Answer:
- support body
- allow movement
- protect delicate internal organs
- give body shape and structure
When a vibrating sound source causes areas of high and low pressure to radiate outward through the air, we call this a/an _______________________.A. auditory stimulus
B. frontal lobe
C. thalamus
D. amygdala
what percentage of the blood is composed of plasma?
The percentage of the blood that is composed of plasma is 55%.
What is plasma?Blood is a vital liquid flowing in the bodies of many types of animals that usually conveys nutrients and oxygen.
The blood is made up of the following components;
PlasmaRed blood cellWhite blood cellPlateletsPlasma of the blood is a clear component of blood or lymph containing fibrin. Plasma contains about 90 percent water, with 10 percent being made up of ions, proteins, dissolved gases, nutrient.
Blood is made up of plasma and solid components. Of these, the larger part is plasma, comprising about 55%.
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what is three components of blood?
Explanation:
plasma
red blood cells
platelets
what process contains the central dogma of molecular biology
The method by which genetic information moves from DNA to RNA and then to a functional product protein is known as the "central dogma" of molecular biology.
The Core Dogma of Molecular Biology is what it is known as. There are two processes: transcription and translation. Eukaryotic cells' nuclei are where the transcription process takes place.The method by which genetic information moves from DNA to RNA and then to a functional product protein is known as the "central dogma." DNA serves as a template for the production of messenger RNA molecules (mRNA). The fundamental tenet of biology holds that the genetic information encoded in DNA gets translated into single-stranded RNA and ultimately into protein.
(What process is the central dogma of molecular biology?)
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Cardiac muscle can use fatty acids, ______, lactic acid, amino acids, and ______ bodies as fuel sources
Cardiac muscle can use fatty acids, glucose, lactic acid, amino acids, and ketone bodies as fuel sources.
Why are cardiac muscles important?Cardiac muscles, also known as the heart muscle, are essential for maintaining the function of the cardiovascular system. They are responsible for pumping blood throughout the body, which delivers oxygen and nutrients to the cells and removes waste products. The continuous contraction and relaxation of cardiac muscles create the heart's rhythmic beating, which is essential for maintaining blood pressure and circulation.
How do ketone bodies act as fuel for cardiac muscles?Ketone bodies, specifically beta-hydroxybutyrate and acetoacetate, can be used as fuel for cardiac muscle cells in a process known as ketosis. During ketosis, the body shifts from using glucose as its primary fuel source to using ketone bodies produced in the liver from fatty acids.
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what is the genotype of the man? what is the genotype of the man? ii i a i i b i i a i a
The genotype of the man is determined by the alleles he inherited from his parents. The genotype of a man is determined by his genetic makeup, which is the combination of alleles inherited from his parents.
If the man is not known to have any genetic conditions, then his genotype would be an expression of the alleles he received from both his mother and father, as well as any mutations that occurred in his individual genetic makeup. For example, if the man inherited an allele for brown eyes from both parents, then his genotype for eye color would be "BB". A person's genotype can be determined by looking at the alleles they possess for a particular gene or trait. This means that he has one dominant and one recessive allele, which would result in a phenotype (observed trait) that is a combination of the two.
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What is the name for the classification system that uses two names? answer choices. A. taxonomy levels. B. classification studies.C. Binomial NamingD. specific species
Linnaeus made the arrangement of "binomial nomenclature," which involves just two assignments variety and explicit designation as the species name. The correct answer is (C).
The binomial naming framework is the framework used to name species. Every species is provided a name that comprises two sections. The initial segment is the Variety to which the species has a place and the subsequent part is the species' name.
The ordered characterization framework (likewise called the Linnaean framework after its innovator, Carl Linnaeus, a Swedish botanist, zoologist, and doctor) utilizes various leveled models. Moving from the starting place, the gatherings become more unambiguous, until one branch closes as a solitary animal category.
Carolus Linnaeus, who is generally viewed as the organizer behind present-day scientific categorization and whose books are viewed as the start of current natural and zoological classification, drew up rules for doling out names to plants and creatures and was quick to utilize binomial terminology reliably (1758).
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What is the function of the external auditory meatus in the ear?
The main function of the external auditory meatus (ear canal) is to channel sound waves from the environment to the eardrum. The ear canal is a tube-like structure that runs from the outer ear to the eardrum.
It has a thin layer of skin lining, tiny hairs, and glands that secrete wax. Sound is amplified and directed towards the eardrum thanks to the structure of the ear canal.
The fragile inner ear components are shielded from dust, dirt, and other foreign objects by the ear canal.
