Question 1
The manner in which water moves from place to place, changing from one form to another is called the:
a. Evaporation cycle
b. Hydrologic cycle
c. Precipitation cycle
d. Evapotranspiration cycle

Answers

Answer 1

The manner in which water moves from place to place, changing from one form to another is called the hydrologic cycle, option b is correct.

The hydrologic cycle is a continuous process of water movement that involves the exchange of water between the Earth's surface and the atmosphere. The cycle is driven by solar energy, which heats the Earth's surface and causes water to evaporate from oceans, lakes, rivers, and other bodies of water.

This water vapor rises into the atmosphere and forms clouds through the process of condensation. Once the clouds become saturated with water, precipitation occurs, and the water returns to the Earth's surface in the form of rain, snow, sleet, or hail, option b is correct.

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Related Questions

30 POINTS
1. What are some of the animals that have gone extinct? How have humans reacted to extinction?

2. What is ancient DNA?

3. How could scientists bring back an extinct species? How does this relate to genetics?

4. Why would it be important to sequence, as much as possible, the genome of extinct species?

5. Which research or conservation project discussed in the video did you find most interesting? Why?

Answers

1. Some of the animals that have gone extinct include the dodo, the woolly mammoth, the thylacine (Tasmanian tiger), and the passenger pigeon.

What is thylacine?

The thylacine, also known as the Tasmanian tiger or Tasmanian wolf, is an extinct species of marsupial which was native to Australia and New Guinea. It was the largest known carnivorous marsupial of modern times and the last known member of its family, Thylacinidae.

Humans have reacted to extinction in various ways, such as by attempting to protect endangered species, conducting research to better understand the causes of extinction, and creating conservation projects to preserve species and their habitats.
2. Ancient DNA (aDNA) is DNA that has been recovered from ancient sources such as fossils, preserved organisms, or archaeological remains. It allows scientists to study the genetic code of extinct species, and can provide insights into the evolutionary history of organisms and their relationships to one another.
3. Scientists could potentially bring back an extinct species by recreating the organism’s genetic code through cloning. Cloning involves taking DNA from the extinct species and inserting it into a host cell, which then develops into an embryo. This embryo can then be implanted into a surrogate mother and the species can be born again. This process is related to genetics because it involves manipulating the genome of the extinct species in order to replicate it.
4. Sequencing the genome of extinct species is important because it allows scientists to better understand the evolutionary history of the species and its relationships to other species. It can also help inform conservation efforts, as well as allow scientists to identify the genetic traits that are necessary for the species’ survival.
5. The research project I found most interesting was the Revive & Restore project, which seeks to bring back the passenger pigeon. It is an ambitious project that will require the collaboration of scientists and conservationists, and will help to raise awareness of the importance of species conservation. I believe that if successful, this project will be an important step towards preserving biodiversity.

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the small circular molecules of dna commonly found in bacteria are called _______

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The small circular molecules of DNA commonly found in bacteria are called "plasmids."

What are plasmids?

Plasmids are separate from the main bacterial chromosome and can be transferred between bacteria. Restriction enzymes are proteins that can cut DNA at specific sequences, and they are often used in molecular biology to manipulate plasmids for various purposes, such as cloning or gene editing.

Role of plasmids:

The small circular molecules of DNA commonly found in bacteria are called plasmids. These plasmids can be cut by restriction enzymes, which are enzymes that recognize specific DNA sequences and cut the DNA at those sites. This ability to manipulate plasmids with restriction enzymes has made them an important tool in genetic engineering and biotechnology.

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Explain what is meant by genomic imprinting.

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Genomic imprinting refers to the process by which certain genes are expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. This means that the expression of the gene depends on whether it was inherited from the mother or the father.

The imprinting of genes is controlled by epigenetic modifications, which can affect the accessibility of the DNA to transcription factors and other regulatory proteins. This process is important for the regulation of fetal growth and development, as well as the maintenance of normal cellular function throughout the lifespan. Examples of imprinted genes include those involved in fetal growth and development, such as insulin-like growth factor 2 (IGF2), and those involved in neurological function, such as brain-derived neurotrophic factor (BDNF).

