on january 1 2020, bumper corp. acquires a customer list for 400000. bumper estimates that that this customer list will generate value for at least 5 years. at the end of 3 years, bumpers plans to sell the customers list to another company for 62,500. on bumper's income statement for the year ended december 31, 2020, how much amortization expenses should it report

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Answer 1

On bumper's income statement for the year ended December 31, 2020, the amortization expenses should it report $112,500.

Along with the balance sheet and the cash flow statement, an income statement is one of the three key financial statements that presents a company's financial performance for a certain accounting period.

The revenue, costs, profits, and losses incurred by a corporation during a specific time period are the main topics of the income statement.

The Annual Amortization Expense for the bumper corp. is:

Annual Amortization Expense = (Cost – residual value)/ useful life

Annual Amortization Expense = ($400,000 – $62,500)/ 3 years

Annual Amortization Expense = $112,500

Therefore, the  annual amortization expense is $112,500.

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Offer one example of a barrier to entry that may lead to a monopoly (not the type of monopoly; the actual barrier that prevents new firms from entering the market). Explain in a sentence or two how your example serves as a barrier to entry.

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One example of a barrier to entry that may lead to a monopoly is high economies of scale.

When a market requires a significant investment in infrastructure, specialized equipment, or large-scale production, new entrants may face challenges in achieving the same level of efficiency and cost-effectiveness as established firms.

This barrier to entry creates a disadvantage for potential competitors, as the existing monopolistic firm can produce at lower costs, set lower prices, and deter new entrants from entering the market due to the inability to compete on price and scale.

As a result, the monopolistic firm maintains its dominance and prevents competition from emerging.

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The exchange rate that would have equalized the dollar price of a Big Mac in the United States and the eurozone (that is, the PPP exchange rate for Big Macs) is ($0.72, $0.95, $1.18, $1.39 per euro). This change would mean that the dollar had (depreciated or appreciated) against the euro.

If Big Macs were a durable good that could be costlessly transported between countries, which of the following would present an arbitrage opportunity? Check all that apply.

-Exporting Big Macs from the United Kingdom to Poland

-Exporting Big Macs from the United States to the eurozone

-Exporting Big Macs from India to China

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The PPP exchange rate for Big Macs between the United States and the eurozone is $1.18 per euro. If the exchange rate was currently higher than $1.18, the dollar would have appreciated against the euro, and if it was lower, the dollar would have depreciated against the euro.

If Big Macs could be costlessly transported between countries, then exporting them from countries where they are cheaper to countries where they are more expensive would present an arbitrage opportunity. In this case, exporting Big Macs from the United Kingdom to Poland and from the United States to the eurozone would present such an opportunity since the Big Mac is cheaper in the UK and the US than in Poland and the eurozone, respectively.

However, exporting Big Macs from India to China would not present an arbitrage opportunity since the Big Mac is actually more expensive in India than in China.

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case management service delivery is different today when compared to case management in the 1970s and 1980s because?

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Case management service delivery has undergone significant changes since the 1970s and 1980s due to various factors and evolving practices.

Some reasons why case management service delivery is different today compared to that time period include:

Shift from institutional care to community-based care: In the past, there was a greater emphasis on institutional care settings such as psychiatric hospitals or nursing homes. However, there has been a movement towards community-based care models, with a focus on supporting individuals in their homes and communities. Case management now involves coordinating services across various community resources and providers to promote independence and integration.

Holistic and person-centered approach: Modern case management emphasizes a holistic and person-centered approach. Rather than focusing solely on specific services or treatments, case managers now consider the overall well-being and individual needs of the person they are assisting. They take into account factors such as physical health, mental health, housing, employment, and social support networks.

Collaborative and multidisciplinary approach: Case management today often involves collaboration and coordination among multiple professionals and service providers. Case managers work closely with various stakeholders, including healthcare professionals, social workers, therapists, and community organizations, to ensure comprehensive care and support for the individual.

Use of technology and data: The advancement of technology has greatly impacted case management service delivery. Electronic health records, communication tools, and data analytics enable case managers to access and share information more efficiently, track progress, and make data-driven decisions. Technology also facilitates remote communication and telehealth services, increasing accessibility and convenience for individuals receiving case management services.

Increased focus on outcomes and evidence-based practice: Contemporary case management places a greater emphasis on outcomes measurement and evidence-based practice. There is a stronger emphasis on monitoring and evaluating the effectiveness of interventions, using evidence-based approaches to guide decision-making, and continuously improving service delivery based on research and best practices.

Overall, case management service delivery has evolved to prioritize community integration, person-centered care, collaboration, technology utilization, and evidence-based practice, resulting in a more comprehensive and effective approach to supporting individuals in need.