The ear canal aids in preventing infection and harm to the eardrum and other inner ear structures by collecting debris. Earwax is also produced in the ear canal and protects the eardrum and ear canal by lubricating them.
Moreover, the earwax aids in the capture of foreign objects to keep them out of the inner ear.
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Mendel hypothesized that reproductive cells have only one factor for each inherited trait. This hypothesis is supported by which observation? answer choices A. Haploid cells are produced by mitosis. B. Diploid cells are produced by mitosis. C. Haploid cells are produced by meiosis. D. Diploid cells are produced by meiosis.
Answer:
dipliod cells produced meiosis
what does mendel’s law of independent assortment state?
Mendel's Law of Independent Assortment asserts that during gamete production, various gene alleles assort independently of one another.
When crossing two distinct pea plants with two distinct traits, Mendel came up with the Law of Independent Assortment. He crossed plants with yellow, round peas with plants that had wrinkled, green peas. All of the kids had yellow, round peas because wrinkled and green were subordinate to round and yellow.
The emergence of arbitrary chromosomal pairings is known as independent assortment. The Independent Assortment principle is a result of Metaphase I. If independent assortment does not take place, the features of the offspring would be identical to those of the mother or father since the genes are not being randomly combined.
Homologous chromosomes are randomly allocated to daughter cells during cell division during meiosis, whereas distinct chromosomes segregate apart from one another. The term for this is independent assortment.
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Which is the most ancient Arthropod lineage still in existence?a. Myriapodab. Cnidaria c. Brachiopoda d. Crustacea
The oldest Arthropod lineage still existing is the Crustacea. The correct answer is option(d).
Arthropods are ineffectual mammals with an exoskeleton, a separate material, and paired slay and prepare animals for meat limbs. Arthropods form the phylum Arthropoda. They are distinguished by their slay and prepare an animal for meat appendages and cuticles made of chitin, frequently mineralized accompanying calcium carbonate.
Crustaceans form a large, various bug taxon which contains aforementioned animals as decapods, source insignificant, branchiopods, fish rats, krill, remipedes, isopods, barnacles, copepods, amphipods and mantis insignificant. The crustacean group may be considered a subphylum under the clade Mandibulata.
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Which of these are found at a replication fork? Please select all that apply
DNA polymerase
DNA helicase
Double-stranded DNASingle-stranded DNA
Option b and c are the correct. DNA helicases unwind double-stranded DNA before polymerases do in order to create a replication fork with two single-stranded templates.
A single DNA double helix can be copied by replication processes into two DNA helices, which are then split into daughter cells during mitosis. A replication bubble is created when the circular bacteria chromosome's double-stranded DNA is opened at the point of replication. A replication fork, a Y-shaped junction where double-stranded DNA is split into two single strands, is present at each end of the bubble. Several other proteins, in addition to polymerases and primase, function at the replication fork.
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Which of these are found at a replication fork? Please select all that apply.
a. DNA polymerase
b. two single-stranded templates.
c. Double-stranded DNA
d. Single-stranded DNA
what physical mechanism is produced by a cold
The physical mechanism produced by a cold is a viral infection that triggers an immune response and inflammation in the respiratory tract.
A cold, also known as the common cold, is a viral infection of the upper respiratory tract. It is caused by a variety of viruses, including rhinoviruses, coronaviruses, and adenoviruses. When a person contracts a cold virus, the virus attaches to and enters the cells lining the nose and throat. The virus then hijacks these cells' machinery to replicate itself, causing the infected cells to burst and release more virus particles into the body. As the body's immune system tries to fight off the infection, it produces inflammation in the respiratory tract, which can cause symptoms such as a runny or stuffy nose, cough, sore throat, and sneezing. These symptoms are the body's of trying to expel the virus and its debris from the respiratory tract. In summary, the physical mechanism produced by a cold is a viral infection that triggers an immune response and inflammation in the respiratory tract, leading to a range of symptoms that help the body fight off the infection.
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what is genotype of true breeding ?
The genotype of a true-breeding organism refers to the genetic makeup of an individual that consistently produces offspring with the same traits over multiple generations.
True-breeding organisms are homozygous for a particular trait, meaning that they carry two identical alleles for that trait. For example, a true-breeding pea plant with yellow seeds would have a genotype of YY, with two dominant alleles for yellow seed color.
In genetics, the term "true breeding" is often used in the context of Mendelian inheritance. This refers to the idea that when two true-breeding individuals with different homozygous genotypes are crossed, the resulting offspring will also be heterozygous for that trait.
