If the destination host does not receive a segment during a TCP connection, it will send a message called a "TCP keep-alive" message to the sender. This message is sent to check if the connection is still active and to request the sender to send a segment. The keep-alive message helps to maintain the connection and prevent it from timing out due to inactivity.
Here's a step-by-step explanation:
1. The source host sends a segment to the destination host as part of the TCP connection.
2. The destination host waits for the segment to arrive within a specified time frame (called the "timeout" period).
3. If the destination host does not receive the segment within the timeout period, it assumes the segment was lost or corrupted during transmission.
4. To request the missing segment, the destination host sends a "TCP Retransmission" message back to the source host.
5. The source host then re-sends the missing segment, and the process continues until the segment is successfully received by the destination host or the connection is terminated.
In summary, the destination host sends a "TCP Retransmission" message if it does not receive a segment during a TCP connection.
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making data look like it has come from a different source is called __________.
"Making data look like it has come from a different source is called"
Hi! Making data look like it has come from a different source is called data spoofing.
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In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become A) twice as great. B) half as great. C) four times greater.
In theory, if the airspeed of an airplane is doubled while in level flight, parasite drag will become B) half as great.
This is because parasite drag is directly proportional to airspeed, and doubling the airspeed will result in quadrupling the dynamic pressure (which is proportional to the square of airspeed). However, the lift generated by the wings is also proportional to dynamic pressure, so it will be four times greater at twice the airspeed.
This means that the airplane will need to fly at a lower angle of attack to maintain level flight, resulting in a lower amount of induced drag. The net effect is that the decrease in parasite drag will be greater than the increase in induced drag, resulting in a lower overall drag at twice the airspeed.
Option B is answer.
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A host is accessing a Telnet server on a remote network. Which three functions are performed by intermediary network devices during this conversation? (Choose three.)
1. Forwarding the Telnet packets to the destination network, 2. Performing address translation between different network address types (e.g. MAC and IP addresses). 3. Enforcing security policies by inspecting and filtering the Telnet traffic.
Intermediary network devices, such as routers and firewalls, play a crucial role in facilitating communication between the host and the Telnet server on a remote network. These devices are responsible for forwarding the Telnet packets from the source host to the destination network, translating between different network address types to ensure proper routing, and enforcing security policies to protect against unauthorized access or malicious activity. For example, a firewall may inspect and filter Telnet traffic to prevent unauthorized access attempts or to detect and block malware or other threats. Without these intermediary network devices, communication between the host and Telnet server would be impossible or insecure.
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Q5)g) Distinguish between headers and header fields.
Headers are an essential component of internet communication, allowing information to be transmitted between the client and the server. They contain metadata about the message, including information about the origin and destination of the message, the content type, and the date and time of the transmission.
Header fields, on the other hand, are specific pieces of information contained within the header. They provide additional details about the message, such as the content length, cache control, and the encoding of the message.
In essence, headers are the containers that hold the header fields, which provide specific details about the message being transmitted. Understanding the difference between the two is crucial for anyone working with internet communication, as it allows for effective communication between client and server.
In summary, headers are the overall structure that carries metadata in network communications, while header fields are the specific key-value pairs within the header that convey particular information.
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All exception classes inherit, either directly or indirectly, from ______. A. class Error. B. class Runtime Exception. C. class Throwable. D. None of the above.
All exception classes in Java inherit, either directly or indirectly, from class Throwable. Therefore, the correct answer is C. class Throwable.
Class Throwable is the superclass of all exceptions and errors in Java. All exception classes, including checked exceptions and unchecked exceptions, as well as errors, such as OutOfMemoryError and StackOverflowError, inherit from Throwable. In programming, an exception is an event that occurs during the execution of a program that disrupts the normal flow of instructions. Exceptions are often used to handle errors or other unexpected situations that may arise during program execution.
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All individuals with the appropriate personnel clearance level are allowed access to designated restricted area. True or False?
Answer: True, individuals with the appropriate personnel clearance level are allowed access to designated restricted areas.
The level of dod clearance is private. Security clearances come in three varieties: confidential, secret, and top secret.
