The statement "parasympathetic fibers innervate the sweat glands, arrector pili, and smooth muscles of the arteries" is true.
The parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for regulating various functions in the body, including the sweat glands, arrector pili muscles, and smooth muscles of the arteries.
The parasympathetic fibers innervate these structures, meaning that they provide the nerve fibers that allow for communication between the brain and these specific parts of the body.
When the parasympathetic nervous system is activated, it can cause the sweat glands to produce sweat, the arrector pili muscles to contract (which causes the hair to stand up), and the smooth muscles of the arteries to relax (which can lead to vasodilation).
These responses are all important for regulating body temperature and maintaining homeostasis.
It's important to note that the sympathetic nervous system also plays a role in regulating these structures but in a different way than the parasympathetic system.
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Upon removal of the larynx, a person would no longer be able to:-swallow.-sneeze.-produce sounds.-cough.
Upon removal of the larynx, a person would no longer be able to produce sounds because the larynx contains the vocal cords, which are essential for speech.
However, the person would still be able to swallow, sneeze, and cough because these actions are controlled by other parts of the body, such as the pharynx and lungs. The larynx, also known as the voice box, is a part of the respiratory system located in the neck. It contains the vocal cords, which vibrate when air passes through them, producing sound. The sound produced by the vocal cords is then shaped into speech by the movement of the tongue, lips, and other parts of the mouth and throat. If the larynx is removed, the person would no longer be able to speak or produce any vocal sounds. However, they would still be able to breathe, swallow, sneeze, and cough. These functions are controlled by other parts of the respiratory system and the body in general. Swallowing is a complex process that involves the coordinated movement of the tongue, pharynx, and esophagus. Even without the larynx, these parts of the body can still work together to allow a person to swallow food and liquids. Sneezing and coughing are reflex actions that help to clear the airways of irritants and foreign objects. These actions are controlled by the nervous system and do not require the larynx. In summary, while the removal of the larynx would result in the loss of speech and the ability to produce vocal sounds, a person would still be able to perform other important functions, such as breathing, swallowing, sneezing, and coughing.
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Interaction:Caterpillars (1) eat passionflower leaves (2)
It is known that caterpillars eat a variety of plants, but passionflower leaves are one of their favorite sources of food. Caterpillars get the energy they need to grow and develop from these nutritious leaves.
Caterpillars use the nutrients in passionflower leaves to build their bodies when they eat them. As they eat, they develop and shed their skin a few times before ultimately framing a chrysalis and transforming into a butterfly or moth.
Although the caterpillars of these particular butterflies are able to consume the foliage, passion flower vines contain toxic compounds known as cyanogenic glycosides, which deter the majority of herbivores.
Most normal are those that consume leaves and needles. However, many species of trees and shrubs support those that bore into cones or fruit, tunnel into branches and trunks or bore into leaves or needles. Albeit a considerable number of caterpillars feed on trees and bushes, most happen constantly in low numbers and are seldom harming.
For a wide range of insects, particularly butterflies, the leaves of passionflower are a popular source of food. Butterflies will likewise frequently lay their eggs on energy bloom plants, which prompts them to be chomped by hungry caterpillars. Other potential guilty parties incorporate scarabs, slugs, and snails.
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The primary functions of the _____ are to warm, filter, and humidify air.A lungsB tracheaC bronchusD nasal cavityE alveoli
The primary functions of the nasal cavity are to warm, filter, and humidify air. So, the correct option is D.
The primary functions of the nasal cavity are to warm, filter, and humidify the air before it reaches the lungs. When we inhale air through the nose, the nasal cavity helps to warm the air to body temperature, filter out particulate matter such as dust and pollen, and humidify the air by adding moisture to it. This helps to prepare the inhaled air for the respiratory process in the lungs.
The lungs (option A), trachea (option B), bronchus (option C), and alveoli (option E) are all parts of the respiratory system, but they do not primarily function to warm, filter, and humidify air. The lungs are the main organs of respiration where gas exchange occurs, the trachea and bronchus are air passages that transport air to and from the lungs, and the alveoli are tiny air sacs in the lungs where gas exchange takes place. The nasal cavity, on the other hand, plays a key role in preparing the inhaled air for the respiratory process.