For example, when a true-breeding plant with the genotype YY (yellow seed) is crossed with a true-breeding plant with the genotype yy (green seed), the resulting offspring will all be Yy (yellow seed).
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when a sperm and an ovum fuse, a one-celled __________ is formed.
When a sperm and an ovum fuse, a one-celled Zyogte is formed. zygote, the fertilised egg cell produced when a female gamete (egg, or ovum) and a male gamete combine (sperm).
The zygote stage is brief and is followed by cleavage, when the single cell divides into smaller cells, in the embryonic development of humans and other animals. The zygote is the embryonic stage at which a genetically distinct organism emerges. The zygote is diploid because it contains genes from both parents (carrying two sets of chromosomes).
All organisms, with the exception of bacteria, reproduce sexually, and a common characteristic of this process is the combining of haploid gametes to create a diploid zygote.
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hermaphroditism group of answer choices is primarily an adaptation for self-fertilization. evolved in barnacles and snails because of their limited mobility. evolved before anisogamy refers to the ability to reproduce without sex. means having only one kind of gamete (sex cell).
Answer:
primary cell
Explanation:
the primary cell the right answer
describe the experiments by griffith, avery, mcarty, and mcleod that determined the role for dna as the genetic material.
The experiment by Griffith, Avery, McCarty, and McLeod confirmed the role of DNA as genetic material and laid the foundation for future work on the structure and function of DNA.
What is the Griffith experiment?In the 1920s and 1930s, several scientists including Frederick Griffith, Oswald Avery, Colin McLeod, and Maclyn McCarty conducted experiments that ultimately led to the conclusion that DNA is the genetic material responsible for heredity.
Griffith's experiment involved two strains of Streptococcus pneumoniae bacteria: a virulent strain that caused pneumonia and a non-virulent strain that did not. Griffith found that when he injected mice with heat-killed virulent bacteria, the mice survived, but when he injected a mixture of heat-killed virulent bacteria and live non-virulent bacteria, the mice died. He concluded that some factors from the virulent strain had transformed the non-virulent strain into a virulent one.
In 1944, Avery, McLeod, and McCarty built on Griffith's experiment by using enzymes to break down the different components of the virulent strain of bacteria to see which one was responsible for the transformation. They found that when they destroyed the DNA in the virulent strain, the non-virulent bacteria were not transformed, but when they destroyed the protein or lipid components, transformation still occurred. They concluded that DNA was the transforming principle, the genetic material responsible for heredity.
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Why is the oxidation of NADPH energetically favorable? None of these answers The reduced form of NADPH is more stable than the oxidized form. The biosynthetic reactions that are coupled to NADPH oxidation are energetically favorable. NADPH is the form of the molecule that can gain two high-energy electrons. The oxidized form, NADP+, is more stable than the reduced form NADPH Oxidation of NADPH breaks a high-energy phosphoanhydride bond.
Option C, "The biosynthetic reactions that are related to NADPH oxidation are energetically beneficial," is the right response.
NADPH oxidation is a beneficial activity from an energetic standpoint because it is associated with a biosynthetic reaction.
Two extremely powerful electrons that originate from the reduced form of NADPH are used to fuel the production of organic molecules such as fatty acids and amino acids. Hence, the oxidation of NADPH results in the production of energy that powers the biosynthetic process.
Because the oxidized form, NADP+, is less stable than the reduced form, NADPH, the dissociation of a high-energy phosphoanhydride bond does not initiate the process
Thus, the oxidation of NADPH is energetically favorable since it is connected to a biosynthetic reaction.
A high energy electron is created when PSII absorbs a photon; this electron then passes through cytochrome b6f and eventually arrives to PSI through an electron transport chain. A second photon is subsequently absorbed by the reduced PSI, producing a more potently reducing electron that converts NADP+ to NADPH. Water serves as the first electron donor in oxygenic photosynthesis, producing oxygen (O2) as a byproduct.
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True or False: capillary bulk flow is so efficient that less than 1% of the water filtered into the tissues at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end of the capillary bed.
The given statement "capillary bulk flow is so efficient that less than 1% of the water filtered into the tissues at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end of the capillary bed" is false because Capillary bulk flow is the movement of fluid between the blood and the interstitial space due to a pressure gradient.
It is an important process for maintaining proper fluid balance in the body. However, not all of the fluid that is filtered out of the blood at the start of a capillary bed is reabsorbed at the end. Some of the excess fluid is reabsorbed into the lymphatic vessels, which return it to the bloodstream.