An individual's eligibility for access to sensitive material is determined by the government through the process of obtaining a security clearance. A background investigation is required as part of the security clearance procedure to confirm the applicant's loyalty, character, and dependability. The severity of the information to which the person will have access will determine the level of clearance needed. Security clearances come in a variety of grades, including confidential, secret, and top secret. All applicants seeking security clearances must be citizens of the United States and successfully complete a background check. The procedure could take several months, and it might necessitate that the applicant provide personal data.
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Consider the following Python function definition: def multa (a, b =1, c=1 ): print(a * b *c) Which of the following calls is NOT correct? O print (mult (8)) O print (mult(3, -14) O print (mult(9, 15, 6, 7)) O print (mult(2, 5, 6))
The call "print (mult(9, 15, 6, 7))" is not correct. The function definition specifies three parameters with default values. This means that when the function is called, the values of these parameters can be provided by the caller, but are not required.
If no value is provided for a parameter, the default value will be used. In the first call, only one argument is provided, so the function will use the default values for b and c. In the second call, two arguments are provided, so the function will use the provided values for a and b, and the default value for c. In the third call, four arguments are provided, which is more than the function definition allows, so the call is not correct. In the fourth call, three arguments are provided, which is within the allowed range, so the call is correct.
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Current Carrying Conductors(310-15(B)(5): The neutral conductor of a balanced 3-wire wye circuit is not considered a current-carrying conductor for the purpose of applying bundle adjustment factors.(True/False)
True. According to 310-15(B)(5) of the National Electrical Code (NEC), the neutral conductor of a balanced 3-wire wye circuit is not considered a current-carrying conductor.
the purpose of applying bundle adjustment factors. This means that when calculating the ampacity of a cable bundle, the neutral conductor is not included as a current-carrying conductor. A conductor is a material that allows electric current to flow through it with low resistance. In electrical engineering and physics, conductors are characterized by their electrical conductivity, which is the measure of the material's ability to conduct electric current. Metals such as copper, aluminum, and gold are common conductors due to their high electrical conductivity. Other materials such as carbon, saline solutions, and plasma can also conduct electricity. Conductors are used in a variety of electrical applications including wiring, circuit boards, and electrical motors. The opposite of a conductor is an insulator, which is a material that does not allow an electric current to flow through it easily. Semiconductors are a class of materials that have properties of both conductors and insulators and are used in electronics and computing.
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(368-17(C)) Where devices or plug-in connections for tapping off feeder or branch circuits fro busways consist of an externally operable fusible switch, ropes, chains, or sticks shall be provided for operation of the disconnecting means from the floor.(True/False)
True, the statement is correct. When using externally operable fusible switches for tapping off feeder or branch circuits from busways, ropes, chains, or sticks must be provided for safe operation of the disconnecting means from the floor.
This ensures that the devices can be operated without directly touching the switch, reducing the risk of electrical shock or injury.
Maintaining hydraulic and pneumatic systems operable fusible below the preset pressure requires the use of pressure relief valves. Depending on how they are installed, they can:
whenever it crosses a certain threshold, lower the downstream pressure to a constant level.
upstream or downstream of the valve, keep consistent pressures.
To protect downstream equipment, reduce the peaks or pressure pulses. In-depth information about pressure relief valves is provided in this article, including an explanation of their design, workings, applications, and how to instal them in a system.
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You need to upgrade memory on a motherboard that uses RIMMs. You notice one RIMM and one C-RIMM module are already installed on the board. Which module should you replace?
The memory on the motherboard, you should replace the RIMM module, not the C-RIMM module.
The C-RIMM module is used to provide electrical continuity for the RIMMs, and removing it could cause the system to fail to boot or operate incorrectly.
RIMMs (Rambus Inline Memory Modules) are a type of memory module that were commonly used in high-performance computers in the late 1990s and early 2000s.
C-RIMMs (Continuity Rambus Inline Memory Modules) are a specialized type of memory module that are used in conjunction with RIMMs to provide electrical continuity for the RIMMs.
If you have one RIMM and one C-RIMM module already installed on the motherboard, it is likely that the motherboard supports RDRAM (Rambus Dynamic Random Access Memory) memory, which requires the use of both RIMMs and C-RIMMs for proper operation.