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Onkon wants to cover his rooms floor with his Favourite red carpet. How many square yards of red carpet are required to cover a rectangular floor that is 12 feet long and 9 feet wide

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Onkon needs 4 square yards of red carpet to cover the rectangular floor. Firstly, we need to convert the length and width of the rectangular floor from feet to yards.

Length of floor in yards = 12 feet ÷ 3 feet/yards = 4 yards Width of floor in yards = 9 feet ÷ 3 feet/yards = 3 yards Now, to find the total area of the floor in square yards, we need to multiply the length and width of the floor in yards.
Area of floor in square yards = 4 yards x 3 yards = 12 square yards Therefore, Onkon needs 12 square yards of red carpet to cover the rectangular floor. However, since carpets are usually sold by the square yard, he will need to buy at least 4 square yards of red carpet to ensure full coverage of the floor.


To cover a rectangular floor that is 12 feet long and 9 feet wide with Onkon's Favourite red carpet, we need to determine the total area of the floor in square yards. Firstly, we need to convert the length and width of the rectangular floor from feet to yards. Since one yard is equal to three feet, we can divide the length and width of the floor by 3 to get their values in yards. Length of floor in yards = 12 feet ÷ 3 feet/yards = 4 yards Width of floor in yards = 9 feet ÷ 3 feet/yards = 3 yards Now, we have the dimensions of the floor in yards, and we can find the total area of the floor in square yards by multiplying the length and width of the floor. Area of floor in square yards = 4 yards x 3 yards = 12 square yards Therefore, Onkon needs 12 square yards of red carpet to cover the rectangular floor. However, it is important to note that carpets are usually sold by the square yard, so he will need to buy at least 4 square yards of red carpet to ensure full coverage of the floor.  In summary, to cover a rectangular floor that is 12 feet long and 9 feet wide with Onkon's Favourite red carpet, he needs 12 square yards of carpet or at least 4 square yards of red carpet to ensure full coverage of the floor.

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What is the meaning of the connection between the relation with the single rectangle and the double diamond relationship

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The connection between the relation with the single rectangle and the double diamond relationship indicates a one-to-many relationship.

In entity-relationship modeling, a single rectangle represents an entity or a singular occurrence, while a double diamond represents a relationship or association between entities. When the relationship is depicted between a single rectangle and a double diamond, it signifies a one-to-many relationship.

This means that each instance in the single rectangle can have multiple corresponding instances in the double diamond. It implies that for every occurrence in the single entity, there can be multiple related occurrences in the associated entity, allowing for a hierarchical or parent-child relationship between the entities.

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At year-end, Barr Company had shipped $12,500 of merchandise FOB destination to Lee Company. Which company should include the $12,500 of merchandise in transit as part of its year-end inventory

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The company that should include the $12,500 of merchandise in transit as part of its year-end inventory is Lee Company. FOB destination means that the seller (Barr Company) is responsible for the goods until they reach the destination (Lee Company).

Since the merchandise is in transit, it has not yet reached Lee Company's location by year-end. According to generally accepted accounting principles (GAAP), the ownership and responsibility for inventory typically transfer when goods are delivered to the buyer's location. Therefore, Lee Company should include the $12,500 of merchandise in transit as part of its year-end inventory since the ownership and control of the goods have not yet transferred to them. Barr Company, as the seller, would not include the merchandise in transit as part of its year-end inventory since it is no longer in their possession or control.

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People's attitudes toward organized religion in the 1950s were ________. Group of answer choices incredibly positive and religious affiliation boomed seen mainly in the growing numbers of Protestants that it was the only way to deal with the emotional stress of the Cold War that it was not as important in their lives as in previous generations'

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People's attitudes towards organized religion in the 1950s were positive, leading to a booming religious affiliation, with Protestants seen as an important way to cope with the Cold War.

During the 1950s, there was a prevailing atmosphere of strong religious sentiment in society, characterized by incredibly positive attitudes toward organized religion. This era witnessed a significant increase in religious affiliation, particularly among Protestants. The post-World War II period and the subsequent Cold War era led many individuals to seek solace and a sense of stability in religion. The threat of nuclear war and the ongoing ideological tensions of the Cold War created emotional stress and anxiety among people, prompting them to turn to religious beliefs and practices for comfort and reassurance.

Religion, during this time, played a crucial role in providing a framework for understanding and coping with the uncertainties of the era. It offered a sense of community, moral guidance, and a source of hope amidst the fears of the nuclear age. Churches and religious institutions were central gathering places where individuals found support, a sense of belonging, and a means to address their emotional and spiritual needs.

However, it's worth noting that while religion held significant importance in the lives of many during the 1950s, there were also shifting attitudes emerging among certain segments of the population. Some individuals, particularly younger generations, began to question or challenge the traditional religious values and practices that had dominated previous generations. This marked the beginning of a gradual decline in religious influence and the rise of a more secular outlook in the decades that followed.

