mr. and mrs. smith’s child was diagnosed with turner syndrome. their child has a(n) _________ chromosome

Answers

Answer 1

Turners syndrome is a genetic disorder caused due to the deletion of partial or complete of a X chromosome.

Turners syndrome affects only females. There are 44 autosomal chromosomes and a pair of sex chromosomes in humans. In males there are a X and Y chromosomes. In females there are two X chromosomes.

In turners syndrome, one of the X chromosome is deleted either partially or completely. In infant stage it causes Wide or weblike neck, Low-set ears, Broad chest with widely spaced nipples etc.

During puberty and adult stages, the symptoms become more prominent like No growth spurts at expected times in childhood, Failure to begin sexual changes expected during puberty, Sexual development stops during teenage years, Early end to menstrual cycles, For most females with Turner syndrome, inability to conceive a child without fertility treatment.

So turners syndrome is diagnosed with child has an X chromosome.

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Related Questions

what age old concept was darwin able to dispell with his research

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Darwin was able to dispel the concept of fixity of species with his research.

This is an age-old concept which was widely accepted by many people, namely that the characteristics of each species of organism were fixed and could not change.

Darwin was able to offer proof that species might evolve through time and that this change was brought about by natural selection.

He proposed that environmental forces might cause genetic alterations in species, which can result in the emergence of new species. Moreover, he was able to demonstrate that the distinctions between species were not necessarily stable but may change throughout time.

These data suggested that species were dynamic and subject to long-term change. Darwin was able to offer proof that the species on Earth have changed over time owing to natural selection and have developed through time.

This ran counter to the traditional idea of a species' fixity, which was generally held at the time.

Complete Question:

What age-old concept was Darwin able to dispel with his research?

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what kind are snakes in ohio

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Queensnake, Kirtland's snake, copper-bellied watersnake, Lake Erie watersnake, red-bellied snake, eastern hog-nosed snake, eastern smooth earthsnake, common wormsnake, eastern foxsnake, eastern black kingsnake, eastern ribbonsnake, northern rough greensnake, etc. are all found in Ohio.

The longest and most prevalent species of snake in Ohio is this lanky one. Although they typically range in length from 4-6 feet, they can reach up to 7 feet long. The Eastern Massasauga rattlesnake, the Timber Rattlesnake, and the Northern Copperhead are the three poisonous snakes found in Ohio. The copperhead, massasauga, and timber rattlesnakes are the only three venomous snake species in Ohio. None of these reptiles are typical. Many snake infestations in basements and the foundations of outbuildings are a problem, as are sporadic encounters with a single snake.

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The cell membrane acts as a boundary for the cell, regulating what passes into and out of the cell. True or False?

Question 2 options:
True
False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Reason

The cell membrane regulates the transport of materials entering and exiting the cell.

in addition to naming species, linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. the largest category that would include closely related species is the:_____.

Answers

Domain
In addition to naming species, linnaeus also grouped species into a hierarchy of increasingly inclusive categories. The largest category that would include closely related species is the domain.

What are the 3 main stages of wound healing?

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The three main stages of wound healing are: Inflammatory phase , Proliferative phase, Maturation phase

Inflammatory phase: This stage begins immediately after the injury and lasts for several days. During this stage, the body's immune system responds to the injury by sending white blood cells to the site of the wound to fight infection and remove any debris. Proliferative phase: This stage begins a few days after the injury and can last for several weeks. During this stage, new tissue is generated to fill the wound. The wound begins to granulate, with new blood vessels forming to bring oxygen and nutrients to the site. Maturation phase: This stage begins several weeks after the injury and can last for up to two years. During this stage, the new tissue that was formed during the proliferative phase is remodeled and strengthened. Collagen fibers reorganize and align in the direction of stress, making the new tissue stronger.  These stages of wound healing are interdependent and overlap to some degree, and a variety of factors, such as age, nutrition, and underlying health conditions, can affect the healing process.

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What is blood vessels called connect arterioles to venules ?

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Capillaries are the blood arteries that carry blood from arterioles to venules.

What is arterioles?

The circulatory system's arterioles, which are little blood arteries, are in charge of transferring oxygenated blood from the heart to the capillaries, which are even smaller blood vessels.