RIMMs and C-RIMMs are installed in pairs, and the pairs must be matched in terms of capacity and speed.
If you want to add more memory to the system, you will need to install a pair of RIMMs that match the capacity and speed of the existing RIMM and C-RIMM pair.
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A lamp is to be switched off 10s after a switch has been switched from it's on to off position. The most directly applicable timer to use would be the off-delay non retentive timer. true/false
The statement" A lamp is to be switched off 10s after a switch has been switched from it's on to off position. The most directly applicable timer to use would be the off-delay non retentive timer" is True.
The off-delay timer is a type of non-retentive timer that is used to delay the turning off of a device or system after a triggering event has occurred. In this case, the triggering event is the switch being moved from the on position to the off position, and the device that needs to be turned off is the lamp.
Since we want the lamp to be switched off 10 seconds after the switch has been moved to the off position, the most directly applicable timer to use would be an off-delay non-retentive timer. This type of timer will start counting down from the moment the switch is moved to the off position, and after the preset time has elapsed (in this case, 10 seconds), it will turn off the lamp.
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Fill in the blank.________ is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files.
FTP (File Transfer Protocol) is a best-effort, connectionless application layer protocol that is used to transfer files. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) is a set of communication protocols that are used to link network devices on the internet.
A TCP/IP network, such as the internet, uses the File Transfer Protocol (FTP) as a standard network protocol for file transfers between computers.
Network protocol:
A network protocol is a set of guidelines that governs data flow between two or more computing devices when they are connected to a computer network.
It is utilised for controlling files on distant computers as well as for uploading and downloading files. An FTP file transfer protocol client is used to connect to an FTP server in the client-server architecture of FTP. Users can upload, download, delete, or alter files on the remote computer once they are connected.
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the fundamental problem associated with the conventional eifs prevalently involved in lawsuits in the past is that
The fundamental problem associated with conventional EIFS (Exterior Insulation and Finish Systems) that has led to numerous lawsuits in the past is primarily related to moisture intrusion and the resulting damage.
Traditional EIFS consists of an insulation layer, a reinforcing mesh, and a durable finish coat.
However, this system does not have an effective drainage mechanism, leading to water infiltration behind the insulation.
Moisture intrusion can cause multiple issues, such as wood rot, mold growth, and structural damage, which may compromise the building's integrity. These problems can lead to costly repairs and health concerns for occupants, resulting in legal disputes.
Modern EIFS systems now include drainage systems, such as a water-resistive barrier and a drainage plane, to mitigate moisture-related problems and reduce the likelihood of future lawsuits.
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If you had something the size of a sugar cube that was made of neutron star matter, it would weigh _________.
The sugar cube-sized object made of neutron star matter would be incredibly heavy and would exert an enormous gravitational force.
If you had something the size of a sugar cube that was made of neutron star matter, it would weigh about 100 million tons (or 10^17 kg). Neutron star matter is incredibly dense, with a mass that is typically about 1.4 times that of the Sun but compressed into a sphere just a few kilometers in radius. This means that the density of neutron star matter is roughly equivalent to that of an atomic nucleus, or about 10^17 kg/m^3. If we imagine a sugar cube-sized object made of neutron star matter, it would have a volume of about 1 cubic centimeter (or 10^-6 m^3). Multiplying this by the density of neutron star matter, we get a mass of approximately 10^11 kg or 100 million tons.
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Where the supplemental electrode is a rod, pipe, or plate electrode, that portion of the bonding jumper that is the sole connection to the supplemental grounding electrode shall not be required to be larger than _____ awg copper wire. 250.53(e)
Where the supplemental electrode is a rod, pipe, or plate electrode, that portion of the bonding jumper that is the sole connection to the supplemental grounding electrode shall not be required to be larger than 6 AWG copper wire.
This is stated in the National Electric Code (NEC) 250.53(e) which outlines the requirements for grounding and bonding of electrical systems. It is important to ensure proper grounding to prevent electrical hazards and protect equipment.
So, based on the information provided in NEC (National Electrical Code) section 250.53(E), when the supplemental electrode is a rod, pipe, or plate electrode, the portion of the bonding jumper that serves as the sole connection to the supplemental grounding electrode shall not be required to be larger than 6 AWG copper wire.