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Aidan needs a four-year degree to become a teacher but wants to save as much money as possible. Which would be his best strategy

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To save as much money as possible while pursuing a four-year degree to become a teacher, Aidan can consider the following strategies:

1. Attend a Community College: Aidan can start his educational journey by enrolling in a community college for the first two years. Community colleges often offer lower tuition fees compared to four-year institutions. He can complete general education requirements and prerequisite courses at a more affordable rate.

2. Transfer to a State/Public University: After completing the initial two years at a community college, Aidan can transfer to a state or public university to complete the remaining two years of his degree. State universities often have lower tuition fees for in-state residents, providing cost savings compared to private institutions.

3. Apply for Financial Aid and Scholarships: Aidan should explore all available financial aid options, including scholarships, grants, and work-study programs. He can research and apply for scholarships specifically targeted towards education majors or teaching careers.

4. Consider Online or Hybrid Programs: Online or hybrid programs offer flexibility and potentially lower tuition costs. Aidan can explore accredited online programs that offer education degrees, ensuring they meet the necessary requirements for teacher certification.

5. Work Part-Time or Seek Employment with Tuition Assistance: Aidan can work part-time or seek employment opportunities that offer tuition assistance or reimbursement programs. This can help offset his educational expenses while gaining valuable work experience.

By combining these strategies, Aidan can minimize his expenses and save as much money as possible while pursuing his four-year degree to become a teacher.

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consider an economy which is producing two goods computers (c) and shoes (s) using two factors of production capital and labor. to produce one computer, it requires 200 units of capital and 5 units of labor. to produce a pair of shoes, it requires 10 units of capital and 1 units of labor. (unlike the cobb-douglas production used in the text, here we are using fixed proportions (leontief) production functions to make the math easier. that is, the 2 inputs are used in fixed proportions and cannot be substituted for each other) (a) (3 points) calculate the capital/labor ratios used in computers and shoes. which good is more capital-intensive? now, suppose the price of one computer is $500 and the price of a pair of shoes is $40. (b) (4 points) using the information on goods prices and the production function for the two goods calculate the wage and the rental rate of capital. (c) (8 points) suppose the price of computer increases to $650 but the price of shoes remains at $40. verify the stolper-samuelson theorem.

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To calculate the capital/labor ratios used in computers and shoes, we can divide the units of capital by the units of labor required for each good.

The capital/labor ratio for computers can be calculated as 200 units of capital divided by 5 units of labor, which equals 40 units of capital per unit of labor. The capital/labor ratio for shoes can be calculated as 10 units of capital divided by 1 unit of labor, which equals 10 units of capital per unit of labor. Therefore, computers are more capital-intensive than shoes since the capital/labor ratio is higher for computers.

To calculate the wage and rental rate of capital, we can use the concept of marginal products and prices. The marginal product of labor (MPL) for computers is the change in computer output when one unit of labor is added, and it is given by 1/5. The marginal product of capital (MPK) for computers is the change in computer output when one unit of capital is added, and it is 1/200. The marginal product of labor (MPL) for shoes is 1, and the marginal product of capital (MPK) for shoes is 1/10.

Using the prices of computers ($500) and shoes ($40), we can equate the marginal products of labor and capital to their respective prices to find the wage and rental rate of capital.

For computers: MPL x Wage = MPK x Rental Rate

(1/5) x Wage = (1/200) x Rental Rate

For shoes: MPL x Wage = MPK x Rental Rate

1 x Wage = (1/10) x Rental Rate

Solving these equations will give us the wage and rental rate of capital.

With the price of computers increasing to $650 and the price of shoes remaining at $40, we can reevaluate the calculations. The new prices affect the relative returns to capital and labor.

Using the new price for computers ($650) and the previous price for shoes ($40), we can again equate the marginal products of labor and capital to their respective prices to find the new wage and rental rate of capital.

For computers: MPL x Wage = MPK x Rental Rate

(1/5) x Wage = (1/200) x Rental Rate

For shoes: MPL x Wage = MPK x Rental Rate

1 x Wage = (1/10) x Rental Rate

Comparing the new wage and rental rate of capital with the initial values will verify whether the Stolper-Samuelson theorem holds. If the wage and rental rate of capital increase, the theorem is supported, while if they decrease, the theorem is contradicted.

To verify the Stolper-Samuelson theorem, we need to compare the new wage and rental rate of capital after the price change for computers. If the wage and rental rate of capital increase, it indicates that the factor prices move in favor of the more capital-intensive good (computers), supporting the theorem. Conversely, if the wage and rental rate of capital decrease, it contradicts the theorem.

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The law requires you to use your headlights when __________ and whenever you are using your windshield wipers to clear rain, snow, sleet, etc.