The tiniest blood veins in the body, capillaries frequently have a diameter smaller than the width of a single blood cell. They are in charge of transferring nutrients, gases, and waste materials from the blood to the tissues of the body.

Little blood veins called arterioles and venules transport oxygenated blood away from the heart and towards the capillaries, respectively, and deoxygenated blood from the capillaries back to the heart. The capillaries connect the arterioles and venules to create a network of microscopic vessels that facilitate material transfer between the blood and the tissues. The capillary walls, which are delicate and permeable to tiny molecules like oxygen, carbon dioxide, and glucose, allow for this exchange to take place.

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where is the uterus located

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The uterus, also known as the womb, is a female reproductive organ that is located in the pelvis, between the bladder and rectum.

It is a hollow, muscular organ that is shaped like an inverted pear and is about the size of a small fist. The uterus is connected to the vagina through the cervix, which is the lower narrow part of the uterus that opens into the vagina. The uterus is an important organ for reproduction. It is where a fertilized egg implants and grows into a fetus during pregnancy. The muscular walls of the uterus also contract during childbirth to help expel the fetus from the body. The uterus is regulated by hormones, including estrogen and progesterone, which control the menstrual cycle and other reproductive processes.

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Cellular respiration project: analyzing cellular respiration. !! In this assignment, you will gather evidence to construct an explanation on how energy and matter move through the environment under aerobic and anaerobic conditions. You will then conduct additional guided research to revise your explanation based on the new information you discover. BACKGROUND INFORMATION Cellular respiration is a process that allows organisms to produce energy to maintain life. The process involves a series of chemical reactions that use glucose and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and the high energy molecule, ATP. Organisms, including plants, undergo cellular respiration to create energy that they can use to maintain life processes. Cellular respiration may be aerobic, a type of respiration that requires oxygen, or anaerobic, a type of respiration that can occur in an environment with no or minimal oxygen

Answers

Cellular respiration is a crucial process that allows organisms to produce energy to maintain life.

The process involves a series of chemical reactions that use glucose and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and the high-energy molecule, ATP. There are two types of cellular respiration: aerobic and anaerobic. Aerobic respiration requires oxygen, while anaerobic respiration can occur in an environment with no or minimal oxygen.
In aerobic respiration, glucose is broken down into carbon dioxide and water, with the release of energy in the form of ATP. This process occurs in the mitochondria of the cell and involves three main stages: glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain.
In anaerobic respiration, glucose is broken down into lactic acid or ethanol, with the release of a small amount of energy in the form of ATP. This process occurs in the cytoplasm of the cell and involves only one stage: glycolysis.
To analyze cellular respiration, you can gather evidence through experiments and observations. For example, you can measure the amount of oxygen consumed and carbon dioxide produced during aerobic respiration, or the amount of lactic acid or ethanol produced during anaerobic respiration. You can also conduct additional guided research to revise your explanation based on new information you discover.
In conclusion, cellular respiration is a vital process that allows organisms to produce energy to maintain life. It involves a series of chemical reactions that use glucose and oxygen to produce carbon dioxide, water, and ATP. There are two types of cellular respiration: aerobic and anaerobic, each with its own unique processes and products.

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A ______ is a mound of cells on a solid medium that represents the progeny from one original bacterial cell.
A.) Culture
B.) Colony
C.) Streak
D.) Quadrant

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A colony is a mound of cells on a solid medium that represents the progeny from one original bacterial cell. Thus, the correct option for this question is B.

What is the colony of bacterial cells?

The colony of bacterial cells may be defined as a group or collections of bacteria that are derived from an identical mother cell. This means that a single mother cell reproduces in order to construct a group of genetically identical cells.

The process of separating a single bacterial cell from other cells and providing it space on a nutrient surface will allow that cell to grow into a mound of cells. This is known as a colony. If formed from a single cell, the colony contains cells from just that species.

Therefore, a colony is a mound of cells on a solid medium that represents the progeny from one original bacterial cell. Thus, the correct option for this question is B.

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Which components determine whether a nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse?
- Enzymes
- Fascicles
- Receptors
- Axon hillock
- Myelin sheath

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The components that determine whether a nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse is Receptors

The key components that determine whether a nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse are receptors. These specialised structures are found on the postsynaptic neuron's surface and bind to neurotransmitter molecules released by the presynaptic neuron. When enough neurotransmitter molecules bind to the receptors, the postsynaptic neuron undergoes a change that can either excite or inhibit the neuron, depending on the type of neurotransmitter and receptor involved.