Genomic imprinting is an epigenetic phenomenon that causes genes to be expressed in a parent-of-origin-specific manner. This means that the expression of a particular gene depends on whether it was inherited from the mother or the father. Genomic imprinting involves DNA methylation and histone modification, which lead to changes in gene expression without altering the underlying DNA sequence.
To summarize, genomic imprinting is a process that regulates gene expression based on the parental origin of the gene, involving epigenetic mechanisms such as DNA methylation and histone modification.

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More diverse communities are often less variable, but more resistant to disturbances

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Diversity within communities refers to the variety of species present, and it is often considered to be a key indicator of ecological health. They are dependable and resistant to disruptions.

In general, more diverse communities tend to be more stable and resistant to disturbances, such as invasive species or climate change. However, research has shown that communities with high levels of diversity can also be more variable, with fluctuations in the abundance of different species over time.

In contrast, less diverse communities may be more stable over time, but they may also be less able to adapt to changes or disturbances. Overall, it is important to balance diversity and stability when managing ecosystems, and to consider the potential trade-offs associated with different management strategies.

Maintaining a healthy level of diversity in communities is crucial for the long-term resilience and sustainability of ecosystems.

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The most probable question would be:

Are more diverse ecosystems communities more or less resilient to disturbances?

Question 44
The provisions of the CFR Part 1910 of Title 29 "Bloodborne Pathogens" are under the authority of?
a. United Stated Public Health Service
b. Department of Health and Human Services
c. Justice Department
d. Department of Labor

Answers

The provisions of the CFR Part 1910 of Title 29 "Bloodborne Pathogens" are under the authority of Department of Labor. Option D is correct.

CFR Part 1910, also known as the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, sets forth the regulations aimed at protecting workers from occupational exposure to bloodborne pathogens, such as hepatitis B virus (HBV), hepatitis C virus (HCV), as well as human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)

These regulations apply to employers in various industries, including healthcare, emergency response, public safety, and other settings where workers may be at risk of occupational exposure to blood or other potentially infectious materials.

OSHA, which is part of the U.S. Department of Labor, is responsible for developing and enforcing occupational safety and health standards, including CFR Part 1910, to ensure safe and healthful working conditions for employees.

Hence, D. is the correct option.

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cod off the coast of northeastern north america are currently at what population level? cod off the coast of northeastern north america are currently at what population level? above sustainable fishing levels below sustainable fishing levels commercially extinct at sustainable fishing levels

Answers

The decline of the cod supply in Atlantic Canada is the terrible problem being examined here. Government of Canada (2015) notes that large-scale cod fishing practised off the Atlantic coast of Canada since 1550.

Cod caught in the North Sea: Is it sustainable?

The Maritime Environmental Council (MSC), which assesses fish stocks and confirms those that may tolerate greater fishing without severe harm, has recognised cod throughout the North Sea as sustainable.

Why is the number of Atlantic cod dwindling?

There are fewer organisms from the U.S. stocks of cod in the Atlantic than the median for the previous 40 years as a result of heavy fishing pressure over the latter half of the 20th century. The quantity of young fish is a key indicator of rebuilding potential.

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At what age does the coccyx fully fuse together?

Answers

By the young age of 30.

a general term for progressive neurologic conditions characterized by a gradual decline in mental ability is __________:

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Dementia is a catch-all term for degenerative neurologic diseases marked by a slow loss of mental capacity.

What is Dementia?As a broad word for the poor memory, thinking, or decision-making that interferes with doing daily tasks, dementia does not refer to a particular disease. The most typical form of dementia is Alzheimer's illness. While it primarily affects older persons, dementia is not a natural aspect of ageing. Dementia, which is a range of disorders rather than a single disease, is marked by the impairment of at least two brain processes, including memory loss and judgement.There are several symptoms, such as forgetfulness, poor social skills, and impaired thinking that makes it difficult to go about daily tasks.Symptoms may be managed with the aid of medications and therapy. Some factors can be changed.

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The general term for progressive neurological conditions characterized by a gradual decline in mental ability is dementia.