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Scientists have used the big bang theory to make numerous predictions about the universe. One of their predictions is that about 75% of the visible matter in the universe should be hydrogen and about 25% should be helium. How could a scientist test this prediction? A. measure the amount of cosmic microwave background radiation in the universe B. compare the number of galaxies with blueshifted spectra to those with redshifted spectra C. analyze the spectra of electromagnetic radiation from stars and galaxies D. collect molecular samples from stars and galaxies to determine their composition
Scientist could test this prediction by : C.) analyze the spectra of electromagnetic radiation from stars and galaxies.
How could it be predicted that 75% of visible matter should be hydrogen and 25% helium?The prediction that about 75% of the visible matter in the universe should be hydrogen and about 25% should be helium can be tested by analyzing the spectra of electromagnetic radiation from stars and galaxies.
Spectroscopy is a powerful tool used by astronomers to study the composition of stars and galaxies by examining the specific wavelengths of light that are absorbed or emitted by different elements. Each element has a unique spectral signature that can be used to identify its presence and abundance.
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Non vascular plants are found in damp shady areas.
True or False?
The statement "Nonvascular plants are found in damp shady areas" is true because nonvascular plants lack a specialized system of tubes for transporting water and nutrients throughout the plant body.
Nonvascular plants, also known as bryophytes, include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts. They are small and simple plants that lack roots, stems, and leaves. Instead, they have specialized structures called rhizoids, which anchor them to the ground and absorb water and nutrients.
Nonvascular plants reproduce through spores, rather than seeds, which also require a moist environment to germinate. Because they cannot regulate water loss through stomata like vascular plants, they are more susceptible to desiccation and require constant moisture to survive, the statement is true.
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List two common depressants and describe how it affects the body
Alcohol and benzodiazepines are two widely used depressants. Alcohol is a central nervous system depressant that has an impact on the body by diminishing nerve cell connection and slowing down brain activity.
This may cause slurred speech, poor motor coordination, and impaired judgment. Alcohol interferes with the body's capacity to control blood sugar levels, which can result in hypoglycemia.
Gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA) is a neurotransmitter that is active in the brain and acts as a central nervous system depressant. Benzodiazepines are a class of prescription medicines that enhance the action of GABA.
Sedation, relaxation, and a decrease in anxiety may follow from this. However, benzodiazepines can also impair coordination and result in sleepiness and dizziness.
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As a group, describe the range of changes in the amino acid sequence that can result from this
type of mutation.
This type of mutation can result in a range of changes in the amino acid sequence, including missense mutations, nonsense mutations, and silent mutations.
Missense mutations are substitutions that change a single nucleotide in the DNA sequence, resulting in a different amino acid being incorporated into the protein. This can have varying effects on the function of the protein, depending on the specific amino acid change and its location within the protein structure.
Nonsense mutations, on the other hand, result in the premature termination of protein synthesis by introducing a stop codon in the DNA sequence. This leads to the production of a truncated protein that is usually nonfunctional or partially functional.
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What is Flexor Digitorum Longus (insertion and Innervation)?
The Flexor Hallucis Longus (FHL) is a muscle located in the lower leg.
Its insertion is the distal phalanx of the big toe, and it is innervated by the tibial nerve. The FHL muscle is responsible for flexing the big toe, plantar flexion of the foot at the ankle joint, and stabilization of the foot during walking and other weight-bearing activities.
It plays an important role in maintaining balance and stability of the foot and ankle, particularly during movements that require changes in direction or sudden stops. Injuries to the FHL can result in pain, weakness, and instability in the foot and ankle, and may require treatment such as physical therapy or surgery depending on the severity of the injury.
The flexor hallucis longus muscle is innervated by the tibial nerve and inserts into the distal phalanx of the big toe. Its main function is to flex the big toe, as well as assisting in plantar flexion of the foot.
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Question 62
Campylobacter (C. jejuni/C. coli, C. fetus subsp. fetus) may be safely used in the laboratory as a minimum at
a. biosafety level 1 b. biosafety level 2 c. biosafety level 3 d. biosafety level 4
Campylobacter (C. jejuni/C. coli, C. fetus subsp. fetus) can be safely handled in the laboratory with appropriate biosafety precautions. However, the level of precautions required will depend on the specific strain being handled and the potential risk it poses to laboratory workers and the surrounding environment.