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The law requires you to use your headlights when visibility is reduced due to weather conditions such as fog, rain, snow, sleet, or hail.

It is also mandatory to use your headlights whenever you are using your windshield wipers to clear rain, snow, sleet, etc. This is because when windshield wipers are in use, it indicates that weather conditions have reduced visibility, which makes it difficult for other drivers to see you.

Using headlights increases your visibility on the road, making it easier for other drivers to notice your vehicle, especially during inclement weather. It is important to follow these rules to ensure your safety and that of other drivers on the road. Failure to comply with these laws can lead to fines and other penalties.

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Accrued expenses Deferred revenues Accrued revenues Deferred expenses ANSWER Advance cash payments of future expenses. A revenue that has been earned but cash has not yet been collected. Advance cash receipts of future revenues. An expense that has been incurred but not paid.

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Accrued expenses and deferred revenues are financial concepts that involve the recognition of income or expenses before or after the associated cash flows occur.

Accrued expenses refer to advance cash payments made for future expenses, while deferred revenues represent revenue that has been earned but not yet collected in cash. These two concepts are essential for proper financial reporting and tracking of transactions.

Accrued expenses occur when a company makes advance payments for expenses that will be incurred in the future. This means that even though the cash has been paid upfront, the actual expense will be recognized and recorded in the books at a later date when the goods or services are received or consumed. This allows for accurate matching of expenses with the period in which they are incurred, ensuring more accurate financial statements.

Deferred revenues, on the other hand, are revenues that have been earned by a company but have not been collected in cash yet. This typically occurs when a company receives advance cash payments from customers for products or services that will be provided at a later date. The revenue is deferred until the goods or services are delivered, at which point it is recognized as revenue in the financial statements. This approach ensures that revenues are recorded in the appropriate accounting period and aligns with the matching principle.

In summary, accrued expenses and deferred revenues are financial terms used to describe the recognition of expenses and revenues before or after the corresponding cash flows occur. Accrued expenses involve advance cash payments for future expenses, while deferred revenues represent earned revenue that is yet to be collected in cash. These concepts enable proper financial reporting and help ensure accurate matching of expenses and revenues with their respective accounting periods.

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During a laboratory investigation, students determined a large block of iron to have a density of 7.75 g/mL. If the block were to be cut in half, what would be the density of the smaller block

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When a block of iron is cut in half, the density of the smaller block will remain the same as the density of the larger block. Density is an intrinsic property of a substance and does not change with the size or shape of the object.

In this case, the density of the large block of iron is determined to be 7.75 g/mL. When the block is cut in half, the mass of the smaller block will be half of the original mass, but the volume will also be half of the original volume.

Since density is calculated as mass divided by volume, if both the mass and volume are halved, the ratio of mass to volume (density) will remain constant. Therefore, the density of the smaller block after it is cut in half will still be 7.75 g/mL.

To summarize, the density of the smaller block of iron remains the same as the density of the larger block, regardless of the size or shape of the object.

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prices in country a sharply rose due to a supply shortage and led to high levels of inflation in the economy. what effect is this price increase likely to have on domestic currency in the foreign exchange market? country a's domestic currency will see an appreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners. country a's domestic currency will see a depreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners. country a's domestic currency will see no change, in relation to currencies of other trading partners. country a's domestic currency will see both appreciation and depreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners. there is insufficient information to draw a conclusion.

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The effect is this price increase likely to have on domestic currency in the foreign exchange market Option B. Country A's domestic currency will see a depreciation, in relation to the currencies of other trading partners.

When a country experiences a supply shortage and high levels of inflation, the overall purchasing power of the domestic currency declines. This is because the general price level increases, making goods and services more expensive. As a result, the value of the domestic currency, in terms of the goods and services it can purchase, decreases.

In the foreign exchange market, the value of a currency is determined by its supply and demand. When the domestic currency's purchasing power decreases, people may want to hold less of it and instead opt for more stable foreign currencies. Consequently, the demand for domestic currency falls, leading to a depreciation in its value relative to other currencies.

Additionally, high inflation can erode the country's competitiveness in international trade, as the higher prices of its goods and services make them less attractive to foreign buyers. This can lead to a decline in export demand, further reducing the demand for the domestic currency and causing it to depreciate.

In summary, a supply shortage leading to high levels of inflation in Country A will likely result in a depreciation of its domestic currency in the foreign exchange market, as the currency's purchasing power declines and demand for it decreases. Therefore, the correct option is B.

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prices in country a sharply rose due to a supply shortage and led to high levels of inflation in the economy. what effect is this price increase likely to have on domestic currency in the foreign exchange market?

A. country A's domestic currency will see an appreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners.

B. country A's domestic currency will see a depreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners.

C. country A's domestic currency will see no change, in relation to currencies of other trading partners.

D. country A's domestic currency will see both appreciation and depreciation, in relation to currencies of other trading partners. there is insufficient information to draw a conclusion.