Diagnosis of dementia:

Diagnosis of dementia involves a thorough evaluation of a patient's medical history, physical examination, and cognitive assessments. Treatment options vary depending on the underlying cause of dementia and may include medication, therapy, and lifestyle modifications.

A general term for progressive neurological conditions characterized by a gradual decline in mental ability is "dementia." In the context of your question, the diagnosis of dementia involves assessing the patient's cognitive abilities, medical history, and other factors. Treatment options for dementia vary depending on the specific type and severity of the condition, but generally focus on managing symptoms and improving the patient's quality of life.

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Give 3 parallels between Mendel's factors and behavior of chromosomes.

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Segregation, ndependent assortment, and recombination are three similarities between the behaviour of chromosomes and Mendel's factors.

What three things do the Mendel factor and the chromosome have in common?

One of their shared traits is that they both participate in reproduction. 2) They both operate as the genetic trait's conductor. 3. Both of them have unique qualities that set them apart from one another.

What connection exists between chromosomes and Mendelian factors?

Inheritance According to the chromosomal theory, chromosomes are the genetic information carriers that segregate and assort separately from one generation to the next throughout transmission and include Mendelian factors or genes.

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Atomic operations are typically faster than corresponding critical sections.true/false

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True. Atomic operations are typically faster than corresponding critical sections. This is because atomic operations are designed to be executed in a single, uninterruptible step, ensuring that concurrent threads do not interfere with each other

Atomic operations are generally faster than corresponding critical sections because they involve a single, indivisible operation that is guaranteed to be complete without interruption or interference from other threads or processes. In contrast, critical sections involve multiple operations that may require synchronization and mutual exclusion to ensure correct execution, which can introduce overhead and slow down the overall performance of the system.


Atomic operations are typically faster than corresponding critical sections. This is because atomic operations are designed to be executed in a single, uninterruptible step, ensuring that concurrent threads do not interfere with each other. Critical sections, on the other hand, require the use of locks or other synchronization mechanisms, which can introduce overhead and potential contention among threads.

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The region of the neuron that contains only voltage-gated channels is the...A) cell body/ somaB) nucleusC) dendritesD) axonE) myelin sheath

Answers

The region of the neuron that contains only voltage-gated channels is the axon. Therefore the correct option is option D.

The axon is a neuron's long, slender projection that transports nerve impulses away from the cell body to neighbouring neurons or target cells. It has specialised sections known as Ranvier nodes, which are rich in voltage-gated ion channels, which are important for generating and transmitting action potentials along the length of the axon.

Many distinct types of ion channels, including voltage-gated and ligand-gated channels, are found in the cell body or soma and play important roles in integrating and processing incoming signals from neighbouring neurons.

Dendrites are a neuron's branched projections that receive messages from neighbouring neurons and contain a variety of ion channels. Therefore the correct option is option D.

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All of the following dietary substances are known to adversely affect calcium balance EXCEPT...a. a high-fiber diet.b. lactose in the diet.c. phytic acid in the diet.d. phosphorus in the diet at a level 3 times that of calcium.

Answers

High-fiber diets are the only other alternatives that won't adversely impact calcium balance.

Does lactose affect how much calcium is absorbed?

Mammals' ability to absorb calcium is known to be improved by lactose. Animal studies have shown that lactose has a stimulating impact on calcium absorption, however there is still debate regarding this effect in people. Calcium flushing is accelerated by alcohol and salty meals. as the blood's calcium levels fall.

Which of the following causes less calcium to be absorbed?

Dietary compounds like phytate, which form complexes in the gut, can limit the absorption of calcium. Protein and salt may potentially alter the bioavailability of calcium by increasing urine calcium excretion in high concentrations.

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Question 27 Marks: 1 The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) prohibits the discharge of pollutants into U.S. waters unless a permit is issued byChoose one answer. a. EPA b. the State c. wastewater treatment agency d. a or b

Answers

The National Pollutant Discharge Elimination System (NPDES) prohibits the discharge of pollutants into U.S. waters unless a permit is issued by either the EPA or the state. Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

The NPDES program is administered by the EPA, but authorized states can also issue permits if they meet certain requirements and have a program that is at least as stringent as the federal program.