Enzymes, fascicles, axon hillock, and myelin sheath do not directly affect whether a nerve impulse is transmitted across the synapse. Enzymes can be involved in the breakdown of neurotransmitters after they have been released, fascicles are bundles of nerve fibres, the axon hillock is the location of the action potential in the neuron, and the myelin sheath is a fatty insulating layer that surrounds some axons, speeding up nerve impulse conduction.

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scientists hypothesize that photosynthetic bacteria were engulfed by other, larger cells and eventually evolved to become the organelles we now call

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Scientists hypothesize that photosynthetic bacteria were engulfed by other, larger cells and eventually evolved to become the organelles we now call chloroplasts. This hypothesis is known as the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of chloroplasts.

According to this theory, around 1.5 billion years ago, a eukaryotic cell engulfed a photosynthetic prokaryotic cell, but instead of digesting it, the two cells entered into a mutually beneficial relationship. The photosynthetic prokaryote provided the eukaryotic cell with a source of energy in the form of sugars produced through photosynthesis, while the eukaryotic cell provided the prokaryote with protection and a supply of nutrients.

Over time, the two cells became more integrated, with the photosynthetic prokaryote evolving into a specialized organelle within the eukaryotic cell that we now call a chloroplast. This integration was facilitated by the transfer of genes from the prokaryote to the eukaryotic host, a process known as endosymbiotic gene transfer.

The endosymbiotic theory is supported by several lines of evidence, including similarities in the structure and function of chloroplasts and modern-day photosynthetic bacteria, as well as the presence of chloroplasts in some protists and plants that are closely related to photosynthetic bacteria.

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what is the role of nadh and fadh2 in cellular respiration

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During the process of cellular respiration, NADH and FADH2 serve as electron transporters. High energy electrons from the carbon-hydrogen covalent bonds in glucose are transported by them to the electron.

Transport chain, where they are then moved through a series of redox processes to the terminal electron acceptor of oxygen. NADH and FADH2 serve as electron donors for the electron transport chain. They both contribute electrons to the electron transport chain by giving the oxygen molecule a hydrogen molecule in order to produce water.

For the generation of aerobic ATP, NADH supplies electrons. NADH buildup can be harmful in cells that lack oxygen or have decreased electron transport chain performance. Elevated NADH blocks the traditional NADH-producing pathways, including the oxidation of fat, glutamine, and glucose, to reduce this toxicity.

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The main trait that animals have in common with plants and fungi is that they are all multicellular eukaryotes. Which of these traits distinguishes animals from plants and fungi?A. A neck, Interlocking ribs, Flat head with eyes on topAnimals usually ingest their food first, before they digest it.B. New World Monkeys (Western Hemisphere is referred to as the New World).C. Animals usually ingest their food first, before they digest it.D. A much shorter hip bone that is broader from front to back and wraps around the side.

Answers

The correct option is C ; Animals usually ingest their food first, before they digest it.

The most striking similarity between fungi, plants, and animals is that they are all living organisms belonging to the domain Eukarya, which means they are all composed of eukaryotic cells.

These are cells with a membrane-bound nucleus and a variety of functional organelles that serve the entire organism. The most striking similarity between fungi, plants, and animals is that they are all living organisms belonging to the domain Eukarya, which means they are all composed of eukaryotic cells. These are cells with a membrane-bound nucleus and a variety of functional organelles that serve the entire organism.

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Two organisms belong to the same family in the
modern classification system. List the other ranks in
which these two organisms would also be placed
within this system.

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If two organisms belong to the same family in the modern classification system, they would also be placed within the same order, class, phylum (or division), and kingdom.

What is modern classification system?

The modern classification system is a hierarchical system used to organize and classify living organisms based on their evolutionary relationships and shared characteristics. It is also known as the Linnaean system of classification, named after the Swedish botanist Carolus Linnaeus, who is credited with developing the system in the 18th century.

The modern classification system uses a hierarchical structure, with increasingly specific categories at each level. The categories, in order from broadest to most specific, are: kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, and species. Each category groups organisms based on shared characteristics, with species being the most specific level and representing the smallest group of organisms that can interbreed and produce viable offspring.

