shat is smart square chi

Answers

Answer 1

The Chi-Square test is a statistical test used to determine if there is a significant difference between the expected frequencies and the observed frequencies in one or more categories.

The test is often used to evaluate the relationship between two categorical variables, such as gender and voting preference. It can also be used to test the association between multiple categorical variables. The test is based on the Chi-Square distribution, which is the distribution of the sum of the squares of independent, standard normal random variables. The test is used to determine if there is a statistically significant difference between the observed and expected frequency in one or more categories.

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Related Questions

Blood in the anterior chamber indicates which injury?
A. Subconjunctival hemorrhage
B. Ruptured globe
C. Orbital blowout fracture
D. Hyphema

Answers

D. Hyphema is the injury in the  anterior chamber .

In general , injury of red blood cells within the anterior chamber is known to as a hyphema. on the other hand a small amount of blood that is seen only  under close microscopic  is referred to as a microhyphema.

Hence, Hyphema is considered as the collection of blood at the anterior chamber of the eye. The major cause of hyphema is blunt trauma, or in many cases an spontaneous hyphemas can also occur in the on set of sickle cell disease or other disease related to the bleeding states. Hyphemas are classified on the basis of degree of blood agitated from the cornea.

Hence, D is the correct option

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when choosing a dietary supplement, avoid those for which the recommended dose would

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It's crucial to adhere to the dose instructions specified on the labeling or by a healthcare provider when selecting dietary supplements.

In general, it is a good idea to stay away from dietary supplements that suggest a dose that is higher than the acceptable upper intake limit (UL) for the vitamin or chemical being supplemented and the recommended daily allowance (RDA). The risk of negative health impacts, such as toxicity and nutritional imbalances, increases when a nutrient is consumed in excess of the RDA or UL. For instance, consuming excessive amounts of vitamin A can result in toxicity, which can result in symptoms like dizziness, vomiting, and even liver problems. Similar to how ingesting too much iron may be hazardous, it can result in symptoms including organ failure, constipation, and even stomach discomfort.

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if you tested positive for covid when should you retest

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every 5 days for two weeks

which action would the nurse include in the plan of care for a client admitted with heart failure who has gained 20 pounds in 3 weeks?

Answers

The nurse would include monitoring of the client's weight and fluid intake on a daily basis as part of the plan of care.

What is client?

A client is a computer or device connected to a server or other computers on a network. It requests services, such as access to websites, files, applications, and electronic mail, from a server and receives data from the server in response. In a client/server model, the client is the user's computer that requests services from the server, which provides them.

The nurse should also encourage the client to adhere to dietary and fluid restrictions as prescribed by the healthcare provider. Additionally, the nurse should teach the client about signs and symptoms of worsening heart failure and the importance of reporting any changes in symptoms to the healthcare provider.

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Label the following phases of sexual reproduction. (picture provided)

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Answer:

Explanation:It's asexual.

Binary Fission

The nurse understands that which intervention is most appropriate for a patient with Rh-negative blood who is unsensitized and just received percutaneous umbilical blood?a. RhoGAM administrationb. Transvaginal ultrasoundc. Transabdominal ultrasound

Answers

The nurse understands that the most appropriate intervention for a patient with Rh-negative blood who has just received percutaneous umbilical blood is a RhoGAM administration.

What is a RhoGAM administration?

RhoGAM is a medication that is given to Rh-negative mothers during pregnancy and after delivery to prevent the development of Rh-sensitization, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in subsequent pregnancies.

Rh-sensitization occurs when an Rh-negative mother becomes exposed to Rh-positive fetal cells, which may happen during pregnancy or delivery if the mother and baby have different blood types. If the mother's immune system recognizes the Rh antigen as foreign, it may produce antibodies against it, which can cross the placenta and attack the fetal red blood cells in subsequent pregnancies. This can lead to HDN, a serious condition that can cause anemia, jaundice, and even death in the newborn.

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The idea that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or ability to think logically is a. important for teachers to consider when working with children who have learning disabilities. b. supported by the evidence that most left-handed individuals are employed as artists or musicians. C. supported by the research findings on split-brain operations. d. a popular myth about lateralization.

Answers

D. a popular myth about lateralization. A common misconception concerning lateralization is the notion that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their capacity for creativity or logical thought.