Generally, C. jejuni and C. coli can be handled at biosafety level 2, which includes measures such as access controls, protective clothing, and decontamination procedures. However, if the strain is known to have additional virulence factors or is associated with severe disease outcomes, higher-level precautions may be required, such as biosafety level 3. In contrast, C. fetus subsp. fetus is a more significant risk and typically requires biosafety level 3 or 4 precautions due to its potential for causing serious disease in immunocompromised individuals. Therefore, it is crucial to carefully evaluate the specific strain being handled and implement appropriate biosafety precautions to ensure the safety of laboratory personnel and prevent the spread of the organism outside the laboratory.
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Question 34 Marks: 1 The microbe primarily responsible for skin infections in whirlpoolsChoose one answer. a. escherichia coli b. pseudomonas aeruginosa c. shigella sonnei d. salmonella typhimurium
Answer: b. pseudomonas aeruginosa ,Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common bacterium found in soil, water, and moist environments such as whirlpools.
It is a leading cause of skin infections in people who use public or private swimming pools and hot tubs. The bacteria can enter the skin through cuts, scrapes, or other wounds, causing a range of skin infections, including folliculitis, hot tub rash, and swimmer's ear. Pseudomonas aeruginosa can also cause serious infections in people with weakened immune systems, such as those with HIV or cancer. To prevent skin infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa, it is essential to maintain proper hygiene and disinfect swimming pools and hot tubs regularly.
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Question 90
Beta particles can be health hazard either as internal or external radiation because of the ionization in tissues.
a. True
b. False
True. Beta particles can be health hazard either as internal or external radiation because of the ionization in tissues. So, the correct answer is option a.
When beta particles enter the body as an internal radiation source or as an exterior radiation source (via inhalation or ingestion), they can be harmful to health.
The nuclear centres of radioactive atoms emit beta particles, which are highly energetic electrons. They can penetrate the skin and other tissues and fly several feet in the air.
They ionise the cells as soon as they enter the body, which can harm the cells. Cell mutations brought on by this ionisation have been linked to cancer, genetic damage, and other health issues.
Because they can result in burns and radiation poisoning, beta particles can also harm the skin.
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protein secondary structure is important to the function of proteins and consists of three main types: alpha helix, beta strand, and beta turn. what type of protein secondary structure is highlighted? choose one: a. alpha helix b. beta strand c. beta turn
Alpha helix of protein secondary structure is highlighted.
A is the correct answer.
In a polypeptide chain, the adjacent amino acid residues are arranged in a secondary structure that is predictable and repeated. Between the amide hydrogens and the carbonyl oxygens of the peptide backbone, hydrogen bonds are formed to keep it in place. In terms of secondary structures, -helices and -structures are the most prevalent.
The secondary protein structure known as alpha helix is created by twisting polypeptide chains into a configuration resembling a right-handed screw. The stability of the helix structure is due to hydrogen bonds that are established between the -NH- group of amino acids in one turn and the >C=O. group of amino acids that belong to the adjacent turn.
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What taxa are included as "river dolphins"? b) Are river dolphins monophyletic? Why or why not?
A) "River dolphins" typically refer to a group of dolphins that inhabit freshwater rivers and estuaries, and include several species, such as:
Amazon river dolphin (Inia geoffrensis)Ganges river dolphin (Platanista gangetica)Indus river dolphin (Platanista minor)Yangtze river dolphin or Baiji (Lipotes vexillifer) - currently declared functionally extinctB) The monophyly of river dolphins is a topic of ongoing scientific debate and research. Some studies suggest that river dolphins may not form a monophyletic group based on genetic, morphological, and evolutionary data. These studies propose that river dolphins may have evolved from multiple lineages that independently adapted to freshwater habitats, resulting in a polyphyletic or paraphyletic group.
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Protein transcription mainly takes place in the ____, then sent to the ____ for post-transcriptional modification, processing, and packaging
Protein transcription mainly takes place in the nucleus, then sent to the endoplasmic reticulum for post-transcriptional modification, processing, and packaging.
Protein transcription involves the synthesis of messenger RNA (mRNA) from a DNA template, which occurs in the nucleus of eukaryotic cells. The newly synthesized mRNA is then transported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where it binds to ribosomes for translation into protein.
Before the mRNA can be translated, it must undergo post-transcriptional modification, processing, and packaging in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER). This process involves the addition of a 5' cap and a poly(A) tail to the mRNA, as well as the removal of introns and splicing together of exons to form a mature mRNA molecule.
Once the mRNA is mature, it is exported from the nucleus and transported to the ER, where it undergoes further modifications, such as glycosylation, phosphorylation, and folding into its correct conformation. The modified protein is then packaged into vesicles and transported to its final destination, such as the cell membrane or secretion outside the cell.
