Question 29
The preferred method for controlling sewage from watercraft is the use of a. on-board holding tanks
b. overboard discharges when there is a large body of water to dump into c. incinerator toilets
d. compost toilets

Answers

Answer 1

Option A: On-board holding tanks are the primary way for managing sewage from watercraft.

Sewage can cause oxygen levels to drop and can visually blight coastal areas, which is a serious issue for nations with strong tourism sectors. In MARPOL Annex IV, regulations for preventing sewage pollution are listed. A health risk may result from the release of raw sewage into the ocean.

Water is typically seen as contaminated when it contains too many contaminants to be safe for uses like drinking, swimming, or fishing. Thus, wastewater treatment is a key component of water pollution control. Water pollution is generally produced by the drainage of contaminated wastewater into surface water or groundwater.

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Related Questions

34. Strenuous exercise lowers the blood pH, causing the curves for both hemoglobin and myoglobin to shift to the right. This shift results in:

Answers

The Strenuous exercise lowers pH of blood, which causes the curves for both hemoglobin and myoglobin to shift to right and this shift results in : unloading of O₂ at higher partial pressures.

During "strenuous-exercise", the body produces more CO₂ as a result of increased metabolism. The increased CO₂ production causes a decrease in blood pH, which leads to a condition known as "acidosis". This decrease in pH can cause the "oxygen-binding" curves for hemoglobin and myoglobin to shift to right.

The shift to right means that at any given "partial-pressure" of oxygen (PO₂), hemoglobin and myoglobin will have a lower affinity for oxygen, making it easier for them to release oxygen molecules to the surrounding tissues. This shift in the oxygen-binding curve is known as Bohr-Effect.

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an unconformity represents a period ___.
a. of erosion
b. of non deposition
c. in which both erosion and non-deposition occurred

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Where erosion and non-deposition both took place. A geologic gap, or unconformity, occurs when rock layers are missing, have been eroded away, or have not been deposited at all.

What does an irregularity stand for?

An unconformity is a boundary between two rock units that is covered by a sedimentary rock unit or an extrusive igneous rock unit and signifies a major epoch in the geologic record.

What about an unconformity is true?

An unconformity is a surface in the stratigraphic column of the rock record that represents a period from which no rocks have been preserved. It can be a time when there were no rocks or when there were rocks but they were later eroded away.

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_____ is the body's ability to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the body.

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Proprioception is the body's ability to sense the relative position of adjacent parts of the body.

Proprioception (or kinesthesia) is the sense though which we perceive the position and movement of our body, including our sense of equilibrium and balance, senses that depend on the notion of force. This sensory function allows for coordination, balance, and movement by providing feedback on the position and movement of body parts in relation to each other. Proprioception is crucial for our daily activities and overall physical well-being.

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Epistemology is the sub field of philosophy that looks at

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Epistemology is the subfield of philosophy that looks at the nature, sources, and limits of knowledge.

Epistemology is concerned with understanding the nature of knowledge, how it is acquired, and what its limits are. It examines the validity and reliability of knowledge claims and seeks to answer questions such as: 'What is knowledge?' 'How is knowledge acquired?' 'How do we justify our beliefs?' 'What are the limits of knowledge?'

Epistemology is a foundational branch of philosophy that has implications for many other areas of inquiry, including science, ethics, and politics. It also explores the relationship between knowledge, belief, truth, and justification. By understanding the nature and limits of knowledge, epistemology helps us to navigate the world and make informed judgments about what we can and cannot know.

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describe the specific steps of a process used to produce electricity from waste buried in a landfill

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The process of producing electricity from waste buried in a landfill is called landfill gas-to-energy. The specific steps of this process are:

Collection: Methane and carbon dioxide are the primary gases produced by decomposing waste in a landfill. Landfill gas collection systems are installed to capture these gases, which are extracted from the landfill using wells and pipes.

Purification: The collected landfill gas is then transported to a purification facility, where contaminants such as moisture, hydrogen sulfide, and siloxanes are removed.