The National Pollutant release Elimination System (NPDES) forbids the release of the contaminants into U.S. waters without a permit from the EPA or the state.  Therefore, the correct answer is option D.

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In phylogenetics, a group of organisms used as a point of reference for comparison with the groups of primary interest

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In phylogenetics, a group of organisms used as a point of reference for comparison with the groups of primary interest is called an outgroup. An outgroup is a species or group of species that is closely related to the taxa of interest (the ingroup) but not part of it.

The purpose of using an outgroup is to provide a baseline for comparison of the characteristics of the ingroup. By comparing the characteristics of the outgroup to those of the ingroup, researchers can determine which traits are unique to the ingroup and which traits are shared with the outgroup.

This information can then be used to construct a phylogenetic tree, which represents the evolutionary relationships among the different taxa.

In constructing a phylogenetic tree, the outgroup is typically placed at the base of the tree, and the ingroup taxa are branched off from it. The outgroup is used to root the tree, providing a starting point for tracing the evolutionary history of the ingroup.

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The type of bone fracture characterized by the broken ends of the bone protruding through the skin is known as a(n)
a. closed (simple) fracture
b. open (compound) fracture
c. impacted fracture
d. Pott's fracture
e. greenstick fracture

Answers

The type of bone fracture characterized by the broken ends of the bone protruding through the skin is known as an open (compound) fracture, which is option b.

An open fracture occurs when the broken ends of the bone pierce through the skin, creating an external wound that communicates with the fracture. This can increase the risk of infection and requires urgent medical attention to prevent complications.

In contrast, a closed (simple) fracture is a type of bone fracture where the bone is broken but does not pierce through the skin. Instead, the broken bone ends remain beneath the skin.

An impacted fracture is a type of fracture where the broken ends of the bone are driven into each other, creating compression and shortening of the bone. This can occur when a bone is subjected to a high amount of force, such as in a car accident.

Pott's fracture is a specific type of ankle fracture that involves the distal fibula, which is the smaller bone in the lower leg. This type of fracture occurs when the ankle is forcefully twisted or turned, resulting in a break in the fibula bone.

Finally, a greenstick fracture is a type of fracture that occurs in children and is characterized by an incomplete break in the bone. In this type of fracture, the bone bends and partially breaks, rather than completely breaking.

So, the open (compound) fracture, is correct alternative. (option b)

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which data presented in the animation best supports the hypothesis that biodiversity increases with increasing island area? a general trend in a rise in number of species occurs with increasing island size. islands of similar size showed a trend in which more species were found with decreasing distance from the mainland. islands of similar size and distance from the mainland had similar numbers of species. fewer species were counted on islands farther from the mainland than were counted on islands closer to the mainland.

Answers

The data presented in the animation that best supports the hypothesis that biodiversity increases with increasing island area is A, "A general trend in a rise in the number of species occurs with increasing island size."

What is biodiversity?

Biodiversity refers to the variety of all living organisms on Earth, including the diversity of species, genetic diversity within species, and diversity of ecosystems and their functions.

This trend suggests that larger islands can support more diverse habitats and ecosystems, which can in turn support a greater number of species. This is consistent with the theory of island biogeography, which suggests that larger islands are able to support larger populations and a greater variety of species than smaller islands.

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Does CO2 or glucose have more energy? Which form?

Answers

Glucose has more energy than CO2. Glucose is a complex organic molecule that is commonly used as a source of energy by living organisms. When glucose is broken down in a process called cellular respiration, it releases a large amount of energy that can be used by cells to carry out their functions.

On the other hand, CO2 (carbon dioxide) is a simple inorganic molecule that is a byproduct of cellular respiration and other metabolic processes. It does not contain much energy in its molecular bonds and is not typically used as a source of energy by living organisms.

Therefore, in terms of energy content, glucose has more energy than CO2

Question 34
Animals are primarily affected by the pollutants in the air
a. Through ingesting vegetation
b. By inhaling pollution
c. By consuming contaminated water
d. By consuming highly toxic food and water

Answers

The answer is b. Animals are primarily affected by the pollutants in the air by inhaling pollution. This can lead to respiratory problems, damage to organs, and even death.

