of k (rate constant) at 57°C for a first-order reaction with a known rate constant at 19°C and an activation energy (Ea) of 80.0 kJ/mol, you can use the Arrhenius equation:
[tex]k2 = k1 * e^{((Ea/R) * (1/T1 - 1/T2))}[/tex]
Where:
- k1 is the rate constant at the initial temperature [tex](2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1})[/tex]
- k2 is the rate constant at the final temperature (what we need to find)
- Ea is the activation energy (80.0 kJ/mol, which is 80000 J/mol)
- R is the gas constant (8.314 J/(mol·K))
- T1 is the initial temperature in Kelvin (19°C + 273.15 = 292.15 K)
- T2 is the final temperature in Kelvin (57°C + 273.15 = 330.15 K)

Now, plug the values into the Arrhenius equation and solve for k2:
[tex]k2 = (2.30*10^{-2} s^{-1}) * e^{((80000 J/mol)/(8.314 J/(mol*K))} * (1/292.15 K - 1/330.15 K))[/tex]
k2 ≈ 0.199 s^(-1)

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An AC source is connected across a series combination of An inductive coil with specified resistance and inductive impedance of 65Ω and a capacitance with capacity of 49µF reached to resonance, find the resonance frequency?​

Answers

Answer:

To find the resonance frequency of a series RLC circuit, we can use the formula:

f = 1 / (2π√(LC))

Where:

f = Resonance frequency

L = Inductance in henries

C = Capacitance in farads

π = 3.14159...

In this case, we are given the resistance and inductive impedance of the coil, but not its inductance. However, we know that the inductive impedance of a coil is given by:

XL = 2πfL

Where:

XL = Inductive impedance

f = Frequency

L = Inductance in henries

π = 3.14159...

At resonance, the inductive impedance of the coil will equal the capacitive reactance of the capacitor:

XL = XC

Where:

XC = Capacitive reactance

XC = 1 / (2πfC)

Substituting XL and XC into the equation above, we get:

2πfL = 1 / (2πfC)

Simplifying this equation, we get:

f = 1 / (2π√(LC))

Where:

L = XL / (2πf) = 65Ω / (2πf)

C = 49µF = 49 × 10^-6F

Substituting these values into the resonance frequency equation, we get:

f = 1 / (2π√(65Ω/(2πf) × 49 × 10^-6F))

Simplifying this equation, we get:

f = 1 / (2π√((3.385 × 10^-6)/f))

Multiplying both sides by 2π√((3.385 × 10^-6)/f), we get:

2π√((3.385 × 10^-6)/f) × f = 1

Squaring both sides, we get:

4π^2(3.385 × 10^-6)/f = 1

Solving for f, we get:

f = √((4π^2 × 3.385 × 10^-6))

f ≈ 1369 Hz.

Therefore, the resonance frequency of the circuit is approximately 1369 Hz.

absolute zero corresponds to about -273K. (True or False)

Answers

Given statment "absolute zero corresponds to about -273K." is true.

True. Absolute zero is the theoretical temperature at which all matter has zero thermal energy. It is the lowest possible temperature that can be achieved, and it corresponds to about -273.15 degrees Celsius or -459.67 degrees Fahrenheit.

This temperature is considered to be the baseline for all other temperatures, as it represents the absence of any thermal energy. At absolute zero, all matter would be in a state of perfect order, with no movement or energy.
The concept of absolute zero was first proposed by William Thomson (Lord Kelvin) in the 19th century, and its importance in the field of physics cannot be overstated. It forms the basis of many important theories, such as the laws of thermodynamics and quantum mechanics.

Scientists have been able to achieve temperatures very close to absolute zero in the laboratory using various cooling techniques, such as laser cooling and evaporative cooling.

These ultra-cold temperatures have allowed researchers to study the behavior of matter in ways that were previously impossible.
In conclusion, absolute zero does indeed correspond to about -273K, making it one of the most fundamental concepts in physics. Its discovery and study have revolutionized our understanding of the natural world and continue to drive scientific innovation today.

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the flight paths of modern space vehicles is based on the work of

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The flight paths of modern space vehicles are based on the work of several scientists and engineers who have made significant contributions to the field of spaceflight.