Compression: The purified landfill gas is compressed to increase its pressure, making it easier to transport over long distances.

Conversion: The compressed gas is then sent to a power plant, where it is burned in a boiler to generate steam. The steam drives a turbine, which is connected to a generator that produces electricity.

Distribution: The electricity produced is distributed to the local power grid for use by consumers.

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What's the overall "mission" of the cardiovascular and respiratory systems?

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The cardiovascular system consists of the heart and blood vessels (capillaries) which supply the body's organs with oxygen and nutrients so that they can function properly. Blood vessels also carry away carbon dioxide and other waste products.

The respiratory system is a network of organs and tissues that help us breathe. Includes airways, lungs, and blood vessels. The muscles that power the lungs are also part of the respiratory system. These parts work together to carry oxygen throughout your body and clean exhaust gases such as carbon dioxide.

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having the ability to ignore constant stimuli is called ________.

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Is called sensory adaptation

Characteristics of animal genitalia or plant floral structures which make mating with other species impossible are forms of _____ isolation.
A) habitat
B) gamete
C) temporal
D) mechanical

Answers

Characteristics of animal genitalia or plant floral structures which make mating with other species impossible are forms of _____ isolation.

A) habitat

B) gamete

C) temporal

D) mechanical

Characteristics of animal genitalia or plant floral structures which make mating with other species impossible are forms of mechanical isolation.

Mechanical isolation refers to physical differences in genitalia or floral structures that prevent mating or pollination between different species. These differences can include variations in size, shape, or position of reproductive structures, as well as other physical barriers.

For example, in animals, the size and shape of the genitalia may differ between species, making it difficult or impossible for individuals of different species to mate successfully. Similarly, in plants, the shape and position of floral structures may differ, preventing pollen transfer between different species. Mechanical isolation is one of several types of reproductive isolation that can lead to speciation and the formation of new species.

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Select the appropriate statements regarding the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test
Select ALL correct statements.
A. A mixed culture can be used for the VP portion of the test.
B. MRVP media is inoculated using an inoculating loop.
C. The media used for the VP test contains glucose (dextrose).
D. To develop the Voges-Proskauer, test alpha-naphthol must be added followed by potassium hydroxide.
E. The VP test is part of the IMViC panel of tests.
F. The culture for the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test is grown in G. MRVP broth and can be conducted in the same exact tube as the MR portion of the test.
H. Inoculated test broth should be incubated anaerobically.

Answers

B) MRVP media is inoculated using an inoculating loop. C) The media used for the VP test contains glucose (dextrose). D) alpha-naphthol must be added followed by potassium hydroxide. E) The VP test is part of the IMViC panel of tests. F) The culture for the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test is grown in MRVP broth and can be conducted in the same exact tube as the MR portion of the test.

Based on the given options, the correct statements regarding the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test are:

B. MRVP media is inoculated using an inoculating loop. The MRVP (Methyl Red Voges-Proskauer) media is typically inoculated using an inoculating loop, which is a common method for transferring a small amount of culture onto the media.

C. The media used for the VP test contains glucose (dextrose). The VP test is used to detect the presence of acetoin, which is a metabolic product of glucose fermentation. Therefore, the media used for the VP test typically contains glucose (dextrose) as a carbohydrate source.

D. To develop the Voges-Proskauer test, alpha-naphthol must be added followed by potassium hydroxide. The VP test involves the addition of alpha-naphthol and potassium hydroxide (KOH) to the test tube after incubation, which develops the red color reaction indicating a positive result for acetoin production.

E. The VP test is part of the IMViC panel of tests. The IMViC panel of tests is a set of four tests used to identify enteric bacteria, including Indole, Methyl Red, Voges-Proskauer, and Citrate tests. Therefore, the VP test is one of the tests included in the IMViC panel.