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In the case study in the text involving calculator production, the fact that each calculator produced added $10.30 to cost and $12 to revenue made clear the value of ____ in determining whether or not to suspend production.

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The value of marginal analysis is what was made clear in the calculator production case study, in determining whether or not to suspend production. Marginal analysis is a decision-making tool used to evaluate the additional costs and benefits of producing one additional unit of a product.

In this case, the fact that each calculator produced added $10.30 to cost and $12 to revenue demonstrates the importance of understanding marginal costs and marginal revenues in determining the profitability of continuing production. By comparing the marginal cost and marginal revenue, the company can determine if producing an additional calculator will result in a profit or a loss, and make an informed decision about whether or not to continue production.

the value of marginal analysis was highlighted in the case study as a crucial factor in determining whether or not to suspend calculator production. In the case study in the text involving calculator production, the fact that each calculator produced added $10.30 to cost and $12 to revenue made clear the value of "marginal analysis" in determining whether or not to suspend production.

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Gilly is very overweight, and she has an identical twin who lived with an adoptive family while growing up. Given what you know about genetic and environmental factors in weight status, you would:

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Based on the information provided and considering genetic and environmental factors in weight status, you would likely expect that Gilly and her identical twin may have similar genetic predispositions to being overweight.

However, their actual weight statuses could differ due to the environmental factors and lifestyle choices in their respective adoptive families. This could include differences in diet, exercise habits, and other factors that influence weight.

It is possible that Gilly's adoptive family provided a different environment compared to her upbringing, which could have influenced her weight status.

Overall, it is important to consider both genetic and environmental factors when assessing an individual's weight status. A comprehensive approach that includes lifestyle modifications and medical interventions may be necessary for effective weight management.

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Jamal believes that he is being followed but shows no other psychotic symptoms. Other than his delusion, he does not act oddly or have difficulty functioning. He is most likely to be diagnosed with

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Jamal's belief that he is being followed while showing no other psychotic symptoms suggests a specific diagnosis called "delusional disorder."

Delusional disorder is a psychiatric condition characterized by the presence of persistent delusions without other prominent psychotic symptoms, such as hallucinations or disorganized thinking. Individuals with delusional disorder generally maintain a relatively normal level of functioning, apart from the impact of their delusional beliefs. The delusions experienced in delusional disorder are typically non-bizarre, meaning they could happen in real life, although they are firmly held despite evidence to the contrary. In Jamal's case, his belief of being followed falls within this category. It's important to note that delusional disorder is diagnosed when the delusions cannot be better explained by another mental health condition, such as schizophrenia or a mood disorder with psychotic features.

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A major medical problem with a very low-fat diet could be: A major medical problem with a very low-fat diet could be: essential fatty acid deficiency. too much linoleic acid too little dietary fiber relative lack of satiety

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A major medical problem that can arise from a very low-fat diet is essential fatty acid deficiency. Essential fatty acids, such as omega-3 and omega-6 fatty acids, play crucial roles in the body, including maintaining healthy cell membranes, supporting brain function, and regulating inflammation. These fatty acids cannot be synthesized by the body and must be obtained through the diet.

A very low-fat diet may not provide sufficient amounts of essential fatty acids, leading to a deficiency. Symptoms of essential fatty acid deficiency can include dry and scaly skin, poor wound healing, impaired immune function, hormonal imbalances, and cognitive issues.

Additionally, a very low-fat diet may result in too little dietary fiber. Dietary fiber is essential for maintaining a healthy digestive system, promoting regular bowel movements, and preventing conditions like constipation and diverticulosis. Insufficient fiber intake can lead to digestive issues, including bloating, irregularity, and a higher risk of developing certain gastrointestinal disorders.

Furthermore, a low-fat diet may lack satiety, as fat contributes to feelings of fullness and satisfaction after a meal. Without an adequate amount of fat in the diet, individuals may experience increased hunger, difficulty maintaining a healthy weight, and potential nutrient deficiencies if they cannot consume enough nutrient-rich foods to compensate for the lack of fat.

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a risky asset p has an expected rate of return of 15% and a standard deviation of 20%, and a riskless treasury bill pays 5%. what is the risk premium of the risky asset? group of answer choices A. 0% B. 15% C. 5% D. 10%

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The risk premium of the risky asset P is 10%, indicating that investors expect an additional return of 10% for holding the asset compared to a risk-free treasury bill. Here option D is the correct answer.

The risk premium of a risky asset is the additional return it offers above the risk-free rate as compensation for taking on higher risk. In this case, the risk-free rate is given as 5% from the treasury bill.

To calculate the risk premium of the risky asset (P), we subtract the risk-free rate from its expected rate of return.