A common misconception concerning lateralization is the notion that a person's dominant hemisphere influences their creativity or capacity for logical thought. Although research has not consistently found a connection between hemispheric dominance and creativity or logical thinking, it is true that certain brain regions are typically associated with particular cognitive functions, such as language processing in the left hemisphere and spatial processing in the right hemisphere. Likewise, there is no empirical support for the idea that people who are left-handed tend to be more creative or artistic. As each kid has different learning requirements and skills, instructors shouldn't base their instruction or intervention tactics on these myths. Instead, they should take these factors into account.

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Which instruction is beneficial for a patient with dry skin?
A. Use topical antibiotics.
B. Bathe more frequently.
C. Apply antiseptic lotion or spray.
D. Add moisture to the air by using a humidifier

Answers

Use an ointment, cream, or lotion to your skin as often as necessary, between two and three times per day. Since moisturizers assist retain moisture, they function best on damp skin.

Which element puts a patient at particularly high risk for corneal drying?

Aqueous-deficient dry eye illness has several risk factors for corneal surface injury, including early age (18 years), female sex, diabetes mellitus, and autoimmune diseases. Aqueous-deficient dry eye illness is becoming more common during the research period, particularly in patients over the age of 65.

What aspects of the skin will the nurse feel for while assessing it?

With your fingertips, you may feel the skin's temperature, moisture content, texture, skin turgor, capillary refill, and edema. It is useful to apply pressure with a firm surface if erythema or rashes are present.

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What is a pattern of thinking that makes events seem worse than they are?

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A pattern of thinking that makes events seem worse than they are is known as catastrophizing magnification. It is also known as cognitive distortions.

What is Catastrophizing magnification?

Catastrophizing magnification may be defined as a type of condition in which an individual is always thinking that makes events seem worse than they are. It can worsen both physical and mental health outcomes.

For example, people with chronic pain catastrophize and may experience more severe pain. This is stimulated through the approach of negative or sideways thinking of the people along with the sense of demotivation.

With respect to negative thinking, repeated patterns of unrealistic may also be known as cognitive distortions. Cognitive distortions are basically thinking mistakes.

Therefore, a pattern of thinking that makes events seem worse than they are is known as catastrophizing magnification. It is also known as cognitive distortions.

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According to Piaget, in what stage do children begin to consider that rules can be conditional? A) immanent justice stage. B) incipient cooperation stage. C) autonomous cooperation stage. D) heteronomous morality stage

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In the autonomous cooperation stage, according to Piaget, children start to consider that rules can be conditional.

What is autonomous cooperation stage?

Children learn at the autonomous cooperation stage that norms are decided upon by the participants in the interaction rather than being imposed from outside. Students start to understand that people have various viewpoints and beliefs, which can affect how they interpret and apply the law. Children at this age also start to make moral judgments by taking into account the motive behind actions rather than merely the result.

According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, this period lasts between the ages of 10 and 12. Children can reason logically and abstractly at this age and comprehend that rules are agreements that can be modified by consent of all parties. Kids also start to comprehend that rules might be altered depending on the particular situation and context.

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which type of body fat is the most detrimental to health?
A. Saturated fat.
B. Trans fat.
C. Good fats.
D. Monounsaturated fat.
E. Visceral fat

Answers

E. Visceral fat is the type of body fat that is the most detrimental to health. Visceral fat is the fat that accumulates around the abdominal organs and can increase the risk of various health problems, such as cardiovascular disease, type 2 diabetes, and some cancers.

Which federal guidelines regarding recommended physical activity have been established for adults ages 14–64? Check all that apply.should aim for 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity a weekshould get 2 1/2 hours a week of moderate exerciseshould get 60 minutes of moderate/vigorous exercise dailyshould participate in strengthening activities at least 3 days a weekshould participate in strengthening activities at least 2 days a week

Answers

The federal guidelines established for recommended physical activity for adults aged 18-64, the correct option is B, C, and D.