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Question 4
Which organism would probably survive in a hot tub?
a. E coli
b. Vibrio cholera
c. Entamoeba histolytica
d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
Pseudomonas aeruginosa organism would probably survive in a hot tub. So the correct option is D.
The organism most likely to survive in a hot tub is Pseudomonas aeruginosa. This is because Pseudomonas aeruginosa is a common waterborne bacterium that can survive in a wide range of environments, including warm water. It is also resistant to many disinfectants, making it difficult to eliminate from water sources.
On the other hand, E. coli is a bacterium that is commonly found in the intestines of warm-blooded animals and humans and may indicate fecal contamination in water. Vibrio cholera and Entamoeba histolytica are both waterborne pathogens that can cause severe gastrointestinal illness in humans and are unlikely to survive in hot tub temperatures.
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a cross between two heterozygous short-tailed mice results in offspring in the ratio of 67 short-tailed and 34 long-tailed. the best explanation for this result is
The best explanation for this result is that the gene for tail length is likely controlled by a single gene with two different alleles, one for short tails and one for long tails.
The two mice used in the cross were both heterozygous for this gene, meaning they had one allele for short tails and one allele for long tails. The offspring inherited one allele from each parent, resulting in a ratio of 3:1 for short-tailed to long-tailed offspring.
This follows the expected pattern of Mendelian inheritance for a single gene trait with two alleles. In this case, the observed ratio of 67 short-tailed to 34 long-tailed offspring is approximately 2:1, which suggests that the short-tailed trait is dominant over the long-tailed trait.
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Question 59
A single pair of rats are capable of producing __ litters of young per year
a. 4 to 7
b. 3 to 6
c. 1 to 2
d. 8 to 12
A single pair of rats are capable of producing 3-6 litters of young per year, option b is correct.
Rats are known for their reproductive ability and can rapidly increase their population if not controlled. A pair of rats can produce 3 to 6 liters of young per year, with each litter consisting of 6 to 12 pups. This means that a pair of rats can potentially produce up to 72 offspring in a single year.
Rats have a short gestation period of about 21 to 23 days, which means that they can give birth to multiple litters in a short period. Additionally, rats are capable of reproducing at a very young age, as early as three months old. This allows them to quickly reach sexual maturity and start reproducing, option b is correct.
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many hormones are measured for diagnostic reasons by using the plasma levels of the hormones. what is used today to measure plasma hormone levels?
Today, immunoassay techniques such as enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA) and radioimmunoassay (RIA) are commonly used to measure plasma hormone levels for diagnostic purposes.
These methods rely on the specific binding between a hormone and its corresponding antibody to detect and quantify the hormone in the sample. Other techniques, such as mass spectrometry, are also used for hormone analysis, particularly in research settings.
Today, to measure plasma hormone levels, a common method used is enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA). ELISA is a sensitive and reliable technique that detects and quantifies hormones in plasma samples by utilizing specific antibodies and enzymes for each hormone of interest.
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Cell fluid is made of water with other substances dissolved into it. When a cucumber slice is placed into 100% pure water, which way will the water immediately begin to move?
A.
out of the cucumber cells
B.
into the cucumber cells
C.
water will move in and out equally
D.
water will not move
Osmosis is a method by which molecules of solvent flow from an inexpensive solution to an extremely concentrated solution via a membrane with a Adding salt to cucumber slices pulls out excess moisture from the veggie.
The correct answer is :C.
What occurs when you immerse a cucumber in water?In transferring across the cells into the salt solution, the water present in cells of cucumber aims to level off the unequal quantities. As a result of this, the cucumber lose water and turns mushy. This is commonly referred to as a hypertonic environment.
Which direction is the salt, vinegar, alum, and water flowing into or out of the cucumber?Because the content of water inside a cucumber is approximately 98%, we can estimate that solutes such as vinegar, salt, and alumina will have to diffuse into the cucumber. Water, on the different hand, which makes up 98% of a a cucumber, is released by osmosis.
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Which is a bear with thick fur more likely to produce offspring than a bear with thin fur? (Lesson Game # 20)
Polar bear is a bear with thick fur more likely to produce offspring than a bear with thin fur.
Polar bears are members of the Ursidae bear family, which are indigenous to the Arctic region. The polar bear is the biggest and most potent carnivore on Earth, with the exception of one subspecies of grizzly bear. It is an exceptionally hazardous animal because it lacks any natural predators and has no fear of people.