F. The culture for the Voges-Proskauer (VP) test is grown in MRVP broth and can be conducted in the same exact tube as the MR portion of the test. The MRVP broth is used for conducting both the MR (Methyl Red) and VP (Voges-Proskauer) tests, and the same culture tube can be used for both tests. This is a time-saving and cost-effective method for conducting multiple tests using the same culture.

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Which of the following events occur first during resting inhalation?

1) Atmospheric pressure exceeds air pressure in the lungs.
B) Volume in the lungs decreases.
C) The diaphragm and external intercostal muscles contract.
D) Volume in the lungs increases.
E) The diaphragm and external intercostals relax.

Answers

Volume in the lungs increases

What are the outputs per 1 citric acid cycle?

Answers

The citric acid cycle produces [tex]CO_2[/tex], NADH, [tex]FADH_2[/tex], ATP, and guanosine triphosphate, which are important for generating ATP via the electron transport chain and supporting photosynthesis.

The citric acid cycle, also known as the Krebs cycle or TCA cycle, is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells. It plays a crucial role in the cellular respiration process, generating energy in the form of ATP molecules.

The outputs per 1 citric acid cycle are:

Two molecules of carbon dioxide ([tex]CO_2[/tex])

Three molecules of NADH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide)

One molecule of [tex]FADH_2[/tex] (flavin adenine dinucleotide)

One molecule of ATP (adenosine triphosphate)

One molecule of guanosine triphosphate

These outputs are important because they are used in the subsequent electron transport chain, where NADH and [tex]FADH_2[/tex] donate electrons produce a proton gradient across the mitochondrial membrane, which ultimately leads to the synthesis of many more ATP [tex]CO_2[/tex] leased into the atmosphere and used by plants in photosynthesis.

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Interaction:Honeybees (1) pollinate daises (2) while feeding on their nectar and pollen.

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The interaction between honeybees and daisies is an example of mutualism, a type of symbiotic relationship where both species benefit from their interaction.

In this case, honeybees feed on the nectar and pollen of the daisies, which provides them with a source of energy and nutrients. At the same time, as the bees move from flower to flower, they inadvertently transfer pollen, allowing for the fertilization of the daisies and enabling them to reproduce. This interaction is important not only for the survival of honeybees and daisies but also for the wider ecosystem as many other organisms depend on the daisies as a food source.

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Within a lymph node are open spaces called sinuses. In the cortex they are called _____ sinuses and in the medulla they are called _____ sinuses.

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Within a lymph node are open spaces called sinuses. In the cortex, they are called cortical sinuses, and in the medulla, they are called medullary sinuses.

Lymph nodes are small, oval-shaped organs of the immune system that are found throughout the body. In the cortex of a lymph node, the sinuses are known as cortical sinuses. These sinuses are located between the lymphoid follicles and contain high concentrations of antigen-presenting cells, such as dendritic cells and macrophages.

In the medulla of a lymph node, the sinuses are called medullary sinuses. These sinuses are larger than the cortical sinuses and contain fewer antigen-presenting cells. Instead, the medullary sinuses are lined with reticular cells and fibers, which provide a supportive framework for immune cells.

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Over 90% of all preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are in cranial nerveA) V. B) III. C) X. D) VII.

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Over 90% of all preganglionic parasympathetic fibers are in cranial nerve C) X, a

cranial nerve also known as the vagus nerve that plays a crucial role in the parasympathetic nervous system, which is responsible for rest, digestion, and conserving energy in the body. This nerve extends from the brainstem to various organs, such as the heart, lungs, and digestive tract, helping regulate their functions.

The other cranial nerves mentioned, A) V (trigeminal), B) III (oculomotor), and D) VII (facial), do not contain a majority of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers. The trigeminal nerve is primarily involved in facial sensation and chewing, while the oculomotor nerve controls eye movements and pupil constriction. The facial nerve, on the other hand, is responsible for facial expression, taste, and some aspects of salivation. In summary, the vagus nerve (cranial nerve X) contains over 90% of preganglionic parasympathetic fibers and plays a significant role in the parasympathetic nervous system by regulating vital organ functions. So, the correct answer is C) X.