While animals may also ingest contaminated vegetation or water, inhalation is the primary way they are affected by air pollution. Highly toxic food and water can also pose a threat to animals, but this is not the primary way they are impacted by air pollution.
Animals are primarily affected by the pollutants in the air through option b. By inhaling pollution.

Pollution is the introduction of harmful substances or contaminants into the environment, which can cause harm to living organisms, damage to the natural environment, or negatively impact human health. Pollution can occur in various forms, including air pollution, water pollution, soil pollution, and noise pollution.

Some common sources of pollution include industrial activities, transportation, agriculture, and waste disposal. Pollutants can take many forms, such as gases, liquids, or solids, and can come from both natural and human-made sources.

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Gray rami communicantes contain ________ sympathetic fibers that travel to peripheralstructures.

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Gray rami communicantes contain postganglionic sympathetic fibers that travel to peripheral structures. To explain this, let's break down the terms and discuss the role of these fibers in the sympathetic nervous system. They play a crucial role in transmitting signals from the sympathetic trunk to target organs, blood vessels, and glands, which help regulate the body's "fight or flight" response and maintain homeostasis.

Gray rami communicantes are named for their color, which comes from the presence of unmyelinated fibers. They are found at every spinal level and distribute sympathetic innervation throughout the body. The sympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for the "fight or flight" response, helps regulate various physiological processes, including heart rate, blood pressure, and digestion

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A modification of the digestive epithelium that allows expansion of the organ is the presence of:
A) flat surfaces.
B) mucous glands.
C) ciliated columnar cells.
D) folds or pleats.
E) large amounts of skeletal muscle.

Answers

A modification of the digestive epithelium that allows expansion of the organ is the presence of folds or pleats.

D is the correct answer.

As food and drink are consumed, Rugae, which are ridges on the inside wall of the stomach, allow the stomach to enlarge. A third layer of smooth muscle, known as the inner oblique muscles, is also present in the stomach wall. These muscles support the peristaltic contractions, which are responsible for turning the bolus into chyme.

In order to maximise food absorption and digestion, the small intestinal mucosa's lining is extremely highly specialised. Villi, which enhance the surface area and aid in absorption, are formed by highly folded tiny finger-like projections on the lining.

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which hormone seems most likely with aggressive behavior? Testosterone or Estrogen?

Answers

Testosterone is more related or associated with aggression/ aggressive behavior

6) A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR andA) a heterologous antigen.B) a homologous antigen.C) either a heterologous or homologous antigen.D) None of these are correct.

Answers

A cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR and either a heterologous or homologous antigen.The correct answer is: C) either a heterologous or homologous antigen.

A cross-reaction can occur when an antibody or TCR recognizes and binds to either a heterologous antigen (from a different species or unrelated source) or a homologous antigen (from the same species or a related source), due to their structural similarity. Therefore we can conclude that a cross-reaction is an interaction between an antibody or TCR (T-cell receptor) and either a heterologous or homologous antigen making option c the correct choice.

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true or false after completing the interactive, identify the true and false statements about body mass index (bmi).

Answers

Among the given statements, the statement that is true is BMI correlates with disease risks. Option a is the correct choice.

BMI (body mass index) is calculated by dividing a person's weight in kilograms by the square of their height in meters.

A BMI of 25 or higher is considered overweight, and a BMI of 30 or higher is considered obese. These categories are associated with an increased risk of many diseases, including:

Heart disease.Stroke.Type 2 diabetes.Some types of cancer.

Therefore, option a. "It correlates with disease risks. " Is the true statement.

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The given question is not correct and is incomplete. The complete question is:

Which statement is true of body mass index?

a. It correlates with disease risks.

b. It decreases by 1 unit for every 10 years of life.

c. Its absolute value is less important than the rate at which it changes.

d. It is defined as the person's height divided by the square of the weight. e. It provides an estimate of the fat level of the body.

what do these models show about where energy storage molecules come from?

Answers

The models show the fate of energy storage molecules during the process of photosynthesis in a producer cell.