Specifically, adults are advised to engage in at least 150 minutes of moderate-intensity or 75 minutes of vigorous-intensity aerobic physical activity per week, spread throughout the week. Additionally, adults should aim to perform muscle-strengthening activities on at least two days per week that involve all major muscle groups

The guidelines also recommend that adults should sit less and move more throughout the day. Regular physical activity has many health benefits, including reducing the risk of chronic diseases such as heart disease, stroke, and type 2 diabetes, and improving mental health and well-being.

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The complete question is:

Which federal guidelines regarding recommended physical activity have been established for adults ages 14-64? Check all that apply.

A. should aim for 75 minutes of vigorous aerobic activity a week

B. should get 2 1/2 hours a week of moderate exercise

C. should get 60 minutes of moderate/vigorous exercise daily

D. should participate in strengthening activities at least 3 days a week

E. should participate in strengthening activities at least 2 days a week

Which action should the nurse avoid while assessing the blood pressure (BP) of a 10-month-old patient?1. Choosing the cuff based on the name of the cuff2. Placing the stethoscope flexibly on the antecubital fossa3. Preparing the child for the unusual sensation of the BP cuff4. Allowing 15 minutes for the child to recover from recent activity before measuring BP

Answers

In the given situation the correct option is (1) deciding on a cuff based solely on its name.

What is blood pressure?

The force of moving blood exerted on the walls of blood arteries is known as blood pressure.

The heart's action of pumping blood through the circulatory system is mostly responsible for this pressure.

The pressure in the major arteries is meant when the word "blood pressure" is used without a qualifier.

So, in the given situation, the size of the cuff shouldn't be chosen by the nurse based solely on its designation; for instance, a "baby" cuff can be too tiny for a patient who is an infant.

Flexibility in stethoscope placement is necessary to prevent auscultation mistakes.

The nurse should be aware that making the youngster more comfortable with the novel feeling of the blood pressure cuff increases the child's participation.

Reading is challenging for kids who are restless or agitated, so the youngster should be given at least 15 minutes to relax, recuperate from recent activities, and become less anxious before reading.

Therefore, in the given situation the correct option is (1) deciding on a cuff based solely on its name.

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Complete question:

Which action should the nurse avoid while assessing the blood pressure (BP) of a 10-month-old patient?

1. Choosing the cuff based on the name of the cuff

2. Placing the stethoscope flexibly on the antecubital fossa

3. Preparing the child for the unusual sensation of the BP cuff

4. Allowing 15 minutes for the child to recover from recent activity before measuring BP

after insertion of a speculum into the vagina, laser ablation was performed to cauterize the outer cells of the cervix. assigne CPT code and modifier!

Answers

The appropriate CPT code for laser ablation of the outer cells of the cervix after insertion of a speculum into the vagina is 57461 and the modifier -LT (left side) or -RT (right side) can be added to indicate the side on which the anesthesia was administered.

If the procedure was performed with the use of conscious sedation or general anesthesia, the modifier -23 (unusual anesthesia) can be added to indicate that the procedure required anesthesia beyond the usual level associated with the procedure.

It is important to note that the appropriate CPT code and modifier may vary depending on the specific circumstances of the procedure, and it is recommended to consult with a medical coder or billing specialist for accurate coding and billing practices.

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what measurement should the nurse report to the physician in the immediate postoperative period?

Answers

Consequently, a systolic blood pressure reading of less than 90 mm Hg is the measurement that the nurse should communicate to the doctor in the immediate postoperative period.

Why doctors are called physician?

Only those with a medical doctoral degree are eligible to use the title "physician." As a result, a doctor is someone who has received a medical degree, from basic graduation to super speciality, link validated. The term "physician" covers medical doctors (MD), surgeons, podiatrists, dentist, clinical psychologists, ophthalmologists, chiropractors, or osteopathic practitioners as long as they are acting within the bounds of their state-legally permitted scope of practice.

What is the difference between doctor and a physician?

Although doctors use more extensive medical techniques like operations and surgeries, they also treat patients using pills and pharmaceuticals. After graduating from medical school, doctors must attend a residency that can last anywhere between two and five years. Students in India start out with an MBBS degree. After it is finished, it indicates the level of training necessary to be accepted as a licensed physician. A higher post-graduate degree for specialist training is an MD. Only MBBS-trained medical professionals are qualified to pursue an MD.

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The complete question is:

What measurement should the nurse report to the physician in the immediate postoperative period?