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Show mathematically that there are 64 permutations possible when three bases are used.

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The number of permutations of n objects taken r at a time is given by the formula:

P(n, r) = n! / (n - r)!

Where "!" denotes the factorial function.

In this case, we have 3 bases and we want to find the number of permutations possible when all 3 bases are used. We can use the formula above with n = 3 and r = 3:

P(3, 3) = 3! / (3 - 3)! = 3! / 0! = 6 / 1 = 6

This gives us the number of permutations when only 3 bases are used. However, we want to find the number of permutations when all 3 bases are used. Each permutation of 3 bases can be ordered in 3! = 6 different ways. Therefore, the total number of permutations possible when all 3 bases are used is:

6 x 6 = 36

Hence, the number of permutations possible when three bases are used is 36, which is equal to 64 when raised to the power of 1.5 (sqrt(36) = 6, and 6^3 = 64).

order of development from fertilization to differentiation of the GI system

Answers

The order of development from fertilization to differentiation of the GI system is a complex and intricate process.

It begins with the fertilization of the egg and sperm, resulting in the formation of a zygote. The zygote then undergoes a series of cell divisions and differentiations, eventually forming a hollow ball of cells called a blastula.

The blastula then undergoes gastrulation, where the cells fold inwards to form a primitive gut tube. This gut tube will eventually give rise to the different regions of the GI system, such as the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine.

As the gut tube develops, different regions begin to differentiate into specific organs and structures. For example, the stomach develops into a muscular sac that churns and mixes food, while the small intestine develops into a highly folded and convoluted structure for maximum nutrient absorption.

The final stages of GI development involve the maturation and specialization of the various cell types within each organ. This includes the differentiation of different cell types within the stomach lining and the development of specialized cells such as the enteroendocrine cells in the small intestine.

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At some time during their life cycles, bryophytes make _____. A) microphylls
B) true roots
C) true leaves
D) sporangia

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At some point during their life cycles, bryophytes produce D. Sporangia. Sporangia are specialized structures that produce and release spores in plants and some other organisms, such as fungi and algae. In plants, sporangia are typically found on the sporophyte generation and are responsible for the production and dispersal of haploid spores that give rise to the gametophyte generation.

The life cycle of bryophytes involves alternating generations between a haploid gametophyte and a diploid sporophyte. The gametophyte produces gametes (sperm and egg cells) which unite to form a zygote. The zygote develops into a sporophyte, which is attached to the gametophyte and is dependent on it for nutrition. The sporophyte produces spores through meiosis, which are dispersed and develop into new gametophytes. This cycle of reproduction is characteristic of bryophytes, which include mosses, liverworts, and hornworts.

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In which autonomic division do nerve cell bodies lie closest to the organs being innervated?A) visceral sensory B) parasympatheticC) sympathetic D) somatic motor

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The autonomic division in which nerve cell bodies lie closest to the organs being innervated is the parasympathetic division (Option B).

The  autonomic system consists of two major divisions: the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system. These often function in antagonistic ways. The motor outflow of both systems is formed by two serially connected sets of neurons. The first set, called preganglionic neurons, originates in the brainstem or the spinal cord, and the second set, called ganglion cells or postganglionic neurons, lies outside the central nervous system in collections of nerve cells called autonomic ganglia.

Parasympathetic ganglia tend to lie close to or within the organs or tissues that their neurons innervate, whereas sympathetic ganglia are located at more distant sites from their target organs.

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All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium EXCEPTSelect one:a.both are found in abundance in dairy products.b.both are involved in blood clotting.c.both may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low.d.both are involved in bone formation.

Answers

All of the following characteristics are shared by calcium and magnesium EXCEPT: a. both are found in abundance in dairy products.

While calcium is found in abundance in dairy products, magnesium is more commonly found in whole grains, legumes, and green leafy vegetables. Both minerals are involved in blood clotting, may result in tetany when blood levels become abnormally low, and are involved in bone formation.  While calcium is indeed found in abundance in dairy products, magnesium is not as commonly found in whole grains, legumes, and green leafy vegetables.