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The minimum dimension of working sapce directly in front of a 12 inch wide panel board which operates at less than 600 volt is ______ inches wide. 110.26(2)
The minimum working space directly in front of a 12-inch wide panel board that operates at less than 600 volts is determined by the National Electrical Code (NEC) section 110.26(2).
This section outlines the minimum dimensions required for working spaces around electrical equipment to ensure the safety of personnel. According to NEC 110.26(2), the minimum width of the working space directly in front of a 12-inch wide panel board that operates at less than 600 volts is 30 inches. This means that there should be a clear space of at least 30 inches in width between the panel board and any other equipment or obstruction, such as a wall or other panel board.
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When the heat pump is supplying as much heat as the load requires and is operating continuously, it is at what is called the _____ _____.
When the heat pump is supplying as much heat as the load requires and is operating continuously, it is at what is called the steady state. In the context of heat pumps, the steady state refers to a situation in which the heat pump is supplying heat to the space at a rate that exactly matches the heat loss from the space. In other words, the heat pump is meeting the demand for heat without any surplus or deficit.
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Flexible cords and cables ________ run through holes in walls, structural ceiling, suspended ceilings, dropped ceilings, or floors.
400.8(2)
Flexible cords and cables may run through holes in walls, structural ceiling, suspended ceilings, dropped ceilings, or floors in accordance with the guidelines outlined in section 400.8(2) of the National Electric Code.
These guidelines ensure that the cords and cables are installed in a safe and secure manner and do not pose a risk of damage or fire hazard to the surrounding structure.Flexible cords and cables shall not be run through holes in walls, structural ceiling, suspended ceilings, dropped ceilings, or floors. This is specified in section 400.8(2) of the National Electrical Code (NEC).
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Natural gasChoose one:A. consists of a mixture of petroleum products with carbon chains 10 to 20 carbons long.B. is used more extensively than oil is.C. is found layered between oil and water in a drill hole.D. burns more cleanly than oil does.
"Natural gas burns more cleanly than oil and is extensively used. It consists mainly of methane and is typically found in deposits layered above oil."
Natural gas is primarily composed of methane (CH4) and small amounts of other hydrocarbons such as ethane (C2H6) and propane (C3H8). It is a cleaner-burning fossil fuel compared to oil because it produces lower levels of carbon dioxide (CO2) and other pollutants like sulfur dioxide (SO2) and nitrogen oxides (NOx) when burned. As a result, it is often preferred as a fuel source for electricity generation and heating in many industrial, commercial, and residential applications. Natural gas is extensively used because of its high energy density, relatively low cost, and availability in many parts of the world. It is typically found in deposits layered above oil, as it is lighter than oil and migrates upwards through the rock layers until it is trapped by an impermeable layer of rock. Natural gas reserves are estimated to be abundant, and it is expected to continue playing an important role in meeting global energy demand.
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To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at A) the same true airspeed regardless of angle of attack. B) a lower true airspeed and a greater angle of attack. C) a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack.
To generate the same amount of lift as altitude is increased, an airplane must be flown at "a higher true airspeed for any given angle of attack" (option c).
This is because as altitude increases, the air density decreases, which means that there is less air flowing over the wings to generate lift. To compensate for this decrease in air density, the airplane must fly at a higher true airspeed to maintain the same amount of lift. This is because the lift generated by the wings is directly proportional to the square of the true airspeed, so as airspeed increases, the lift generated also increases. Additionally, the angle of attack may need to be adjusted to optimize lift and maintain the desired altitude.
Option c is answer.
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5224 - To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires:- A lower angle of attack- the same angle of attack- a greater angle or attack
To produce the same lift while in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane requires a lower angle of attack. This is because the ground effect reduces the drag on the airplane, allowing it to generate the same amount of lift with a lower angle of attack.