Some of the most notable names include:

Isaac Newton: Newton's laws of motion laid the foundation for the understanding of the principles of motion that govern the movement of all objects, including space vehicles.

Robert Goddard: Goddard is known as the "father of modern rocketry" and was the first person to successfully launch a liquid-fueled rocket in 1926.

His work paved the way for the development of modern rockets and space vehicles.

Sergei Korolev: Korolev was a leading Soviet rocket engineer who played a crucial role in the development of the Soviet Union's space program, including the launch of the first satellite (Sputnik 1) and the first human in space (Yuri Gagarin).

Wernher von Braun: Von Braun was a German rocket engineer who worked for the Nazi regime during World War II before coming to the United States after the war.

He played a major role in the development of the American space program, including the Saturn V rocket that was used to launch the Apollo missions to the Moon.

Arthur C. Clarke: Clarke was a science fiction writer who is famous for his novel "2001: A Space Odyssey." He is also known for his work as a futurist, including his predictions about the use of geostationary satellites for communication.

Overall, the flight paths of modern space vehicles are the result of the work of many scientists and engineers over the past century, and continue to evolve as new discoveries and technologies are developed.

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Question 97
It is believed by some researchers that the hazards of low level radiation may be worse than previously predicted, supporting the principle that "x-rays should be used only when there is good medical reason."
a. True
b. False

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The given statement, "It is believed by some researchers that the hazards of low level radiation may be worse than previously predicted, supporting the principle that "x-rays should be used only when there is good medical reason." is true because a lot of research is being done to determine the biological causes of radiation damage to DNA and cells.

Ionizing radiation has always been a risk to human populations, but it is now even more prevalent because of its usage in agriculture, industry, and the military forces. While the health dangers from medium and high doses of radiation are generally established, those from lower levels are less so.  Confusion has been caused for the public as well as for decision-makers by conflicting messages on the safety of low doses of radiation from various sources.  

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Question 64
Probably the best understood type of microwave induced injury involves:
a. The skin
b. Excessive heating of internal organs
c. The liver
d. Squamous cell destruction

Answers

a. The skin is the correct option. Microwave-induced injury is best understood when it involves the skin. Microwaves are a form of electromagnetic radiation that can cause heating effects on living tissues. When the skin is exposed to microwaves, the energy is absorbed, causing an increase in temperature that may lead to tissue damage.

Squamous cell destruction is a term related to the damage or destruction of squamous cells, which are flat, scale-like cells that make up the outer layer of the skin called the epidermis. While microwaves can cause damage to these cells, the broader category of microwave-induced injury on the skin encompasses a wider range of possible effects, making it a better-understood phenomenon.
Excessive heating of internal organs, such as the liver, can occur due to microwave exposure, but the mechanisms and effects are less well-understood than those involving the skin. The skin acts as the first line of defense against microwave radiation, making it more susceptible to injury compared to deeper organs.
To summarize, microwave-induced injury is best understood when it involves the skin, as the skin absorbs microwave radiation and is prone to temperature increases that can cause tissue damage, including squamous cell destruction. Other effects of microwaves, such as excessive heating of internal organs, are less well-understood, making the skin the primary focus of study for this type of injury.

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If a main-sequence star suddenly started burning hydrogen at a faster rate in its core, it would become. a. larger, hotter, and more luminous. b. larger, cooler, and more luminous. c. smaller, hotter, and more luminous. d. smaller, cooler, and more luminous.

Answers

If a main-sequence star suddenly started burning hydrogen at a faster rate in its core, it would become larger, hotter, and more luminous.

The increase in the rate of hydrogen burning in the star's core would lead to a release of more energy, causing the outer layers of the star to expand and become less dense, which results in an increase in the star's size.

At the same time, the increase in energy production would cause the temperature of the star's core to increase, which would increase the star's overall temperature and luminosity.

Therefore, the star would become larger, hotter, and more luminous, moving away from the main sequence towards the giant branch on the Hertzsprung-Russell diagram.

The increased luminosity and temperature would make the star appear brighter and bluer.

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