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If TRH levels increase, what will directly happen to the levels of TSH and thyroid hormone?
A) Increase; Increase
B) Increase: Decrease
C) Decrease; Increase
D) Decrease; Decrease

Answers

The correct answer is option B) When TRH levels increase, TSH levels will increase and thyroid hormone levels will decrease.

TSH levels will rise in tandem with rising TRH levels. This is due to the fact that TRH stimulates the synthesis of TSH. As part of the hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis, greater TRH stimulates the pituitary gland to create more TSH.

The thyroid gland will be prompted to create more thyroid hormones as a result of greater TSH being present.

The higher TRH levels will also drive the pituitary gland to release more TSH, which will in turn prompt the thyroid gland to generate more thyroid hormones, therefore this boost in thyroid hormone production will only last a short time.

Since the synthesis of thyroid hormones is unable to keep up with the increasing production of TSH, the levels of thyroid hormones will eventually begin to decline.

Therefore, an increase in TRH levels will result in an increase in TSH levels and a decrease in thyroid hormone levels.

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explain why the polypeptide produced when the transformed bacteria

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Polypeptides created during bacterial transformation that translate transferred eukaryotic mRNA which are the examples of this.

The fact that both prokaryotic and eukaryotic organisms may employ the same codon scheme and the almost universal genetic code is proof that all living things share a common ancestor. The process of translating an mRNA molecule's nucleotide sequence into the amino acid sequence that makes up a polypeptide or protein is known as translation. The rRNA and tRNA molecules are not translated during translation; only the mRNA molecule is belonged to it.

The genetic code is nearly universal, and the same codon system can be employed for both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells, therefore the polypeptides created by the translation of eukaryotic mRNAs processed by imported eukaryotic or prokaryotic cells must have the same amino acid sequence.

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Correct Question:

Referring to the figures provided, explain why the polypeptide produced when the transformed bacteria translate the introduced eukaryotic mRNA provides evidence for the common ancestry of all living organisms.

why is the pcr assay a more sensitive and specific test than the coliforms culture test?

Answers

PCR assay targets specific DNA sequences, while coliform culture test relies on growth-based detection, making PCR more sensitive and specific.

What is PCR assay?

PCR (Polymerase Chain Reaction) assay is a laboratory technique that amplifies specific DNA sequences using thermal cycling, allowing for the production of many copies of a target DNA segment. This is achieved by adding specific primers that flank the target sequence and a thermostable DNA polymerase enzyme to a sample containing the target DNA.

The reaction is cycled through three temperatures, allowing for the denaturation, annealing, and extension of the DNA strands, resulting in an exponential amplification of the target sequence that can be detected and analyzed for various applications in research, diagnostics, and forensics.

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True/False? simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur.

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Simple cuboidal epithelia are usually found in areas where secretion and absorption occur. Therefore, it is true.

What is a simple cuboidal epithelium?

The simple cuboidal epithelium consists of a single layer of cells whose height is about equal to their breadth; as a result, cells appear as little cube-shaped portions when viewed perpendicular to the surface. On the horizontal section, the cells resemble a mosaic made of polygonal tiles.

Typically, renal tubules and glandular (secreting) tissue have this type of epithelium. It also helps in absorption. Hence, it is true.

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create a memory device to remember how nitrogenous bases in dna are always paired together:

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A memory device to remember how nitrogenous bases in DNA are always paired together could be the phrase "ATCG: Always Together, Complementary and Grand".

The first letter of each word in the phrase corresponds to the four nitrogenous bases in DNA: A for adenine, T for thymine, C for cytosine, and G for guanine. The phrase serves as a reminder that these four bases are always paired together in a complementary and grand way.DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) is the molecule that carries the genetic instructions for the development, functioning, growth and reproduction of all living organisms. It is made up of four nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA.

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What is the importance of the random segregation of chromosomes during meiosis I?
a. It creates genetic diversity because it increases the likelihood of mutations.
b. It creates genetic diversity because it produces offspring with different combinations of alleles than their parents.
c. It preserves the continuity of the species by ensuring that offspring are genetically identical to their parents.
d. It preserves the continuity of the species by selecting genes that ensure the offspring will survive longer than their parents

Answers

Answer: b. It creates genetic diversity because it produces offspring with different combinations of alleles than their parents.