Polar bears with thick fur are going to able to endure the harsh environment and have more children, whereas polar bears with thin fur will not be able to do so and will not be able to have as many kids.
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What are the 3 outputs of light-independent reactions?
The 3 outputs of the light-independent reactions are sugar , NADP, and ADP.
The light-independent reaction are the series of the different reactions in which the carbon dioxide is to be converted in the glucose. This reaction are the self-sustaining cycle, this is also referred the Calvin cycle.
The light-independent reactions does not involve the light to occur, that is why it is also referred or called as the dark reaction. The overall reaction for the light-independent reaction is :
6CO₂ + 12NADPH + 18ATP ---> C₆H₁₂O₆ + 12NADP + 18ADP + 18P
The three stages in the light-independent reaction are :
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What is the purpose of the pGLO plasmid?
The purpose of the pGLO plasmid is to facilitate genetic transformation by introducing a gene of interest into a target organism, often bacteria, to express desired traits.
pGLO contains the GFP (Green Fluorescent Protein) gene, which enables transformed cells to emit green fluorescence under UV light, and the ampicillin resistance gene, allowing for selection of successfully transformed cells in ampicillin-containing media. The pGLO plasmid is a type of engineered DNA molecule that contains several genetic elements, including a gene encoding the green fluorescent protein (GFP) from a jellyfish and a gene encoding resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin. By introducing the pGLO plasmid into a target organism, such as E. coli bacteria, scientists can use a technique called genetic transformation to transfer the plasmid DNA into the bacterial cells. Once inside the bacterial cells, the pGLO plasmid can replicate independently of the host genome, and the genes it carries can be expressed to confer new traits on the bacteria.
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Atrial fibrillation can cause ____ in the bloodstream.A. FatB. ClotsC. AntibodiesD. Low oxygen content
Atrial fibrillation can cause clots in the bloodstream. Option B. clots is correct .
Atrial fibrillation (AFib) is a type of heart arrhythmia characterized by an irregular and often rapid heartbeat. When the heart beats irregularly, blood can pool in the atria, the upper chambers of the heart. The risk of developing blood clots is increased in individuals with AFib, especially if they have other risk factors such as high blood pressure, diabetes, or a history of previous strokes. To reduce the risk of blood clots in individuals with AFib, doctors may prescribe anticoagulant medications such as warfarin or aspirin, which help to prevent the formation of clots.
In summary, This can cause the blood to form clots, which can then travel through the bloodstream and potentially cause a stroke if they become lodged in a blood vessel in the brain. Hence, the correct answer is B. Clots.
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When water reacts with sulfur trioxide to form sulfuric acid in the space below. The equation for this reaction is: H2O + SO2 → H2SO4
Give the before and after of the reaction and explain if the reaction is balanced or not
The reaction is balanced because each element has an equal amount of atoms on both sides of the equation.
The balanced equation for the reaction between water and sulfur trioxide to form sulfuric acid is:
[tex]H_2SO_4 + H_2O - > H_3O^+ + HSO_4^-[/tex]
The before and after of the reaction can be written as follows:
Before:
H₂SO₄ + H₂O
After:
H₃O⁺ + HSO₄⁻
The reaction is balanced because the number of atoms of each element is equal on both sides of the equation.
On the left side of the equation, we have:
2 hydrogen atoms (2H) from H₂SO₄
1 oxygen atom (O) from H₂O
1 sulfur atom (S) from H₂SO₄
On the right side of the equation, we have:
3 hydrogen atoms (3H) from H₃O⁺ and HSO₄⁻
4 oxygen atoms (4O) from H₂SO₄ , H₂O, H₃O⁺ and HSO₄⁻
1 sulfur atom (S) from H₂SO₄
Therefore, the number of atoms of each element is equal on both sides of the equation, and the reaction is balanced.
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Give a marine mammal example of a) sympatric,b) allopatric and c) peripatric speciation. Make sure that you define each of these terms in your answer.
The development of new species within the same geographic region is referred to as sympatric speciation. The orca, often known as the killer whale, is a prime example of sympatric speciation in marine mammals.
At least three distinct ecotypes of orcas have been found by scientists; each has different dietary patterns, social structures, and vocalizations. These ecotypes may indicate several stages of speciation due to their significant genetic and physical features.
Geographic isolation causes new species to emerge through a process known as allopatric speciation. The walrus is one species of marine animal that underwent allopatric. The Atlantic and Pacific walruses are two recognized subspecies of the walrus.
