licensed practical nurse (LPN) on the Labor and Delivery unit is assisting the nurse with multiple admissions. What tasks could the LPN complete until the nurse is available?
1. Take initial vital signs.
2. Measure cervical dilation.
3. Check fundal height and fetal heart rate (FHR).
4. Obtain urine for protein and glucose.
5. Collect vaginal swab to test for chlamydia.

Answers

Answer 1

As licensed practical nurse (LPN), the tasks that can be completed until the nurse is available include option 1, 3 & 4.

1. Take initial vital signs.

2. Check fundal height and fetal heart rate (FHR).

3. Obtain urine for protein and glucose.

LPNs are trained to perform a variety of tasks within the scope of their practise, such as taking vital signs and collecting urine samples. As a result, options 1 (take initial vital signs) and 4 (collect urine for protein and glucose) may be appropriate tasks for an LPN to perform until the nurse arrives.

However, collecting vaginal swabs to test for chlamydia necessitates specific training and competencies that may not be available to all LPNs. Registered nurses (RNs) or nurse practitioners (NPs). with the necessary training and skills to perform the test accurately and safely may perform this task.

LPNs must work within their scope of practise and not perform tasks that are outside of their training and competencies.

It is critical to note that LPNs must work within their scope of practise and only perform tasks for which they have been trained and are competent. If the LPN has any questions about their scope of practise or a specific task, they should consult with their supervising RN or NP.

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Related Questions

pt medical abbreviation

Answers

Review the most typical abbreviations used in physical therapy & their definitions with this resource: Wide base quad cane, or LBQC, stands for large base quad cane.

A physical therapist is what?

See Every. Physio therapy is a clinical speciality that focuses on evaluating, diagnosing, and treating patients who have functional mobility restrictions. Physiotherapists, who are specialists with a license from the state in which they practice, offer physical therapy services.

How may physical therapy be beneficial?

Physical therapists (PTs), often known as trained professionals, diagnose and treat aberrant physical function brought on by an illness, injury, or handicap. The American Physical Therapist Association (APTA) claims that physical therapists are educated and certified movement specialists.

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how will a pharmacy technician help in the drug-bidding process? s

Answers

A pharmacy technician assists in the drug-bidding process by estimating the annual use of expensive pharmaceuticals. The net rate is calculated using the raw material expenses.

A pharmacy technician works directly with a prescriber to ensure their patients' health and safety. They locate, dispense, load, and label a patient's prescribed medication, which is then checked for high precision by a healthcare professional before being dispensed here to the patient.

Despite the fact that pharmacists and pharmacy electricians both work in pharmacies, their jobs and duties are vastly different. Pharmacy technicians work alongside pharmacists to fill and deliver prescriptions. Pharmacists, on the other finger, are in charge of ensuring that patients take the right medicines.

You Are Not Able to Provide Medical Advice: Similarly, you cannot give instructions on how to take medications. You must refer people to the pharmacist if they have a questionnaire about their dosage, the consequences they can assume, or how to administrate the medication.

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when a patient has contraindications to hvla adjusting/manipulation, you may still be able to mobilize the joint. (T/F)

Answers

It is True that When a patient has contraindications to HVLA adjusting/manipulation, you may still be able to mobilize the joint.

The given statement "When a patient has contraindications to HVLA adjusting/manipulation, you may still be able to mobilize the joint." is true because High-velocity low-amplitude (HVLA) approaches use a brief duration, distance, and/or rotational area within a joint's anatomical range of motion to engage the restrictive barrier in one or more planes of motion and elicit restriction release.

The most common reasons for using HVLA thrust methods are "joint fixation," "joint locking," and "somatic dysfunction," however other writers have documented different indications for therapeutic use of these techniques. Chiropractic manipulation has been shown to reduce pain, inflammation, restore joint biomechanics, and reduce localized muscle spasm. It has also been demonstrated to enhance total global spinal mobility and posture when paired with other chiropractic treatments.

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a client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of acute pancreatitis. the nurse would plan care knowing that most likely, which problem will occur with this disorder

Answers

Acute pancreatitis is an inflammatory condition of the pancreas that can result in autodigestion of the gland.