The amount of fluid reabsorbed depends on a variety of factors, including the pressure gradients, the permeability of the capillary walls, and the presence of lymphatic vessels. In general, the efficiency of capillary bulk flow varies depending on the tissues and organs involved, and less than 1% reabsorption is not a universal phenomenon.
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the soma of psuedounipolar neurons is found in the gray matter of the spinal cord. (True or False)
Pseudounipolar neurons' soma is not located in the grey matter of the spinal cord. It is located in the spinal ganglion. So the statement about pseudounipolar neurons is false.
A form of neuron known as a pseudounipolar neuron has just one extension from the cell body. This type of neuron's axons split into two sections. As they grow, they become bipolar neurons. From the cell body, they extend two processes, one of which goes to the peripheral locations and the other to the spinal cord.
The cell body of this neuron gives birth to a single process, which divides into an axon and a dendrite. The thickening present in each dorsal root called the spinal ganglion contains the soma of the pseudounipolar neurons. The given statement is considered false.
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which of the following processes consumes carbon A. decomposition B. Combustion C. weathering D. Photosynthesis (HELP FOR MY MID TERMS)
Answer:
Photosynthesis
Explanation:
Of the given processes, the process that consumes carbon is D. Photosynthesis.
Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, algae, and some bacteria convert carbon dioxide and water into glucose (a type of sugar) and oxygen. During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide is taken in from the atmosphere and used to build the glucose molecule, which is stored in the plant or used as energy. This means that photosynthesis removes carbon dioxide from the atmosphere and fixes it in the form of organic molecules in the plant.
In contrast, the other processes listed either release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere or do not involve carbon at all:
A. Decomposition - the process of breaking down organic matter into simpler components. Decomposition can release carbon dioxide into the atmosphere as a byproduct.
B. Combustion - the process of burning a substance, usually for energy. Combustion releases carbon dioxide into the atmosphere as a byproduct.
C. Weathering - the process of breaking down rocks and minerals into smaller pieces. Weathering does not directly involve carbon.
which evolutionary innovation of seed plants enabled them to outcompete ferns and other seedless plants that dominated through the end of the carboniferous period? A.A photosynthetic sporophyte B.reduced, dependent gametophytes C.vascular systems D.flowers
Reduced, dependent gametophytes the end of the carboniferous period.
The correct option is B.
What is an example of a gametophyte?The fern that springs to mind when you thinking of Indiana Jones or a forest floor is a gametophyte. The lovely, fringed leaves is haploid, which means they only have one set of chromosomes, and they produce sex cells during mitosis like other gametophyte plants do.
What is the gametophyte's structure?The gametophyte stage of life is the predominant one among bryophytes. The male and female gametes are produced by the gametophyte's antheridia and archegonia, etc. Gametangia are all of these elements put together.
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In a short paragraph (5 or more sentences) explain a few reasons why deforestation occurs.
What is the ICD-10 code for aortic stenosis?
The ICD-10 code for aortic stenosis is 135.0, as assigned by WHO.
The WHO classifies Nonrheumatic aortic (valve) stenosis as a disease of the circulatory system and assigns the ICD-10 number I35.0 for it. I35.0 is an ICD-10-CM code that can be used to specify a diagnosis for financial reimbursement. I35.0 is available in both American ICD-10-CM and various international ICD-10-CM variations.
Aortic stenosis, also known as aortic valve stenosis, is a form of heart valve disease (valvular heart disease). The aorta's main artery and the lower left heart chamber are connected by a small valve that doesn't fully open. As a result, the aorta and the rest of the body's blood flow from the heart are reduced or blocked.
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explain why the resting membrane potential is not equal to the k equilibrium potential.
The resting potential of a membrane is not equal to the K equilibrium potential as the membrane is depolarized and therefore it is going to have a more positive value than the K equilibrium potential.
What basically generates the resting membrane potential is the potassium ions which leak from the inside of a particular cell to the outside through leaky potassium channels and therefore generates a negative charge in the inside as compared to the outside. At rest, the membrane is impermeable to sodium ions and this is because all of the sodium ion channels are closed.
In a normal cell, the permeability of sodium ions is about 5% of the potassium ion permeability whereas the respective equilibrium potentials are +60 mV for sodium ( which is represented as ENa) and −90 mV for potassium (represented as EK). Thus, we can say that the membrane potential will not equal to EK but rather have a more positive value.