In fact, magnesium is found in a variety of foods, including whole grains, nuts, seeds, legumes, leafy green vegetables, and some types of fish. Both calcium and magnesium are important minerals involved in many bodily functions, including blood clotting and bone formation. However, tetany is typically associated with low blood calcium levels, not low blood magnesium levels. Low blood magnesium levels can cause muscle weakness, cramps, and irregular heartbeat, but not tetany.

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the gene that affects more than one phenotypic trait is said to be a. dominantb. wild type c. dihybridd. pleiotropice. heterozygous.

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The gene that affects more than one phenotypic trait is said to be d. pleiotropic.

Pleiotropy occurs when a single gene influences multiple, seemingly unrelated phenotypic traits, this phenomenon can have a significant impact on an organism's phenotype, as it demonstrates the complex interplay between genes and their various functions. While other terms like dominant, wild type, dihybrid, and heterozygous are related to genetics and inheritance patterns, they do not specifically describe a gene that influences multiple traits.

A dominant gene is one that expresses its phenotype even in the presence of a recessive allele, while a wild type refers to the most common phenotype found in a population. A dihybrid pertains to an organism that is heterozygous for two different traits, and heterozygous means having two different alleles for a particular gene. In summary, the correct term to describe a gene that affects multiple phenotypic traits is pleiotropic. The gene that affects more than one phenotypic trait is said to be d. pleiotropic.

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Which is a correct pairing of structure and function? A) Vein: carries deoxygenated bloodB) Artery: carries oxygenated blood C) Vein: carries blood away from the heartD) Artery: carries blood away from the heartE) Artery: carries blood from the lungs to the heart

Answers

The correct pairing of structure and function is Artery: carries oxygenated blood. Therefore the correct option is option B.

Arteries are blood arteries that transport blood from the heart to numerous organs and tissues throughout the body. To handle the great pressure of blood flowing away from the heart, the walls of arteries are thick and muscular.

Arteries transport oxygenated blood rich in oxygen and nutrients to tissues that require them. Veins, on the other hand, transport deoxygenated blood that has already been utilised by the body's tissues and must be returned to the heart and lungs to be re-oxygenated.

As a result, option B) is the correct structure-function pairing. Therefore the correct option is option B.

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a native wolf species has been reintroduced into yellowstone national park and grows according to the law of exponential growth. originally 200 wolves were transplanted. after 3 years, the population had grown to 270 wolves. what is the growth rate?

Answers

On January 12, 1995, wolves were transported into Yellowstone's national park via truck. The westward migration of the 1800s placed their livestock into close proximity with local predators and prey species.

What is the wolf's history?

History. Although the wolf's evolutionary past is not entirely clear, many biologists think that it sprang from early predators called miacids. Miacids, which had animal sizes ranging from gophers to dogs, emerged for the first time in the Early Tertiary around 52 millennia ago.

The original wolf man was who?

Universal The 1941–1948 Monsters film series Seven films made up the original series, all of which featured legendary horror artist Lon Naughton Jr. as Harry Talbot. The film series is a component of the broader Universal Pictures.

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________ is a technique that provides a comparison of alternatives based on their costs and effectiveness in meeting organizational objectives.

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Cost-benefit analysis is a technique that provides a comparison of alternatives based on their costs and effectiveness in meeting organizational objectives. This analysis allows decision-makers to evaluate the feasibility and potential outcomes of different options before making a final decision. By assessing the costs and benefits of each alternative, organizations can make informed choices that maximize resources and achieve desired outcomes.


Cost-effectiveness analysis (CEA) is a technique that provides a comparison of alternatives based on their costs and effectiveness in meeting organizational objectives. This approach helps decision-makers choose the most efficient option by assessing the relationship between resources expended and outcomes achieved.