A common problem associated with this disorder is severe abdominal pain, which can radiate to the back and be accompanied by nausea and vomiting. Other potential problems may include fluid and electrolyte imbalances, hypovolemia, and shock. The nurse would also need to monitor the client's nutritional status, as patients with acute pancreatitis often require bowel rest and parenteral nutrition to allow the pancreas to heal. If left untreated, acute pancreatitis can progress to a more severe form, leading to organ failure and even death.

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using hydrocortisone 0.5ream and hydrocortisone 2.5ream, calculate how many parts of each ingredient you need.

Answers

According to the question the volume of 0.5% cream needed is 1ml.

What is volume?

Volume is a measure of the amount of space that a three-dimensional object occupies. It is measured in liters, cubic centimeters, gallons, and other units. In mathematics, volume is typically defined as an integral, the integration of a function over a region in three-dimensional space.

To calculate the parts of each ingredient needed, we must use the following formula:
(Volume of 0.5% cream * Concentration of 0.5% cream) + (Volume of 2.5% cream * Concentration of 2.5% cream) = Total Volume of Hydrocortisone Cream
So, for our example of making 10ml of hydrocortisone cream:
(Volume of 0.5% cream * 0.5) + (Volume of 2.5% cream * 2.5) = 10
This equation can be rearranged and solved for Volume of 0.5% cream:z
Volume of 0.5% cream = (10 - (Volume of 2.5% cream * 2.5)) / 0.5
Let's say we want to use 8ml of 2.5% cream. Then, using the equation above, we can calculate the volume of 0.5% cream needed:
Volume of 0.5% cream = (10 - (8 * 2.5)) / 0.5
Volume of 0.5% cream = 1ml
So, to make 10ml of hydrocortisone cream, you would need to mix 1ml of 0.5% cream with 8ml of 2.5% cream.

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Which of the following are age-related changes to the appendicular skeleton that contribute to osteoporosis? Check all that are correct.
Check All That Apply
Decline in skeletal mass
Increase in bone mineral content
Increase in bone porosity
Loss of bone calcium

Answers

The correct options are:

Decline in skeletal massIncrease in bone porosityLoss of bone calcium

What is osteoporosis?

Osteoporosis is a medical condition in which the bones become brittle, fragile, and weak, making them more susceptible to fractures. It occurs when the body loses too much bone, makes too little bone, or both.

Osteoporosis is most common in women after menopause, but it can also affect men and younger women. Risk factors for osteoporosis include age, gender, family history, low body weight, sedentary lifestyle, smoking, and certain medical conditions and medications. Treatment for osteoporosis usually involves a combination of lifestyle changes, medications, and sometimes hormone therapy.

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which is an appropriate teaching goal for a client who is newly diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes

Answers

An appropriate teaching goal for a client who is newly diagnosed as having type 2 diabetes would be to help them understand how to manage their condition through lifestyle modifications and medications.

A specific teaching objective might be:

Recognizing the significance of monitoring blood sugar: Show the client how to use a glucometer to check their blood sugar at home and the value of routine blood sugar monitoring.

Choosing a healthy lifestyle: Explain to the client the value of choosing a healthy diet, which includes consuming less sugary and processed foods and more fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.

Medication management: Discuss the significance of taking any prescribed medications as instructed and go over any potential negative effects. Assist the client in comprehending how their prescriptions function and how to look out for hypoglycemic symptoms.

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The nurse is completing the initial assessment at the prenatal visit of a pregnant client. Which question should the nurse prioritize when completing the review of systems?
- "Do you have a peptic ulcer?"
-"Have you ever had a heart attack?"
-"Have you had any neurologic diseases?"
-"Have you had any urinary tract infections?"

Answers

She introduces the client. A hospitalized adult client who reports having trouble falling asleep is being looked after by the night shift nurse.

What does a nursing initial assessment look like?

Health evaluation in nursing is an illustration of nursing assessment. A nurse will quiz patients about their past and present health-related behavior habits during this type of initial examination. The patient's health-related objectives are another question they ask.

What does the nursing procedure' initial assessment entail?