Risk premium = Expected rate of return - Risk-free rate

Risk premium = 15% - 5% = 10%

Therefore, the risk premium of the risky asset P is 10%.

This means that investors are expecting an additional return of 10% for holding the risky asset P compared to investing in a risk-free treasury bill. The higher risk associated with the asset, as indicated by its standard deviation of 20%, justifies the higher expected return of 15% and the corresponding risk premium of 10%.

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Why should the FDIC be concerned regarding the offerings of mortgage-backed bonds (MBBs): Multiple Choice the FDIC is concerned about investors' prepayment risk. MBBs increase deposit insurance premiums. the process reduces the amount of assets available to back insured deposits. the process takes loans off th balance sheet and replaces them with liabilities. None of the options are correct.

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The correct option is: None of the options are correct. The FDIC (Federal Deposit Insurance Corporation) is primarily concerned with insuring deposits and maintaining the stability of the banking system.

Mortgage-backed bonds (MBBs) are securities that are backed by a pool of mortgage loans. While MBBs play a role in the broader financial market, they do not directly impact the FDIC's concerns or responsibilities in the context of deposit insurance and bank stability.

The FDIC's primary concerns are related to issues such as bank failures, deposit insurance coverage, maintaining sufficient reserves to protect insured deposits, and regulating and supervising financial institutions to ensure their safety and soundness. While MBBs may have implications for investors, they do not directly impact the FDIC's core functions.

Therefore, the correct answer is that the FDIC should not be specifically concerned about the offerings of mortgage-backed bonds (MBBs).

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Which of the following is true of a payoff matrix? It is the representation of only the best response of each player. It takes into account all relevant costs and benefits associated with each action of the players. It does not represent all the costs and benefits associated with the choices of the players. It shows the payment made to each factor of production for the production of a good

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The correct option is: "It takes into account all relevant costs and benefits associated with each action of the players."

A payoff matrix is a tool used in game theory to represent the potential outcomes and payoffs associated with different strategies or actions taken by players in a game or decision-making scenario. It displays the potential rewards, benefits, or costs that each player can receive based on their choices and the choices of other players.

The payoff matrix considers all relevant costs and benefits associated with each action taken by the players. It provides a comprehensive overview of the potential outcomes and their associated payoffs, allowing players to analyze and determine the optimal strategy based on their objectives.

While it represents the costs and benefits of different actions, it does not specifically show the payment made to each factor of production for the production of a good. That falls within the realm of cost accounting or production economics, which is different from the concept of a payoff matrix in game theory.

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Which of the following is true of a payoff matrix?

It is the representation of only the best response of each player.

It takes into account all relevant costs and benefits associated with each action of the players.

It does not represent all the costs and benefits associated with the choices of the players.

It shows the payment made to each factor of production for the production of a good

hamish works for a social media website that caters to senior adults and allows them to engage with their families over the internet for a small subscription. in the past, the company has focused on retirement communities, but hamish thinks they would get more subscribers by focusing on seniors who live by themselves. he should prepare a presentation for senior staff that focuses primarily on influencing which decision maker in his company? multiple choice the editorial director the design director the security director the marketing director the human resources director

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Hamish should prepare a presentation primarily focused on influencing (d) the marketing director in his company.

The marketing director is responsible for developing and implementing strategies to attract and retain customers. In this case, Hamish believes that targeting seniors who live by themselves would bring in more subscribers for the social media website. By presenting compelling arguments and data to the marketing director, Hamish can demonstrate the potential benefits of shifting the company's focus from retirement communities to seniors living alone.

The marketing director will be interested in understanding the target market, customer preferences, and effective marketing tactics to reach and engage with seniors who live by themselves. They will assess the potential impact on subscription numbers, revenue, and overall business growth.

While the other roles mentioned (editorial director, design director, security director, and human resources director) may have their own areas of influence within the company, the marketing director is most directly responsible for customer acquisition and retention strategies. Thus, they would be the key decision-maker to convince when it comes to targeting a new segment of customers like seniors who live alone.

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Which of the following items are part of a business' set of financial statements?
Select one:
a. Income statement
b. Balance sheet
c. Statement of cash flows
d. Both a. and b. above
e. a., b., and c. above

Answers

A business' set of financial statements typically includes the following components:

a. Income statement: This statement provides information about the company's revenues, expenses, and net income or loss over a specific period. It shows the profitability of the business.

b. Balance sheet: This statement presents the company's financial position at a specific point in time, showing its assets, liabilities, and shareholders' equity. It provides a snapshot of the company's financial health.

c. Statement of cash flows: This statement details the inflows and outflows of cash during a specific period, categorizing them into operating activities, investing activities, and financing activities. It helps assess the company's cash flow and liquidity.