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Question 78
Which one of the following statements about cadmium is false?
a. it is used in production of pigments
b. it helps the body metabolize calcium
c. it may be found in tobacco plants
d. it readily bioaccumulates

Answers

Your answer: b. it helps the body metabolize calcium. This statement about cadmium is false. Cadmium is a toxic heavy metal used in the production of pigments, can be found in tobacco plants, and readily bioaccumulates. However, it does not help the body metabolize calcium; instead, it can cause harm to the human body when ingested or inhaled in high concentrations.

A number of bodily hormones and organs are involved in the complicated process of calcium metabolism. A critical component of numerous body processes, including muscular contraction, nerve transmission, blood coagulation, and bone health, calcium is an important element. metabolize calcium is taken from food into the circulation in the digestive tract, where the process of metabolising calcium begins. The main location of calcium absorption is the small intestine, and the hormone calcitriol (commonly known as vitamin D3) controls the absorption process. After being absorbed into the circulation, calcium travels to the body's many tissues and organs, including the bones, muscles, and nerves.

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Question 20
The scientific name of a certain microorganism is Clostridium perfringens. The second word of this name indicates the:
a. class
b. genus
c. phylum
d. species

Answers

Option d is correct. The scientific name of a certain microorganism is Clostridium perfringens. The second word of this name indicates the species.

The genus and species are the two components that make up an organism's scientific name in binomial nomenclature. The species is not capitalized, but the genus is. "Clostridium" refers to the genus and "perfringens" to the species in the case of Clostridium perfringens.

The genus is a taxonomic level below the family and above the species level. Although they may not all look or behave the same, all species in a genus have a common ancestor and are closely related.

For instance, the anaerobic, spore-forming bacteria belonging to the genus Clostridium can be found in soil, water, and the gastrointestinal tracts of mammals.

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which statement below best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis?multiple choicemitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm.mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the cytoplasm while cytokinesis divides the nuclear material.mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a contractile ring to divide the nuclear material while cytokinesis uses the contractile ring to divide the cell membrane.mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that uses a cell plate to divide the cell membrane in plant cells while cytokinesis uses a contractile ring to divide the cell membrane in animal cells. prev

Answers

Cytokinesis happens any time karyokinesis. Cytokinesis occurs through two fundamental processes: animals and other eukaryotic cells and one through plant cells the cytoplasm of a telephone into two during cytokinesis Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm.

The statement that best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis is "mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm. Mitosis is the process of dividing the genetic material (nucleus) into two identical sets, while cytokinesis is the process of dividing the cytoplasm and cell contents into two separate daughter cells. The statement that best describes the difference between mitosis and cytokinesis is Mitosis is the portion of the cell cycle that divides the nuclear material while cytokinesis divides the cytoplasm. animals and other eukaryotic cells and one through plant cells—the cytoplasm of a telephone into two during cytokinesis.

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which of the following best describes the greenhouse effect?
A
The process by which radiant heat from the atmosphere heats up the Earth’s surface, making it warm enough for humans.
B
The method by which electromagnetic waves carry heat through air or water, leading to balanced temperatures.
C
A type of gas that lets radiant heat escape through holes in the atmosphere, making the Earth cool.
D
A system that allows the sun to absorb enough radiant energy from the Earth to stay hot.

Answers

The Earth becomes warmer due to the greenhouse effect when heat is trapped by gases in the atmosphere. Answer option provides the most accurate description of this procedure. The right response is that the planet's surface is warmed by atmospheric gases that trap heat.

What is meant by greenhouse effect?A phenomenon known as the greenhouse effect happens after heat from a planet's host star passes through the atmosphere of the planet and warms the planet's surface. When the heat from the Sun is trapped by gases in the Earth's atmosphere, the process is known as the greenhouse effect. Compared to when there is no atmosphere, this process makes Earth substantially warmer. The greenhouse effect is one of the factors that makes Earth a pleasant place to live. Heat is held in close proximity to the Earth's surface by "greenhouse gases," a process known as the greenhouse effect. The globe is kept warmer than it would be without these heat-trapping gases, which can be compared to a blanket that is wrapped around the planet.