Peripatric speciation, which occurs when a small population separates from a larger population and experiences a rapid genetic shift, is the process through which new species are created. The Hawaiian monk seal, a marine mammal, is a prime example of peripatric speciation.
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The conversion of malate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle takes place with the conversion of NAD+ to NADH. In this reaction, NAD+ is
A. the reducing agent.
B. the oxidizing agent.
C. reduced.
D. oxidized.
E. Both b and c
In the conversion of malate to oxaloacetate in the citric acid cycle, NAD+ is oxidized to NADH, as it gains electrons and becomes reduced. The correct answer is D.
An electron acceptor is a molecule or atom that accepts electrons from another molecule or atom during a chemical reaction, resulting in the reduction of the electron acceptor. Therefore, NAD+ is the electron acceptor and the oxidizing agent in this reaction. The conversion of malate to oxaloacetate is an example of a dehydrogenation reaction, as it involves the removal of hydrogen atoms from the substrate (malate), which are transferred to the electron acceptor (NAD+) to form NADH.
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The topology of Jacobi iteration is a tree.true/false
The topology of Jacobi iteration is not a tree, but rather a matrix. Jacobi iteration is an iterative method for solving systems of linear equations, where at each iteration step, the solution is updated using information from the previous iteration. The topology refers to the structure of the system of equations, which is represented as a matrix.
The topology of Jacobi iteration is not a tree. In the context of linear algebra, Jacobi iteration is an iterative method used to solve a system of linear equations. The term "topology" refers to the study of geometric properties and spatial relations, while "iteration" denotes the process of repeating a procedure to approach a solution. Jacobi iteration's topology is characterized by its matrix and convergence properties rather than being represented by a tree structure.
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what do we call an individual that inherits 2 diffrent allens for the same trait
a homozygous
b heterozygous
c bizygous
An individual that inherits two different alleles for the same trait is said to be heterozygous for that trait. The correct answer is option b.
A trait has two alleles, one is the dominant allele (denoted by capital letter) and the other is recessive allele (denoted by small letter).
When an individual inherits two same copies of the allele, whether both dominant or both recessive, such an individual is referred to as homozygous dominant or homozygous recessive for that trait.
An individual who is heterozygous for that trait has one dominant allele and the other recessive allele. In such a case, the dominant allele masks the phenotypic expression of the recessive allele.
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During which phase of mitosis are sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers shorten? metaphase telophase anaphase prophase
During which anaphase of mitosis, sister chromatids separated when the mitotic spindle fibers shortens.
The separation of sister chromatids occurs during anaphase of mitosis. During anaphase, the mitotic spindle fibers, which are composed of microtubules, shorten and pull the sister chromatids apart towards opposite poles of the cell. This separation is facilitated by the enzyme separase, which cleaves the protein cohesin that holds the sister chromatids together. Once the sister chromatids are separated, each chromatid is considered a separate chromosome. Anaphase is followed by telophase, during which the chromosomes arrive at opposite poles of the cell and new nuclei begin to form around them.
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Question 82
Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in
a. 10 to 15 minutes at 80C
b. 10 to 15 minutes at 80F
c. 1 minute at 250F
d. 10 to 15 minutes at 230F
Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in 10 to 15 minutes at 121°C (250°F). Therefore, the answer is c. 1 minute at 250F.
Clostridium botulinum is a type of bacteria that produces a potent neurotoxin that can cause botulism, a serious and potentially fatal illness. The spores of this bacteria can survive in a dormant state in soil and water for many years and can also contaminate certain types of food, such as canned meats, vegetables, and fish.
To prevent the growth and toxin production of Clostridium botulinum in food, it is important to use proper food processing methods, such as thermal processing. The spores of Clostridium botulinum can be killed by heating the food to a high enough temperature for a sufficient amount of time.
The recommended thermal processing conditions for the destruction of Clostridium botulinum spores vary depending on the type of food and the method of processing. Generally, a temperature of at least 121°C (250°F) for at least 3 minutes is required to kill the spores of Clostridium botulinum.
Therefore, the statement that Clostridium botulinum spores are killed in 1 minute at 250°F is not accurate. A temperature of 250°F is equivalent to 121°C, which is the temperature required for the destruction of Clostridium botulinum spores. However, a minimum processing time of 3 minutes is usually required to ensure complete destruction of the spores.
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