-A systolic blood pressure lower than 90 mm Hg

-A temperature reading between 97°F and 98°F

-Respirations between 20 and 25 breaths/min

-A hemoglobin of 13.6

which has greatly affected legal and ethical issues in the medical profession?

Answers

There have been several factors that have greatly affected legal and ethical issues in the medical profession over time. Some of the most significant include:

Technological advancements: The rapid development of new medical technologies and treatments has led to new ethical and legal challenges, such as questions about who has access to certain treatments, and whether patients have the right to refuse certain treatments.

Changing societal values: As societal values and beliefs about health and medicine have evolved over time, so too have the ethical and legal standards that govern medical practice. For example, the movement towards patient-centered care has led to increased emphasis on informed consent and shared decision-making.

Increased scrutiny and regulation: The medical profession is subject to a wide range of regulations and oversight, both from government agencies and professional organizations. These regulations and standards are constantly evolving in response to new challenges and emerging ethical issues.

Medical malpractice lawsuits: The threat of malpractice lawsuits has greatly impacted the legal and ethical landscape of the medical profession. Healthcare providers are held to high standards of care, and failure to meet those standards can result in legal and financial consequences.

Globalization: As the medical profession becomes increasingly globalized, with healthcare providers and patients from different countries interacting more frequently, there are new ethical and legal challenges to navigate, such as differences in cultural norms and legal frameworks.

These are just a few of the many factors that have greatly affected legal and ethical issues in the medical profession. As the field continues to evolve, it is likely that new challenges and ethical questions will continue to arise.

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Q1. What is a benefit of abstaining from using vaping devices?
A. Preventing dementia
B. Avoiding excessive weight gain
C. Avoiding addiction to vaping and other tobacco products
D. Preventing premature nerve damage in arms and legs

Q2. What is a potential consequence of vaping?
A. Weight gain
B. Measles
C. HIV
D. Seizures

Q3. Which statements are true regarding addiction and mental illness?
(Choose all correct answers.)
A. Depression and anxiety always lead to addiction.
B. Mental illness can lead to addiction
C. Addiction can lead to mental illness

Answers

Avoiding addiction to vaping and other tobacco products, Seizures and B. Mental illness can lead to addiction, C. Addiction can lead to mental illness.

What is tobacco?

Tobacco is a product made from the leaves of the tobacco plant, which is primarily grown in warmer climates. It is a substance that is commonly smoked in cigarettes, cigars, or pipes, but can also be chewed or sniffed. Tobacco contains nicotine, a highly addictive stimulant, as well as other carcinogenic compounds that can lead to a variety of health issues such as cancer, heart and lung disease, and stroke. It has also been linked to an increased risk of depression and anxiety. Quitting tobacco use is the only way to reduce these risks and improve overall health.

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Answer:

Q1: Avoiding addiction to vaping and other tobacco products.

Q:2 seizures

Q3:

1 - Addiction can lead to mental illness.

2 -  Mental illness can lead to addiction.

Q4: inhaling nicotine vapor through an electronic device

Q5: sudden mood swings

Explanation: k12 4.07 Quiz: Addiction and Mental Health

true or false,if someone smokes weed around you will it get in your system

Answers

This statement is true because Prolonged exposure to cannabis smoking can result in positive urine tests. Positive tests, on the other hand and restricted to certain environmental conditions exposure is clearly evident.

What can be detected in a urine test?

Urinalysis is frequently used by medical professionals to identify urinary tract infections as well as to evaluate for or monitor a number of prevalent health disorders, including diabetes, liver disease, and kidney disease (UTIs).

Does a blood or urine test detect cancer?

If there is cancer, several molecules called tumour markers may be elevated. Typically, they are proteins. They might be discovered in the bodily tissues, urine, or blood. They may also be referred to as molecular markers or biomarkers.

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what is the recommended intake of calories from saturated fat?

Answers

less than 10% of the total calories you eat and drink each day so around 200-2000

What is ICD-10 abdominal pelvic pain?

Answers

ICD-10 is a standardized system used for medical coding and billing purposes. The code for abdominal pelvic pain is R10.4. This code is used to indicate the presence of pain in the abdomen or pelvic region.