The first step is assessment, which calls for the use of critical thinking abilities and the gathering of both subjective and objective facts. Spoken statements from the patient or caretaker are considered subjective data.

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One hour before a client is to undergo abdominal surgery, the physician orders atropine, 0.6 mg I.M. The client asks the nurse why this drug must be administered. How should the nurse respond?

Answers

The nurse respond is Gastric and salivary secretions are reduced by atropine .

What is drugs used for?

Anything (apart from food) that is used to cure or relieve the symptoms of an illness or other abnormal state. Medicines may alter mood, consciousness, thoughts, feelings, or behaviour in addition to having an impact on how the brain and the rest of the body function.

How do drugs function in the body?

Medications affect how neurons use neurotransmitters to send, receive, and process messages. Because some drugs, like heroin and marijuana, have molecular structures that are similar to those of natural neurotransmitters in the body, they can activate neurons. This enables the medications to bind to and stimulate the neurons.

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which pulse to check for infant

Answers

The pulse to check for an infant is the apical pulse, which is located at the apex of the heart. This is because infants have a smaller and more irregularly shaped chest, making it difficult to accurately assess peripheral pulses.

To check the apical pulse, the nurse should use a stethoscope and place the diaphragm over the chest at the fourth intercostal space on the left side of the chest. The nurse should count the number of beats for a full minute to obtain an accurate measurement. This is an important assessment in determining the infant's heart rate and overall cardiac function.

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identify the 5 most common violations to the HIPAA privacy rule:

Answers

The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) is a federal law in the US that establishes requirements for safeguarding the confidentiality and security of personal health information.

What is the most typical HIPAA violation?

One of the most frequent HIPAA violations perpetrated by employees is prying into the medical records of family, friends, neighbours, coworkers, and famous people. When these violations are found, the employee in question may face criminal prosecution in addition to losing their job, which is the typical outcome.

Which of the following complies with HIPAA?

sharing PHI without authorization online or via social media. mismanaging and sending PHI in error. Unencrypted PHI sent through text. Inability to protect PHI from unauthorised access or disclosure by encryption or another suitable safeguard.

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Which one of the following is NOT a technique to supportively challenge or confront a client?
a. Observe and note discrepancies and conflict.
b. Feed back internal and external discrepancies to the client.
c. Match tonal quality with the client during the feedback of discrepancies.
d. Evaluate the client response and whether there is client change.

Answers

C. Matching tonal quality with the client during the feedback of discrepancies is NOT a technique to supportively challenge or confront a client.

As a result, the current study seeks to investigate how massive disparity feedback, which implies how performance departs from standards but instead self-set goals, influences significant disparity production and huge disparity reduction systems.

Discrepancies, characterized by two or maybe more statements or consequences that cannot both be true, might well indicate that a trial report contains flaws.

We report how several discrepancies are identified by a large panel of audience examining a trial report with a huge number of discrepancies in this study.

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which laboratory test would the nurse monitor to determine a patient's ability to oxygenate

Answers

Atmospheric blood gases The following measures are typically included in hematocrit and haemoglobin arterial blood gas tests: Oxygen content (O2CT): This gauges how much oxygen is present in your blood.

Hemoglobin: This gauges the quantity of the protein, haemoglobin, in your blood that carries oxygen to your cells.

The interpretation of disorders that affect your respiratory, circulatory, and metabolic systems the processes by which your body converts food you eat into energy can be aided by arterial blood gas testing, particularly in emergency settings.

Another test, called a "blood gas analysis," uses a sample of blood from any location in your circulatory system (artery, vein or capillary). A blood sample from an artery in your body is the only sample used for an arterial blood gas (ABG) test.

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which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old

Answers

The nurse would straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back while administering ear drops to a four-year-old.Therefore, the correct option is A.

What is ear medication administration?

Ear medication administration are a set of procedures that are followed by the healthcare professionals to administer the ear medications to various age group individuals with utmost safety and precautions.

While administering the ear drops to a 4-year-old child, the nurse should first straighten his/her ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back. Then placing accurate number of drops that are prescribed by the doctor.Therefore, the correct option is A.