Therefore, all three statements, the income statement, balance sheet, and statement of cash flows, are part of a business' set of financial statements.

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Powell Company purchases $4,500 of merchandise on credit. Required: What is the effect of this transaction on individual asset accounts, individual liability accounts, the Capital Stock account, and the Retained Earnings account

Answers

Both cash and account receivable are assets hence, answer is an asset account increases and an asset account decreases.

Paticulars                             Dr                        Cr

Entry would be    

Cash Dr                               8,850.00  

To Accounts receivable                          8,850.00

Journal entries are records of the money that comes in and goes out of your company. All of these transactions are entered into the general journal, the corporate book.

The first phase in the accounting cycle is journal entries. You should be aware that all journal entries in accounting use the double-accounting method.

This means that there is always a debit entry and a credit entry for every recorded transaction because two accounts are impacted.

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The planet was initially called 51 Pegasi b, but has now been officially named Dimidium. (The star 51 Pegasi is 50 light-years away.) What was surprising about this first exoplanet

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The discovery of 51 Pegasi b, now officially named Dimidium, was significant because it was the first exoplanet ever detected orbiting a Sun-like star.

The surprising aspect of this discovery was that 51 Pegasi b was a "Hot Jupiter" type of planet, meaning it was a gas giant similar to Jupiter but located very close to its parent star.

Prior to the discovery of 51 Pegasi b in 1995 by Swiss astronomers Michel Mayor and Didier Queloz, it was commonly believed that gas giants could only exist in the outer regions of star systems, where conditions are more suitable for their formation. However, the existence of 51 Pegasi b challenged this assumption, as it orbited its parent star at a distance much closer than Mercury is to our Sun.

This finding was surprising because it posed a challenge to existing theories of planetary formation and raised questions about how such a planet could form so close to its star. The discovery of 51 Pegasi b opened up new possibilities and prompted scientists to revise their understanding of planetary formation and migration processes. It marked a major milestone in the study of exoplanets and ignited a wave of subsequent exoplanet discoveries, revolutionizing our understanding of the diversity and distribution of planetary systems in the universe.

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the defining characteristic(s) of progressing to continuous delivery is:

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The defining characteristic of progressing to continuous delivery is the ability to release software changes to production frequently and reliably.

It involves adopting a set of practices and techniques that enable a smooth and automated software delivery pipeline. Key characteristics of progressing to continuous delivery include:

Automated Build and Deployment: Continuous delivery emphasizes the automation of build, testing, and deployment processes. This ensures that software changes can be quickly and consistently built, tested, and deployed to production environments.

Continuous Integration: Continuous integration involves merging code changes from multiple developers into a shared repository frequently. This ensures that code conflicts are detected early, enabling teams to resolve issues promptly.

Continuous Testing: Continuous delivery relies on a robust and automated testing strategy. It involves running a suite of tests, including unit tests, integration tests, and acceptance tests, to verify the quality and functionality of the software at every stage of the delivery process.

Configuration Management: Effective configuration management ensures that software deployments are reproducible and consistent across different environments. This involves managing and versioning software configurations, dependencies, and infrastructure as code.

Release Orchestration: Continuous delivery involves streamlining the release process through release orchestration. This includes managing release versions, coordinating deployments, and ensuring smooth rollbacks if necessary.

By adopting these practices, organizations can achieve a state of continuous delivery, enabling them to deliver software updates rapidly, frequently, and with high quality.

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Discuss what aspects of Zara supplier relations permit it to bring affordable apparel to market even though its European supply base is arguably more expensive than say manufacturing in Vietnam or Bangladesh.

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Zara's ability to bring affordable apparel to the market despite having a relatively expensive European supply base can be attributed to several aspects of its supplier relations.

Firstly, Zara maintains close and long-term relationships with its suppliers. By working closely with a limited number of suppliers, Zara establishes strong partnerships that enable effective collaboration, efficient communication, and mutual trust. These relationships foster a sense of shared objectives and facilitate the quick response to changing fashion trends.

Secondly, Zara operates on a fast-fashion model characterized by short production and delivery lead times. By producing in close proximity to its European markets, Zara reduces transportation costs and minimizes lead times, allowing it to quickly respond to customer demands and changing fashion trends. This agility and speed-to-market give Zara a competitive advantage over brands relying on distant manufacturing locations.

Additionally, Zara's vertically integrated supply chain contributes to its affordability. The company controls various stages of the supply chain, including design, manufacturing, and distribution. This vertical integration allows Zara to streamline operations, reduce costs, and maintain greater control over the production process.

Furthermore, Zara's emphasis on in-house production and its ability to quickly replenish stock based on real-time sales data help minimize inventory costs and avoid overproduction.