Explanation: I took the test and got it right.

how can we be less anxious

Answers

Answer:

Take deep breaths, keep some stress toy on you, find things that relax you and focus on something other then what is causing this strong feeling.

Explanation:

Hope this helps!

During the last stages of a viral infection, B cells recognize antigens on the virus and help other immune cells destroy the virus. How will the immune system respond if the same virus invades again?

A. Memory B cells will respond quickly to the same antigens on the virus. B. Memory B cells will respond quickly to a different set of antigens on the virus. C. The immune system will respond to and clear the infection the same way as it did before. D. The immune system will mount a slow, minimal response to the infection, which will be more severe and longer lasting

Answers

When the same virus invades again, the memory B cells will respond quickly to the same antigens on the virus

Thus, the correct answer is A.


When а virus invаdes the body, the immune system responds by producing B cells, which аre а type of immune cell thаt recognizes аnd binds to specific аntigens on the virus. Аfter the infection is cleаred, some of these B cells become memory B cells, which remаin in the body аnd cаn quickly respond if the sаme virus invаdes аgаin. This аllows the immune system to mount а fаster аnd more effective response to the virus, preventing or reducing the severity of the infection.

Therefore, if the sаme virus invаdes аgаin, the memory B cells will respond quickly to the sаme аntigens on the virus, leаding to а fаster аnd more effective immune response.

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the greatest volume of air that can be expelled when a person performs a rapid, forced expiration is the __________.A. inspiratory capacity
B. forced vital capacity
C. peak expiratory flow rate
D. residual volume
E. peak flow zone

Answers

The greatest volume of air that can be expelled when a person performs a rapid, forced expiration is the B. forced vital capacity

What is forced vital capacity?

Total air exhaled during the FEV test is measured as forced vital capacity, or FVC. During spirometry, lung function tests such as forced expiratory volume and forced vital capacity are measured. The most crucial way to assess lung function is through forced expiratory volume.

The amount of air that can be forcibly exhaled from your lungs after you have fully inhaled. Because some air stays in your lungs when you exhale, it is only around 80% of its total capacity, or 4.8 liters. Even in healthy, non-smoking individuals, forced vital capacity might decline by roughly 0.2 liters every decade.

Therefore the greatest volume of air that can be expelled when a person performs a rapid, forced expiration is the B. forced vital capacity

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4. which of your body structures was the sensory receptor in the reaction time test? what was the stimulus?\

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Mechanoreceptors  were the sensory receptors in the reaction time test. The stimulus was sound.

Mechanoreceptors are generally a type of somatosensory receptors in which which extracellular stimulus are relayed to intracellular signal transduction through mechanically gated ion channels.

Four major types of mechanoreceptors that are specialized enough  to provide information to the central nervous system about touch, pressure, vibration, and cutaneous tension. Examples include  Meissner's corpuscles, Pacinian corpuscles, Merkel's disks, and Ruffini's corpuscles.

Stimulus generally means that causes a change in a reaction(biological).Sense organs for example the ear, and sensory receptors, like those in the skin, are generally sensitive to external stimuli such as sound and touch.

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A receptor that monitors stretch of the patellar tendon can be classified as A) mechanoreceptor and interoceptor. B) mechanoreceptor and proprioceptor. C) nociceptor and exteroceptor. D) baroreceptor and proprioceptor.

The correct option is option B. Mechanoreceptor and Propioreceptor.

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Identify the correct statements about GPCR and/or G-proteins. Choose all that apply.
a. G-protein cannot interact productively with GPCR in the absence of ligand binding to the GPCR.
b. When an activated G-protein separates into the a subunit and the B/y dimer, only the a subunit initiates a transduction pathway leading to a cellular response.
c. The a subunit of a G-protein has a nucleotide binding site that is occupied by GDP when the G-protein is in an inactive state.
d. An activated G-protein is a transmembrane protein complex.

Answers

G proteins are used by GPCRs to transmit extracellular signals to intracellular effectors across the plasma membrane. A -subunit, a -subunit, and a -subunit are the three protein subunits that make up a G protein, which is a member of the GTPase family.

What are the four steps in the activation of G protein-coupled receptors?