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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,

Which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old?

A. Straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back.

B. Stretch the ear canal

C. Both of the above

D. None of the above

when editing medical reports, you cannot change the ________ of the report or alter the meaning in any way. a.grammar. b.content c.pinctuation. d.body.

Answers

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way.

What is Medical Report?

A medical report is a written document that contains information about a patient's medical condition, history, diagnosis, treatment, and other relevant details. Medical reports are created by healthcare providers, such as doctors, nurses, and other medical professionals, to document the patient's medical care and communicate important information to other healthcare providers.

They may be used for a variety of purposes, such as tracking the progress of a patient's treatment, communicating with other members of a healthcare team, or providing information for research or legal purposes.

Medical reports can take many different forms, depending on the purpose and audience. They may be narrative, outlining the patient's history and medical condition in chronological order, or they may be more structured, following a specific format or template. They may also include medical images, such as x-rays or MRIs, or other diagnostic test results.

When editing medical reports, you cannot change the b. content of the report or alter the meaning in any way. Medical reports contain important information that can affect patient care, so it is essential that they are accurate and reflect the patient's medical condition and history as documented by the healthcare provider. While grammar, punctuation, and other aspects of writing can be corrected or improved during the editing process, the content of the report should remain unchanged unless there is a mistake or factual error that needs to be corrected. It is important for medical editors to be familiar with medical terminology and standards to ensure that the content is accurate and complete.

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The nurse is caring for an older adult patient who is receiving multiple medications. When monitoring this patient for potential drug toxicity, the nurse should review which lab values closely?
a. Complete blood count and serum glucose levels
b. Pancreatic enzymes and urinalysis
c. Serum creatinine and liver function tests (LFTs)
d. Serum lipids and electrolytes

Answers

For potential drug toxicity, the nurse should review the serum creatinine and liver function test (LFT) to rule out any toxicity in the body due to potential use of drugs and adverse effects, the correct option is C.

The effectiveness of medications is often increased and may result in toxicity when the liver and kidneys are dysfunctional. The nurse should evaluate LFTs to assess hepatic function and serum creatinine levels to assess renal function. If some medicines have an impact on certain bodily systems, the additional lab tests could be requested.

Blood tests called liver function tests are used to monitor and assist identify liver damage or illness. The tests check the amounts of specific proteins and enzymes in your blood.

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What is the ICD-10 code for BPH without obstruction?

Answers

ICD-10 code N40. 0 for Benign prostatic hyperplasia without lower urinary tract symptoms is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range - Diseases of the genitourinary system

What is the causes of hyperplasia?

Endometrial hyperplasia results from an imbalance of the hormones oestrogen and progesterone; the condition may prevent the lining from shedding completely each month. Endometrial hyperplasia, also known as abnormal uterine lining thickening, is a potential outcome.

What transpires throughout hyperplasia?

In a healthy tissue or organ, hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell production. A sign of abnormal or precancerous changes could be hyperplasia. The term for this is pathologic hyperplasia. It might also result from normal cell growth.

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The nurse questions which item that is listed on the plan of care for a patient with an implantable cardioverter?

Answers

The nurse would likely question the frequency of device checks and any instructions related to device replacement or maintenance.

What is maintenance?

Maintenance is the process of preserving and protecting a property, item, or system in order to maintain its current state or condition. It is an ongoing process that involves inspecting, repairing, replacing, and improving components or systems in order to ensure that they are in good working order. Maintenance activities can be performed on a variety of items, such as buildings, machinery, vehicles, electrical systems, plumbing systems, and other equipment. Depending on the type of maintenance being performed, it may involve regular inspections, preventive maintenance, scheduled repairs, corrective maintenance, and emergency maintenance. Maintenance is important for maintaining the efficiency and safety of a system or property, as well as for extending its lifespan.

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which cause may produce abnormal uterine bleeding? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct. hypothyroidism failure to ovulate bleeding disorders unidentified pregnancy use of oral contraceptives benign lesions of the uterus

Answers

Bleeding disorders and benign lesions of the uterus are the causes that may produce abnormal uterine bleeding. Therefore, the correct option is C and F.