Ground effect is the phenomenon where the air pressure underneath the wings increases when the airplane is close to the ground, reducing the effective angle of attack required to generate lift. This happens because the ground limits the amount of air that can flow around the wings, which results in a decrease in wingtip vortices and an increase in the effective span of the wings. Therefore, since the airplane experiences an increase in lift when in ground effect, it needs a lower angle of attack to produce the same amount of lift as it would need when out of ground effect. In fact, if the pilot maintains the same angle of attack when in ground effect as when out of ground effect, the airplane may actually produce too much lift and become unstable.
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Carbon can be converted into oxygen in the cores of high-mass stars if carbon nuclei undergo a _______________.
Choose matching definition
low-mass star
high-mass star
supernova remnant
helium-capture reaction
What are two features of a physical, star network topology? (Choose two.)
Two features of a physical, star network topology are: 1. Centralized control: In a star topology, all network nodes are connected to a central hub or switch.
This hub or switch controls the communication between the nodes, allowing for centralized management and control of the network.
2. Scalability: A star topology allows for easy scalability, as nodes can be added or removed without affecting the rest of the network. This makes it a flexible option for networks that may need to expand or change over time.
Two features of a physical star network topology are:
1. Central Hub: In a star topology, all devices are connected to a central hub or switch, which manages and controls the network traffic. This central hub is responsible for transmitting data packets between devices on the network.
2. Point-to-Point Connections: Each device in a star network is directly connected to the central hub via individual cables or links. This ensures that if one connection fails, it does not affect the other devices on the network, thus providing greater fault tolerance and easier troubleshooting.
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A condensing unit is actually installed about_______________ away from a building.
A condensing unit is typically installed about 3 to 10 feet away from a building.
A condensing unit, which is a vital component of an HVAC system, is typically installed a certain distance away from a building.
The distance can vary based on various factors such as the size of the unit, building codes, and manufacturer recommendations.
Explanation:
Determine the required distance:
The ideal distance is often specified in the manufacturer's guidelines.
In general, it can range from 18 inches to several feet away from the building.
This ensures adequate airflow and helps prevent overheating or inefficiency.
Consider building codes and regulations:
Local building codes and regulations may dictate the minimum distance between the condensing unit and the building. Be sure to consult these rules before installation to avoid any compliance issues.
Assess the location:
Choose a spot that provides sufficient clearance on all sides of the condensing unit.
This will help maintain proper airflow and prevent debris buildup, ensuring optimal performance and longevity of the unit.
Install the unit:
Once you have determined the appropriate distance and location, proceed with the installation following the manufacturer's instructions and local building code requirements.
A suitable distance between the condensing unit and the building is essential for efficient operation and to prevent potential issues such as noise, vibrations, and property damage.
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Polymorphism allows for specifics to be dealt with during: A. execution. B. compilation. C. programming. D. debugging
Polymorphism allows for specifics to be dealt with during execution (option A). therefore do not involve the dynamic behavior of polymorphism.
Polymorphism is a fundamental concept in object-oriented programming that allows objects of different classes to be treated as if they were of the same type. This means that a single method or function can be written to handle objects of different classes, as long as those classes share a common interface or parent class. During execution, the specific type of object being processed can be determined dynamically and the appropriate behavior can be invoked. This is known as runtime or dynamic polymorphism. In contrast, compilation (option B), programming (option C), and debugging (option D) all occur before the program is actually run.
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What is the most amount of RAM that can be used by a 32-bit installation of Windows XP Professional?
The most amount of RAM that can be used by a 32-bit installation of Windows XP Professional is 4GB.
Due to limitations in the 32-bit architecture, the operating system can only address up to 4GB of memory.
This means that even if you install more than 4GB of RAM, your system will not be able to use it all.
Additionally, Windows XP uses a portion of the address space for system resources, leaving even less addressable space for RAM.
This means that if you have 4GB of RAM installed, Windows XP may only be able to use around 3GB or less.
To fully utilize more than 4GB of RAM, you would need to use a 64-bit version of Windows XP or a more modern operating system.
64-bit operating systems can address much more memory than 32-bit systems and can take full advantage of modern hardware.
Due to the limitations of the 32-bit architecture, the operating system may only be able to utilize a portion of this memory.
To fully utilize more than 4GB of RAM, you would need to use a 64-bit operating system.
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Teams are reporting a high level of success through their individual quantitative measurements, but the system results say otherwise. What should the RTE do to help the teams deliver more value?