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Which of the following stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract?a. sympathetic nervous systemb. vagus nervec. increased salivad. absence of food in the system
The vagus nerve stimulates increased peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract.
The correct option is b. vagus nerve.
The vagus nerve is a parasympathetic nervous system nerve that stimulates enhanced peristalsis and secretions in the digestive tract. When the vagus nerve is stimulated, it produces acetylcholine, which stimulates the release of digestive enzymes and enhances peristalsis, which aids in the movement of food through the digestive system.
While the sympathetic nervous system is in charge of the body's "fight or flight" reaction, it suppresses digestive processes such as peristalsis and secretions.
The parasympathetic nervous system is connected with increased saliva production, although this alone is insufficient to activate peristalsis and secretions throughout the digestive tract.
Due to a lack of stimulation, the absence of food in the system may result in decreased peristalsis and secretions.
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what technique uses multiple x-ray exposures of the brain from different angles? A. CT Scan B. MRI
Option A is correct. The cross-sectional imaging is created by CT scan (computerised tomography) using several x-rays obtained at various angles.
Magnetic resonance imaging, or MRI, makes use of both magnetic fields and radio frequencies.When compared to ordinary head X-rays, brain CT scans can offer more precise details about the brain's tissue and structural makeup, offering additional information about any injuries or disorders to the brain. A brain CT provides numerous views of the brain since the X-ray beam moves in a circle around the body. A more accurate, cross-sectional image of your body can be created using the imaging method known as computed tomography (CT), which combines X-rays and computer technology.
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Maria has red–green color blindness; Juan has normal color vision. Together, Maria and Juan have two children, Maggi and Daniel. Draw the sex chromosomes of Maggi and Daniel at the following stages, and label on these chromosomes the alleles for color blindness and normal color vision. Assume that no crossing over has occurred:
a. Metaphase (Mitosis)
b. Metaphase I (Meiosis)
c. Metaphase II (Meiosis)
Maggi is going to have the allele for color blindness from her mother and a normal allele from her father. Daniel will get the affected allele form the mother.
Color blindness gene is present on the X chromosome and therefore we can say that the males are hemizygous for the condition whereas the females are regular diploids. The allele which causes the colorblindness (c) is present on the maternal X (which is represented in yellow) and the allele which is responsible for normal color vision (C) is present on the paternal X (represented by blue).
Maggi will have two X chromosomes, the affected one from her mother Maria and a normal from her father Juan. Daniel has one affected X chromosome, which he received from his mother Maria.
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Put the pattern of circulation into the correct order, beginning with the pulmonary circulation.
- Blood enters the pulmonary arteries and travels to the lungs.
- Blood enters the systemic arteries.
- Blood enters the left side of the heart.
- Blood enters the pulmonary veins.
- Blood delivers oxygen to the tissues, and then enters systemic veins.
- Blood leaves the right side of the heart.
Blood leaves the right side of the heart. Blood enters the pulmonary arteries and travels to the lungs. Blood enters the pulmonary veins. Blood enters the left side of the heart. Blood enters the systemic arteries. Blood delivers oxygen to the tissues, and then enters the systemic veins
What is Pulmonary circulation?The pulmonary circulation is a division of the circulatory system present in all the vertebrates. The circuit of this circulation pattern begins with the deoxygenated blood which is returned from the body to the right atrium of the heart where it is pumped out from the right ventricle to the lungs to get oxygenated and transported back to the different parts of the body.
Blood leaves the heart through the pulmonic valve into the pulmonary artery and it flows to the lungs to get oxygenated. The pulmonary vein carries this oxygen-rich blood from the lungs into the left atrium of the heat. Blood flows from the left atrium into the left ventricle of the heart through the open mitral valve.
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Assuming that each of these possesses a cell wall, which prokaryotes should be expected to be most strongly resistant to plasmolysis in hypertonic environments? extreme halophiles extreme thermophiles methanogens cyanobacteria nitrogen-fixing bacteria that live in root nodules
Extreme halophiles: They can resist diseases, athlete's foot, & high salt ratios. Little plants called bryophytes lack the veacukar bundles that ferns, liverworts, & other organisms create.
Halophiles are what?In the domain Archaea, halophiles are bacteria that thrive in settings with a lot of salt. These are salt-loving organisms that can withstand quite high salinities. Halophiles have made several adaptations, like keeping salts out of their cytoplasm to prevent protein aggregation.
What environment does a halophile inhabit?Halophiles could be found in a variety of hypersaline settings that are widely spread around the globe, including salty lakes, salt lakes, salt lakes, and saline soils.
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