What is abnormal uterine bleeding?

Any severe or unusual bleeding from the uterus is considered abnormal uterine hemorrhage. Any moment throughout your monthly cycle, including your regular menstrual period, is possible for it to happen.

Abnormal uterine bleeding can occur from cancer, infection in the urinary tract, hormonal imbalance and other bleeding disorders. Therefore, the correct option is C and F.

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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,

Which cause may produce abnormal uterine bleeding?( select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.)

A. hypothyroidism

B. failure to ovulate

C. bleeding disorders

D. unidentified pregnancy

E. use of oral contraceptives

F. benign lesions of the uterus

The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy. How long will the drug take to achieve its full effect?
A) 1 to 2 weeks
B) 2 to 4 weeks
C) 1 to 3 months
D) 3 to 6 months

Answers

Any  drug  takes 3 to 6 months to achieve its full effect. So the correct option is : D) 3 to 6 months.

The nurse is teaching a patient about finasteride therapy, and should inform the patient that it will take 3 to 6 months for  drug to achieve its full effect. Finasteride is a medication used to treat enlarged prostate and male pattern hair loss, it works by blocking conversion of testosterone to dihydrotestosterone, responsible for prostate enlargement and hair loss. It takes time for drug to lower levels of DHT in body, and it can take several months to see full benefits of medication. It is important for patients to understand this timeline to manage their adherence to treatment plan.

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When administering naloxone (Narcan) via the intranasal route, the EMT should administer:
A. at least 2 mL into each nostril.
B. a half dose into each nostril.
C. a minimum of 2.5 mg.
D. a maximum of 0.5 mL.

Answers

The EMT should inject a half dose of naloxone (Narcan) into each nostril when giving the drug via the intranasal route or through the nose.

What method of medication absorption is the quickest?

IV: Intravenous It is the quickest, safest, and most controlled method. It avoids first-pass metabolism and obstacles to absorption. When a quick effect, continuous administration, and high volumes are necessary, it is employed.

Which method has the most time for absorption?

Due to the lack of muscle tissue and the limited number of blood vessels, intradermal (ID) injections have the longest absorption times of all parenteral methods. These injections are used for sensitivity testing because it is simple to see the patient's reaction and gauge the intensity of the reaction.

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A nurse engages in verbal communication with a client. Which of the following is reflective of the nurse's word selection?A. Personal valuesB. risk managementC. resource planingD. utilization review

Answers

A nurse engages in verbal communication with a client. Personal values is reflective of the nurse's word selection.

Why are personal values important in nursing?

Nurses, as the largest health care group, have well-known and important professional values. The use of these values in nursing practice increased the quality of patients care, nurses' occupational satisfaction.

Core values of nursing include altruism, autonomy, human dignity, integrity, honesty and social justice. The core ethical values are generally shared within the global community, and they are a reflection of the human and spiritual approach to the nursing profession.

Caring is best demonstrated by a nurse's ability to embody the five core values of professional nursing. Core nursing values essential to baccalaureate education include human dignity, integrity, autonomy, altruism, and social justice.

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what is the correct amount of wet diapers a mature infant should produce each day?

Answers

6-8 wet diapers/day is the correct amount of wet diapers a mature infant should produce each day.

There are several diapering options for your baby, including baby nappies, cloth diapers, and biodegradable diapers. There is some disagreement about which option is best for the baby and the environment.

An infant and baby are a human being's very young offspring. The term infant is a proper or specialist synonym for the term baby. Other organisms' juveniles may also be referred to by the terms. A newborn is a baby who is only a few working days, days, or up to a month old.

A newborn is typically defined as a baby between the ages of birth and two months. Infants are considered children from birth to one year of age. The term "baby" can refer to any infant up to one-year-old babies.

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The nurse provides care to a client who experienced prolonged cold exposure. For which complication does the nurse closely monitor this client?
1.Ventricular fibrillation.
2.Hypertension.
3.Metabolic alkalosis.
4.Shivering.

Answers

The nurse provides care to a client who experienced prolonged cold exposure, the nurse closely monitor this client for Ventricular fibrillation. Thus, option 1 is correct.  