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Answer: A. The process by which radiant heat from the atmosphere heats up the Earth’s surface, making it warm enough for humans.

Explanation: I js did it

Question 96
With dental x-rays, it is necessary to establish the correct exposure time for kilovoltage, milliamperage and source-to-skin distance.
a. True
b. False

Answers

The statement "With dental x-rays, it is necessary to establish the correct exposure time for kilovoltage, milliamperage, and source-to-skin distance" is true because these factors significantly influence the quality of the resulting image and the patient's radiation dose.

Dental X-rays use ionizing radiation, which can be harmful if not used properly. Kilovoltage (kV) determines the energy level of the X-ray photons, while milliamperage (mA) controls the number of photons produced per unit of time.

The source-to-skin distance (SSD) determines the amount of radiation reaching the patient's skin. Therefore, dental professionals must carefully select the appropriate exposure time for each patient based on their anatomical characteristics and clinical needs, the statement is true.

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Stimulation from the __________ nervous system via the __________ nerve causes the secretion of HCl in the stomach.
sympathetic; gastric
sympathetic; vagus
sympathetic; trigeminal
parasympathetic; gastric
parasympathetic; vagus

Answers

Stimulation from the parasympathetic nervous system via the vagus nerve causes the secretion of HCl in the stomach.

The autonomic nervous system, which regulates the body's automatic, unconscious processes including digestion, heart rate, and respiration, includes the parasympathetic nervous system.

The vagus nerve, which is the 10th cranial nerve, is in charge of controlling the digestion process by causing the stomach to secrete more HCl. It accomplishes this by releasing the hormone acetylcholine, which triggers the stomach's lining cells to secrete hydrochloric acid (HCl).

This aids in the breakdown of food and the activation of digestive enzymes. Additionally, HCl aids in the destruction of bacteria and other organisms in the stomach that are trying to enter the small intestine.

Therefore, it is evident that vagus nerve activation of the parasympathetic nervous system is responsible for the secretion of HCl in the stomach.

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Refrigerators and air conditioners use a substance known as a "refrigerant" to absorb heat. Some of the first cooling systems used carbon dioxide and other naturally occurring chemicals as refrigerants, but these chemicals were not ideal for small cooling applications

Answers

Answer:

hope this helps

Explanation:

dont know what you are asking but..

Refrigerants are chemicals used in refrigeration and air conditioning systems to absorb heat from the surrounding environment and transfer it to another location. Some of the earliest refrigerants used in cooling systems were naturally occurring substances like carbon dioxide, ammonia, and sulfur dioxide. However, these chemicals had drawbacks such as toxicity and flammability, and were not ideal for use in small cooling applications.

In the early 20th century, synthetic refrigerants like chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) and hydrochlorofluorocarbons (HCFCs) were developed and widely used due to their excellent cooling properties and stability. However, it was later discovered that CFCs and HCFCs have a harmful impact on the Earth's ozone layer, which protects the planet from harmful UV radiation. As a result, the production and use of CFCs and HCFCs were phased out through the Montreal Protocol, an international agreement signed in 1987.

The replacement refrigerants that have been developed and used more recently, such as hydrofluorocarbons (HFCs), are less harmful to the ozone layer, but they are still potent greenhouse gases that contribute to climate change. Additionally, some refrigerants can be harmful to human health if they are not handled or disposed of properly.

For example, some refrigerants can be toxic if inhaled or ingested. Exposure to high levels of refrigerant vapors can cause dizziness, nausea, headaches, and even asphyxiation in extreme cases. Some refrigerants can also cause skin or eye irritation if they come into contact with the skin or eyes. In addition, refrigerants can contribute to air pollution if they leak into the atmosphere or are not properly disposed of.

Overall, the development and use of refrigerants have had both positive and negative impacts on human society and the environment. While refrigerants are essential for modern cooling systems, it is important to use them responsibly and minimize their environmental and health impacts.

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