If teams are reporting high success in individual quantitative measurements, but the system results are not reflecting this, the RTE should analyze the metrics, facilitate communication, encourage collaboration, continuous improvement and review the definition of value.
1. Analyze the metrics: Review the metrics used by teams to measure their success and evaluate whether they align with the overall goals and desired value of the system.
2. Facilitate communication: Encourage open communication between teams to share their successes, challenges, and lessons learned. This can help identify discrepancies or areas for improvement.
3. Review the definition of value: Make sure that the teams and the system have a clear, shared understanding of what value means. If necessary, clarify the definition of value and ensure all teams are working towards the same goals.
4. Encourage collaboration: Promote collaboration and cross-functional support between teams to help them leverage each other's strengths and achieve better system-wide results.
5. Continuous improvement: Facilitate regular team retrospectives and incorporate the findings into the ART's continuous improvement process. Identify areas where teams can improve and provide support to make necessary changes.
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It's important for the RTE to first understand why the individual quantitative measurements are showing a high level of success while the system results are not.
The RTE should work closely with the teams to identify any gaps or inconsistencies in their approach and determine if the individual measurements are truly indicative of delivering value. Additionally, the RTE should analyze the system results to identify any issues or roadblocks that may be hindering the teams from delivering value. Once the RTE has a clear understanding of the situation, they can work with the teams to establish a plan to address any issues and improve their delivery of value. This may include providing additional training, improving communication and collaboration within the teams, or adjusting the team's approach to align better with the overall system goals. Ultimately, the RTE should focus on ensuring that the teams have the necessary support and resources to deliver value consistently, and that the system results accurately reflect the success of their efforts.
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It is okay to download information without asking a lab instructor as long as it is for your online class. T F
It is a false statement that it is okay to download information without asking a lab instructor as long as it is for your online class.
Can you download information without asking a lab instructor for your online class?It is not okay to download information without asking a lab instructor, even if it is for an online class. While online classes may not have the same level of direct supervision as traditional in-person classes, it is still important to follow academic integrity guidelines and respect copyright laws.
Downloading information without permission could constitute plagiarism or copyright infringement, which are serious violations of academic ethics. Also, theseinstructors may have specific guidelines or protocols for accessing and using information, even in an online setting.
Students should always consult with their instructors and follow their guidance to ensure they are completing assignments ethically and responsibly.
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What type of fire extinguisher should be used for fires with live electricity present?
a.) Class A
b.) Class B
c.) Class C
d.) Class D
When it comes to fires involving live electricity, it is important to use the right type of fire extinguisher to avoid electrocution and further damage. Using water-based extinguishers is not recommended as water conducts electricity and may make the situation worse. Instead, a Class C fire extinguisher is the best option for fires involving live electricity.
A Class C fire extinguisher should be used for fires with live electricity present. This type of extinguisher is specifically designed to handle electrical fires, as it contains a non-conductive extinguishing agent that effectively puts out the fire without risking the spread of electrical current.
When using a fire extinguisher, always remember the PASS method:
1. Pull the pin.
2. Aim the nozzle at the base of the fire.
3. Squeeze the handle to release the extinguishing agent.
4. Sweep the nozzle from side to side to cover the entire area.
In case of an electrical fire, first try to shut off the power source if possible. If not, use a Class C fire extinguisher to put out the fire, and call for professional assistance to ensure the situation is handled safely.
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You need to find emergency procedures for HAZMAT with ID number UN1203. Which ERG section will you start with?
If you need to find emergency procedures for HAZMAT with ID number UN1203, you should start with Section 3 of the Emergency Response Guidebook (ERG).
To find emergency procedures for HAZMAT with ID number UN1203, you should start with the ERG (Emergency Response Guidebook) section known as the "Yellow-bordered pages," where you can locate the substance by its UN number. In this case, look for UN1203, and it will direct you to the appropriate guide number for handling emergency procedures involving that specific hazardous material.
This section contains information on the hazards and safety precautions associated with flammable liquids, including UN1203. It also provides guidance on initial isolation and protective action distances and provides instructions on how to handle spills, leaks, and fires.
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