What is Ventricular fibrillation?

Ventricular fibrillation is an abnormal heart rhythm (arrhythmia). The lower heart chambers contract very quickly and uncoordinatedly during ventricular fibrillation. As a result, the heart is unable to circulate blood throughout the body.

Ventricular fibrillation is a medical emergency that requires immediate treatment. It is the leading cause of sudden cardiac death.

Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and shocks to the heart with an automated external defibrillator (AED) are emergency treatments for ventricular fibrillation. To prevent episodes of ventricular fibrillation, medications, implanted devices, or surgery may be recommended.

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patient r s medical report indicates that he has arthralgia, which is ______ pain

Answers

Patient r s medical report indicates that he has arthralgia, which is joint pain,  which is typically characterized by discomfort, soreness, or aching in one or more joints of the body.

It can be caused by a variety of factors, including injury, inflammation, infection, or certain medical conditions such as arthritis. Joint pain is a common medical symptom that can affect any joint in the body, including the knees, hips, shoulders, wrists, and ankles.

It is usually characterized by discomfort, soreness, or aching in one or more joints, and can be caused by a variety of factors, including injury, inflammation, infection, or certain medical conditions such as arthritis. Joint pain can also range in severity from mild to severe, and can be acute or chronic depending on the underlying cause.

Treatment for joint pain can vary depending on the cause, but may include medications, physical therapy, rest, and in some cases, surgery.

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What is the relation between the activity level of older adults and the response to medication?
- The older adult who is more physically active is less likely to have an adverse drug effect.
- The less physical activity an older adult engages in, the less chance there is for an altered response to a medication.
- There is no relation between activity level and medication response.
- The more active the older adult, the greater the chance for adverse effects to prescribed drugs.

Answers

Common side effects of medications in older people include dizziness and falls, weight loss or gain, and changes in memory, thinking, and information processing.

How does medication affect activity level of older adults?

- The older adult who is more physically active is less likely to have an adverse drug effect.

- The less physical activity an older adult engages in, the less chance there is for an altered response to a medication.

- There is no relation between activity level and medication response.

- The more active the older adult, the greater the chance for adverse effects to prescribed drugs.

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The only artery that carries deoxygenated blood is the _____.

Answers

The only artery that carries deoxygenated blood is the pulmonary artery.

The blood channels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the body's tissues are called arteries. Each artery consists of three layers and is a muscular tube bordered by smooth tissue.

The inner layer of the intima is lined with a smooth tissue known as endothelium.

A layer of muscle called the media allows arteries to withstand the high cardiac pressures.

A connective tissue called adventitia holds arteries to adjacent tissues.

The major high-pressure pipeline that connects to the left ventricle of the heart, the aorta, is the biggest artery. A system of smaller arteries that run throughout the body branch off from the aorta. Arterioles and capillaries are the names of the smaller arteries' branches. Low pressure is used by the pulmonary arteries to transport blood deficient in oxygen from the heart to the lungs.

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A 12-lead ECG that reveals slight ST segment elevation; Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF; and ST elevation in V1 and V2 most indicate which of the following?

Answers

The patient's right ventricle is experiencing ischemia due to a myocardial infarction that occurred in her inferior wall.

What does an ECG test for?

An ECG can detect arrhythmias, which are abnormal heartbeats or very fast, slow, or irregular heartbeats. Coronary heart disease is a disorder when the blood flow to the heart is blocked or interfered with by an accumulation of fatty substances. Heart attacks happen when the blood flow to the heart is suddenly interrupted.

Can an ECG identify a damaged heart?

The patterns on the ECG may help in determining the extent of the cardiac injury as well as the precise location of the damage. Oxygen and blood are delivered to the heart. By doing an ECG while you're experiencing symptoms, your healthcare provider can evaluate whether your chest pain is being caused by reduced blood supply to the muscle.

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Parturition is officially complete when. A) the afterbirth is delivered. B) the baby is born. C) bleeding is controlled. D) lactation is initiated.

Answers

After the baby is born, parturition is officially completed. Another term for childbirth is parturition. Parturition is referred to by both labor and delivery terminology.