Abdominal pelvic pain can have various causes, including digestive disorders, urinary tract infections, reproductive system problems, and musculoskeletal issues. The specific cause of the pain will need to be identified through medical evaluation and diagnostic testing. Accurate coding using ICD-10 is important for healthcare providers to ensure proper documentation, billing, and communication with insurance providers.

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how many kilocalories are provided from a food containing 4 grams of protein

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Each gram of protein constitutes of 4 kilocalories, therefore 4 grams of protein in a food will provide 16 kilocalories of energy.

Proteins are the biological macromolecules formed by the monomers called amino acids joined together by the peptide bond. The proteins are most essential component of body as they are involved in each and every function of the body like structural, catalytic, signaling, transport, etc.

Kilocalories is the measure of energy in the body supplied by the consumed food. It is in general sense also called calorie. The energy is measured after the food is broken down in the body by digestion process.

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write a 5-7 sentence paragraph on EACH TOPIC
Tell why physical education classes should be mandatory for all students.
and Explain why your favorite p.e game is the best

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Physical education classes should be mandatory for everyone because of the benefits that physical activity promotes.

What benefits can be cited?Improved body conditioning.Decreased levels of sugar and fat in the body.Release of relaxation hormones and combat stress.

Physical education classes promote the regular practice of physical exercise, which improves not only the students' body but also their mental capacity and emotional quality. This has a positive impact on the students' personal, academic, and professional lives and, therefore, these classes should be mandatory for everyone.

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What is the best test bank for nursing?

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Depending on your particular requirements and interests, you might want to have a look at a few other nursing test bank selections. Here are a few well-liked choices: Complete Review for the NCLEX-RN Examination by Saunders Exam Bank.

The goal of the nursing profession is to offer complete care to people, families, and communities. The promotion and maintenance of health, illness prevention, and disease treatment are under the purview of nurses, who are crucial members of the healthcare team. They operate in a range of locations, including long-term care facilities, schools, residences, hospitals, and clinics. Nursing requires a broad range of skills, from simple patient care to intricate clinical judgement. Excellent communication, critical thinking, and problem-solving abilities are essential for nurses. Workers frequently have to put in a lot of overtime, especially on nights, weekends, and holidays, and they have to be able to deal with pressure and difficult emotions. A nursing job is satisfying, demanding, and ever-changing.

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The nurse has just received a client from the special procedures lab for a liver biopsy. What is the position of choice for this client post procedure? You answered this question Correctly
1. Fowler's
2. Right side
3. Left side
4. Prone

Answers

The position of choice for a client after a liver biopsy is usually the right side. This is because the liver is located on the right side of the body, and lying on the right side can help to put pressure on the biopsy sit.

A liver biopsy is a medical procedure in which a small sample of liver tissue is removed using a needle. It is typically done to help diagnose liver disease, assess the severity of liver damage, or monitor the progress of treatment. After the procedure, the client is usually asked to lie on their right side for a period of time. Lying on the right side after a liver biopsy can help to apply pressure to the biopsy site, which can reduce the risk of bleeding. The liver is located on the right side of the body, and lying on the right side can help to shift the liver up and put pressure on the biopsy site. This can help to promote clotting and reduce the risk of bleeding or other complications. The client may be asked to remain in this position for several hours after the procedure, depending on the specific instructions from the healthcare provider. In some cases, other positions such as Fowler's, left side, or prone may be used instead, but the right side is generally the position of choice after a liver biopsy. It's important for the client to follow the healthcare provider's instructions carefully after the procedure to help ensure a successful recovery.

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about which issue should the nurse inform clients who use pain medications on a regular basis?

Answers

Inform the primary health care provider about the use of salicylates before any procedure, and avoid over-the-counter analgesics consistently without consulting a physician.

Describe salicylates.

The level of salicylates in the blood is determined by this test. A class of medication known as salicylates is present in numerous over-the-counter and prescription drugs. The most popular salicylate is aspirin. Bayer and Ecotrin are two well-known brand names for aspirin.

The most typical uses for aspirin and other salicylates are to treat inflammation, fever, and pain. A heart attack or stroke can be brought on by excessive blood clotting, which is effectively avoided by them. Baby aspirin or other low-dose aspirin may be prescribed daily to people at risk for certain illnesses to assist prevent harmful blood clots.