While manufacturing in countries like Vietnam or Bangladesh may offer lower labor costs, Zara's supplier relations, close proximity to its target markets, fast-fashion approach, and vertical integration allow it to offset the higher European supply base costs and bring affordable apparel to market.

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Drugs on schedule _____ have clearly accepted medical usefulness and the lowest potential for abuse.

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Drugs on Schedule V are classified as having clearly accepted medical usefulness and the lowest potential for abuse among the controlled substances.

The scheduling of drugs is a classification system established by the U.S. Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) to categorize substances based on their medical value and potential for abuse.Schedule V drugs are considered to have the least risk of abuse and dependence compared to substances in higher schedules. These drugs typically contain limited amounts of certain narcotics, such as cough suppressants with codeine, antidiarrheal medications, and some analgesics. The classification of drugs into different schedules helps regulate their production, distribution, and use. Schedule V drugs, with their recognized medical benefits and minimal potential for abuse, are subject to less stringent regulations compared to substances in higher schedules. This classification aims to strike a balance between ensuring access to necessary medications and preventing misuse or diversion.By acknowledging the medical usefulness and low abuse potential of drugs in Schedule V, the classification system provides guidance for healthcare professionals, regulatory authorities, and law enforcement agencies in managing and controlling these substances appropriately.

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Hark, CPA, failed to follow generally accepted auditing standards in auditing Long Corp.'s financial statements. Long's management had told Hark that the audited statements would be submitted to several banks to obtain financing. Relying on the statements, Third Bank gave Long a loan. Long defaulted on the loan. In a jurisdiction applying the Ultramares decision, if Third sues Hark, Hark will

Answers

In a jurisdiction applying the Ultramar's decision, if Third sues Hark, Hark will Lose because Hark was negligent in performing the audit. (option d).

The Ultramares decision is a legal principle that emerged from a court case in the United States in 1931. It established a standard for determining the liability of auditors to third parties who rely on their audited financial statements. According to the Ultramares decision, auditors can only be held liable to third parties if there is a privity of contract or a relationship akin to privity.

If it can be proven that Hark CPA failed to follow generally accepted auditing standards in auditing Long Corp.'s financial statements, it would indicate negligence on their part. Negligence refers to the failure to exercise reasonable care or fulfill professional obligations. In such a scenario, the Ultramares decision would likely support Third Bank's claim, making it more likely for Hark to lose the lawsuit.

In conclusion, based on the information provided, option D is the most plausible outcome in a jurisdiction applying the Ultramares decision.

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Complete Question:

Hark CPA, failed to follow generally accepted auditing standards in auditing Long Corp.’s financial statements. Long’s management had told Hark that the audited statements would be submitted to several banks to obtain financing. Relying on the statements, Third Bank gave Long a loan.

Long defaulted on the loan.

In a jurisdiction applying the Ultramar's decision, if Third sues Hark, Hark will

A. Win because there was no privity of contract between Hark and Third.

B. Lose because Hark knew that banks would be relying on the financial statements.

C. Win because Third was contributorily negligent in granting the loan.

D. Lose because Hark was negligent in performing the audit.

Dan is angry about what he perceives to be misconduct on the part of his agent during the sale of his home. He successfully sues his agent for damages but is unable to collect from the agent. He then asks the Court to file a claim with the Commission. Where will the reimbursement money come from

Answers

Where Dan successfully sues his agent for damages but is unable to collect from the agent, and he asks the Court to file a claim with the Commission, the reimbursement money typically comes from a recovery fund or a similar mechanism established by the regulatory agency overseeing real estate transactions.

 Many jurisdictions have established such funds to provide compensation to individuals who suffer financial losses due to the actions or misconduct of licensed agents. These funds are funded by fees paid by licensed agents and brokers as part of their regulatory requirements. When a claim is filed and approved, the reimbursement money is typically disbursed from the recovery fund to compensate the aggrieved party for their losses. The purpose of these funds is to provide a form of protection and recourse for consumers in cases where they are unable to collect damages directly from the responsible agent or broker.

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which of the following statements is correct? a. individual decision making is more complex than group decision making b. neither one is complex c. individual and group decision making are equally complex d. group decision making is more complex than individual decision making

Answers

The correct statement is that individual decision making is less complex than group decision making.

So, the correct answer is D.

Individual and group decision-making have different complexities. Individual decision-making is generally less complex than group decision-making, with one person making the decision and possibly using their own values, beliefs, and experience to arrive at a conclusion.

Given this scenario, group decision-making is seen as more complex than individual decision-making. This is due to the fact that it entails bringing together individuals from diverse backgrounds and perspectives to work together and arrive at a common decision.

A variety of factors must be considered, such as group dynamics, individual preferences, power dynamics, conflict resolution, and so on, all of which contribute to the complexity of group decision-making. As a result, group decision-making is seen as more complicated than individual decision-making.

Hence, the answer of the question is D.

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