Childbirth is referred to as parturition. It is also referred to as labor. It is the mechanism for signaling the commencement of labor (or) a process for delivering a kid after the pregnancy period has ended. The developing kid is born with cortisol released.

The cervix dilates and relaxes throughout the parturition process. In addition to cortisol, oxytocin and osteogeny hormones are produced to kickstart milk production and labor.

The uterus contracts during parturition to push the fetes towards the cervix and continues to contract until the fetes passes through the birth canal. The head should be the first to emerge during this procedure.

The placenta is released by the uterus following parturition and flows out shortly after the fetes is delivered. Lactation begins, and the first milk produced is known as colostrum.

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Scenario The nurse is caring for a 64-year-old female who is brought to the emergency department by her family with severe abdominal pain. Use the chart to answer the questions. The chart may update as the scenaric progresses History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes Vital Signs Laboratory Results Medical/Surgical history: Type 2 diabetes mellitus x 5 years, hypertension x 10 years, obesity with a BMI of 43. Diagnosed with diverticulitis 4 years ago, hospitalized twice for IV antibiotic therapy, the last time 6 months ago. Surgical history includes C-section x 3 and laparoscopic removal of an ovarian cyst. Social history: Drinks "occasionally, 1-2 times a month" with friends, denies the use of tobacco, illicit drugs, and herbal supplements. Works as an office manager. Family history: Mother died of a heart attack at age 84. Sister died at age 29 of breast cancer. Father died at age 72 with Alzheimer's disease. Physical Assessment: Obese female lying on stretcher in fetal positic holding abdomen. Color pale, skin warm to touch and moist. Alert and oriented, moaning in pain. Neurological assessment intact. Lungs clear respirations shallow. S1, S2 heart sounds with systolic murmur. All dista pulses 3+. Capillary refill <3 seconds. Moves all extremities when asked Abdomen round, distended, firm, and tender with rebound tenderness. Rare bowel sound heard. States that her last bowel movement was 2 days ago Medications: Metformin 1000 mg by mouth twice a day, lisinopril 10 mg by mouth twice a day, fiber supplement over the counter daily. 7/17/XX 0815 Patient admitted to the ED after 2 days of left lower quadranthain that has spread throughout the abdominal area and rated as a 10/10. Abdomen is firm, distended, and "tight as a drum." Abdominal x-ray indicates free air in the abdominal cavity, consistent with a ruptured diverticulum. Patient prepared for emergent surgery. 0845 Transported to the surgical suite via cart. Family directed to the waiting area. History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes Vita 7/17/XX 0815 Temp 101.6°F (38.6°C) HR 112 bpm RR 24 breaths/min SpO2 93% on room air BP 178/101 mm Hg Pain 10 on 0 to 10 scale History and Physical Assessment Nurses' Notes 7/17/XX 0815 RBC 3.20 (3.61-5.11 million/mm3) Hematocrit 34% (36–48%) Hemoglobin 10.7 g/dL (11.7-15.5 g/dL) WBC 15.2 (4.5-11.1 103/mm) Platelets 135,000 (150,000-450,000/mm3) Glucose 270 mg/dL (65–99 mg/dL)

Answers

The items that are most concerning during the postoperative period are no bowel movements after 2 days, temperature, anemia, WBC, Blood pressure, and ED admission pain of 10 out of 10.

What are the postoperative symptoms of abdominal pain?

Patient pain is not diminished at all, temperature and WBC count are still high and it indicates infection. The patient, RBC level is low which reveals the patient has anemia.

After the operation, the body is dealing with several conditions, that are associated with abdominal pain, and blood cells fluctuate in these conditions.

Therefore, patients' WBC counts are still high and it indicates infection.

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The given question is incomplete, so the most probable complete part of the incomplete question is,

The postoperative care nurse is reviewing the patient's preoperative medical record. Identify the items that are most concerning during the postoperative period. Select all that apply.

Alcohol consumption

Weight

Diabetes mellitus

No bowel movement for 2 days

ED admission pain of 10 out of 10

Temperature

Blood pressure

Anemia

WBCs

Platelet count

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