Plants are autotrophic, i.e. they produce their food themselves through photosynthesis, and hence are also called producers. During the process of photosynthesis, plants utilize light energy from the Sun to synthesize glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) and oxygen (O₂) from carbon dioxide (CO₂) and water (H₂O), within the chloroplasts. It can be summarized by the equation:

6 CO₂ + 6 H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6 O₂

Light energy is converted into chemical energy during the process of photosynthesis. Glucose serves as an energy storage molecule. The model shows that the atoms get rearranged during this reaction and the carbon atom that was present in the carbon dioxide molecule ends up in the glucose molecule.

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Select the correct molecule that is the main product of the Calvin cycle.A.G3PB. GlucoseC. NADPH

Answers

The correct molecule that is the main product of the Calvin cycle is A. G3P (glyceraldehyde-3-phosphate).

G3P is an important intermediate molecule that can be used to produce glucose, as well as other carbohydrates, lipids, and other organic molecules in plant cells. Glucose is not directly produced as the main product of the Calvin cycle, although it can be synthesized from G3P through subsequent metabolic pathways. NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate) is a coenzyme that plays a role in the energy-requiring light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and is not directly produced as a product of the Calvin cycle.

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The major difference between bacteria and protists is that protists have nuclei

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Bacteria are unicellular organisms that lack a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles. They have a single, circular chromosome that contains their genetic material. Bacteria reproduce asexually through binary fission, in which a single cell divides into two identical daughter cells.

Bacteria are found in almost every environment on Earth, including soil, water, and living organisms. Some bacteria are beneficial, such as those found in the human gut that help with digestion, while others can cause illness. Protists, on the other hand, are a diverse group of eukaryotic organisms that include both unicellular and multicellular species. Unlike bacteria, protists have a true nucleus and other membrane-bound organelles such as mitochondria and chloroplasts. They can reproduce both asexually and sexually and have a wide range of ecological roles, including as primary producers in aquatic ecosystems, as parasites, and as predators. Protists can be found in a variety of environments, including freshwater and marine environments, soil, and even in the bodies of other organisms.

Therefore, while the presence of a nucleus is a major difference between bacteria and protists, their overall structure, reproductive strategies, and ecological roles also differ significantly.

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Ananda Chakrabarty received the first U.S. patent for a GM organism. This organism was ________.
a transgenic mouse expressing the growth hormone gene
Pseudomonas engineered to degrade petroleum
Dolly the cloned sheep
the GloFish
cloned E. coli

Answers

Ananda Chakrabarty received the first U.S. patent for a GM organism. This organism was Pseudomonas engineered to degrade petroleum.

Ananda Chakrabarty, through genetic engineering, created a genetically modified (GM) organism that was designed for bioremediation purposes. This was a significant development in the field of bioremediation, where genetic engineering is used to enhance the ability of microorganisms to break down environmental pollutants.

He used a bacterium called Pseudomonas which is a type of bacteria that naturally degrades hydrocarbons, and by genetically modifying it, Chakrabarty was able to create a more efficient strain for bioremediation purposes (to clear oil spills by degrading crude oil or petroleum).

This GM organism was granted the first U.S. patent for a living organism in 1980, which marked a significant milestone in the field of biotechnology.

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A woman is a carrier for an X-linked lethal allele that causes an embryo with the allele to spontaneously abort. She has nine children. How many of these children do you expect to be boys?

Answers

Answer:

1 Child is expected to be boy.

Explanation:

X generally is a recessive gene so the possibility of the offspring to be a  boy comes from the Y gene that carries male gene.

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Which option shows the path a sp-rm travels in the male reproductive system?
O A. Testis → urethra → prostate

OB. Testiscoiled tube → urethra

OC. Testis → prostate → coiled tube

OD. Testis → bladder → pe---s​

Answers

The answer that depicts the sperm's passage through the male reproductive system is B. Testis, coiled tube, urethra.

Which is the ideal route for sperm cells to take?

During ejaculation, sperm is forcibly ejected into the deferent duct from the epididymis' tail. Following that, sperm passes through the deferent duct, up the spermatic cord into the pelvic cavity, over the ureter, and into the prostate behind the bladder.