The most crucial processes are: (1) agonist binding, (2) receptor conformational change, (3) receptor-G protein connection, (4) G protein-effector interaction, (5) change in effector activity, and (6) the consequent ion conductance or second messenger.

What function does the G protein serve in the signaling network of the GPCR?

Relaying signals from GPCRs, which serve as GEFs for G-proteins, is one of the key physiological roles of G-proteins.

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Results from a single locus can prove someone is NOT the father of a certain child.

Select one:
a. True
b. False

Answers

True. The results from a single locus, or a single genetic marker, can prove that someone is not the father of a certain child, but cannot definitively prove that they are the father.

This is because the inheritance of genetic markers is complex, and a match at a single locus does not necessarily mean that two individuals are related.

However, a mismatch at a single locus is sufficient evidence to exclude paternity. When a child is born, they inherit one set of genetic markers from each biological parent. If the genetic marker at a particular locus in the child does not match the genetic marker of the alleged father, then it is certain that the alleged father is not the biological father of the child.

To conclusively establish paternity, a DNA paternity test typically uses multiple genetic markers to achieve a high degree of accuracy. This involves comparing the child's DNA to that of the alleged father, as well as that of the biological mother, to determine the probability of paternity.

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The Manx cat has a very short or no tail due to a dominant trait T. Cats who inherit one dominant (T) and one recessive (t) allele will be tailless (Manx). Cats who are homozygous recessive will have normal, long tails. However, the homozygous dominant condition (TT) is lethal—the embryo will not develop. If two Manx cats breed, what are the chances of Manx offspring or kittens with long tails?

Answers

In the event that two Manx cats breed, the offspring will be tailless (Manx); cats with homozygous recessive alleles will have normal, long tails.

Nevertheless, because the homozygous dominant condition (TT) is fatal, there is no possibility that an embryo will develop and no kittens with long tails or Manx descendants will be born.

Due to a dominant characteristic T, the Manx cat has an extremely short tail or none at all. cats will be short-haired if they receive one dominant (T) and one recessive (t) gene (Manx). Homozygous recessive cats will have typical, long tails. The homozygous dominant condition (TT), however, is fatal since the embryo will not grow.

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On the basis of energy requirement, which does NOT belong to the group? a. The Na/k pump. b. Pure water rushing into celery stalks and bulking them up. GLUTS moving glucose molecules from the bloodstream into cells. c. Spraying lysol in one room and over time smelling it in a room where is wasn't sprayed.

Answers

Celery stalks are inflated by pure water flowing through them, similar to how Lysol is sprayed in one area and gradually detected in another.

What is Lysol's mode of action?

EDTA acts on Mg++ to disrupt the membrane. The cell wall becomes more permeable as a result. Since bacteria's cell walls are negatively charged, positively charged cations such as quaternary ammonium compounds are "attracted" to them (QAC). QACs diffuse through the cell wall after adhering to the cell surface.

What is the chemical disinfectants' mode of action?

The author explains how disinfectants affect cells' energy metabolism, cytoplasmic membrane, and external membrane. These effects include membrane rupture, permeability loss, and cytoplasmic coagulation.

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Of the following choices, which can be a product of a catabolic reaction?a. a nucleic acid like RNAb. a lipid like cholesterolc. an amino acid like tryptophand. a complex carbohydrate like cellulosee. a motor protein like myosin

Answers

An amino acid like tryptophan can be a product of a catabolic reaction.

The correct option is C.

What is a catabolic reaction example?

The digestion of food, testing phase, and glycolysis are some of the most well-known instances of catabolic processes. Large organic molecules including carbohydrates, proteins, and lipids are broken down into smaller ones during these processes.

What does a catabolic reaction serve as?

The energy and materials required by anabolic processes are produced by catabolic reactions. The precise nature of these catabolic events varies from organism to organism; organisms may be characterized based on their main nutritional groups—their sources of energy and carbon.

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The complete question is -

Of the following choices, which can be a product of a catabolic reaction?

A- a nucleic acid like RNA

B- a lipid like cholesterol

C-an amino acid like tryptophan

D-a complex carbohydrate like cellulose

E- a motor protein like myosin

what do scientists most often use to form the basis for biological classification?

Answers

Answer:

in my beliefs all man does not prefect in this case

Explanation:

yes scientific basis for biological classification

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