What is the route taken by sperm in the event that an ovum is fertilised?

Before fertilisation can occur, the sperm must enter the vaginal vault, go through the cervix's small hole, swim through the uterus, and then land in the fallopian tubes.

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A kitten presents with hair loss over the top of the head and you take a sample for DTM culture. The culture begins to turn red within two days and grows some white fuzz on the surface. You use a tape preparation to identify the organisms growing and see the following under the microscope (see image). What is this?

Answers

The cat has top-of-head hair loss, so you collect a sample for DTM culture. Within two days, the culture starts to turn red and develops some white fuzz on the surface.

You use a tape preparation to identify the organisms that are developing, and you can view Microsporum under a microscope. Tinea capitis, tinea corporis, ringworm, and other dermatophytosis (fungal diseases of the skin) are all caused by the genus of fungi known as Microsporum. On short conidiophores, Microsporum produces both macroconidia, which are sizable asexual reproductive structures, and microconidia, which are smaller.

A human anthropophilic fungi called Microsporum ferrugineum is the main cause of pandemic juvenile tinea capitis. A zoophilic dermatophyte called Microsporum distortum infrequently infects people. In dogs, cats, horses, swine, guinea pigs, monkeys, rabbits, and humans, it has been isolated from ringworm (4,6). In hair, it emits a yellow-greenish light that is accompanied by tiny ectothrix spores.

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Question 82Clostridium botulinum spores are killed ina. 10 to 15 minutes at 80Cb. 10 to 15 minutes at 80Fc. 1 minute at 250Fd. 10 to 15 minutes at 230F Upon removal of the larynx, a person would no longer be able to:-swallow.-sneeze.-produce sounds.-cough. A particle moving in the horizontal direction has its position given by x(t). Find the expression for the velocity.Ignore the pencil writing and red pen, just answer the printed answer. What is the solution set of x 2 + 5 x - 5 = 0?A). [tex]\frac{5-3\sqrt{5} }{2}, \frac{5+3\sqrt{5} }{2}[/tex]B). [tex]\frac{-5+3\sqrt{5} }{2}, \frac{5+3\sqrt{5} }{2}[/tex]C). [tex]\frac{-5-3\sqrt{5} }{2}, \frac{-5+3\sqrt{5} }{2}[/tex] TRUE/FALSE. a catch clause that uses a parameter variable of the exception type is capable of catching any exception that extends the error class. Question 59A single pair of rats are capable of producing __ litters of young per yeara. 4 to 7b. 3 to 6c. 1 to 2d. 8 to 12 Find the areaRound to nearest tenth What is information security policy? Why it is critical to the success of the information security program? 3001 will be waiting at the PC's input to be written on the next rising clock edge.TrueFalse with alpha and the effect of the independent variable held constant, as n increases _________. South Dakota, like other states, may regulate private activities to protect or promote the public order, health, safety, and general welfare underSelect one:a.the due process clause.b.the dormant commerce clause.c.the free exercise clause.d.the states police powers. Which diagnostic test is used to detect a foreign body? 2. List and explain the criteria needed to balance a healthy relationship. Reflect onbehavior according to these criteria. Give a marine mammal example of a) sympatric,b) allopatric and c) peripatric speciation. Make sure that you define each of these terms in your answer. Urgent Spanish 3 project. 55 points!! Please!!!! Question 106Any time a MCL is exceeded the NTNCWA must give notice by continuous posting in a conspicuous location within the area served by the water system.a. Trueb. False Which is a bear with thick fur more likely to produce offspring than a bear with thin fur? (Lesson Game # 20) what is the molar concentration of a solution made by dissolving 0.500 mol of NaCl to make 400mL Iridium is essentially tied with osmium for the distinction of being called the "densestelement" with a density of 22.5 g/cm3. What would be the mass in pounds of a 1.0 ft 1.0 ft 1.0 ft cube of iridium. (1 lb = 453.6 g)A) 1.5 lb B) 5.2 lb C) 6.20 lb D) 1.4 103 lb E) 6.4 105 lb Two sides of a right triangle have lengths of 2 centimeters and 6 centimeters. The third side is not the hypotenuse. How long is the third side?