Although it is referred to as "baby aspirin," babies, older kids, and teenagers should not use it. Aspirin consumption among these age groups can result in Reye syndrome, a potentially fatal condition.

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Aristotle carved the structure of logical argument to its bare bones when he observed that it had only two parts:
Group of answer choices

claim and rebuttal

statement and proof

claim and counterclaim

Answers

statements and proof. Logical reasoning will almost certainly be used to support a claim in everything you read that seeks to influence your opinion. Philosophers are taught to examine arguments, the logic and reasoning that support them, and the veracity of the assertions they make.

Although you won't explore arguments in as much length or depth in an English course as you would in a course on philosophy or logic, you still need to be familiar with the main ideas in argumentation.

Understanding the fundamental components of an argument will enable you to analyze the reasoning behind any arguments you read as well as create strong arguments in your own ideas.

An argument is a statement that has premises and a conclusion. You can start by searching for a claim, a statement, or an opinion on a subject while assessing arguments. Statements or propositions are other names for claims.

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Fill The Blank ? the memory of your 6th birthday is an example of ______memory.

Answers

Answer: The memory of your 6th birthday is an example of long-term memory.

to keep track of how much they're drinking, people should:

Answers

Some people feel compelled to track their alcohol consumption after having negative experiences as a result of binge drinking.

Why is keeping track of your drinks crucial?

Maintaining a Drinking Schedule-You can clearly identify your drinking "triggers" and determine whether your alcohol intake is becoming problematic by keeping track of your thoughts about drinking, the times you really desire a drink, and the times you actually consume alcohol.

How are drinks recorded by bartenders?

Some establishments will offer you a card with a Tab number that must be shown anytime beverages are ordered; smaller establishments or establishments where the patron is well-known to the staff may not require this precaution.

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which reinforcement schedule is used in this situation? a professional baseball player, gets a home run sometimes when he swings at a ball.

Answers

The reinforcement schedule that is used in this situation is a variable ratio schedule. This means that the player is reinforced for a behavior (swinging at a ball) after an unpredictable number of responses (swings). In this case, the player gets a home run, which is a highly desirable and rewarding outcome, after an unpredictable number of swings.

Variable ratio schedules are often used to reinforce behaviors that are difficult to maintain, as they can produce high rates of responding and resistance to extinction. In the case of the baseball player, the variable ratio schedule of reinforcement may motivate the player to continue swinging at balls, even if they miss or fail to hit a home run on previous attempts, because the possibility of hitting a home run is always present and reinforces their behavior.

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luisa is suffering from a severe cold. her nose has been stopped up for several days. what effect, if any, might her cold have on her sense of taste?

Answers

Luisa's sense of taste may be affected by her severe cold, as the sense of taste is closely linked to the sense of smell.

When the nose is congested, it can be more difficult to smell the aromas of food and beverages, which can in turn affect the ability to taste.

In addition, the common cold can also affect the ability to taste by temporarily reducing the number of taste receptors on the tongue, making it more difficult to perceive certain flavors.

However, it is important to note that not all individuals experience changes in taste during a cold. Some people may have a normal sense of taste, while others may experience a decreased or altered sense of taste.

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Other Questions
The nurse is teaching a group of young women about screening for chlamydia. Which client statement demonstrates that nursing teaching has been effective?a) "If I am a 40-year-old woman with a 'new' partner, I need to be screened again."b) "As a sexually active 19 year old, I need to be screened every 2 years."c) "At age 30, I need yearly testing, even if I have been monogamous for several years."d)"My partner got tested and treated for an STI so I don't need to be tested. what are the passageways that carry proteins and other materials? Drag each cell structure to the appropriate bin. If a structure is found in both plant cells and animal cells, drag it to the "both" bin. chloroplast cellulose cell wall plant cell only mitochondrion endoplasmic reticulum central vacuole nucleus plasma membrane animal cell only Golgi apparatus both centriole cytoskeleton What sum of money lent out at 6 1/4 p. A to get 75 rupees as intrest in 8 months A cell is in ______ when the cell is growing, replicating its DNA and doing their cell functions. A 70 kg (154.3 lb) patient has been on mechanical ventilation for two days. Which indicates readiness to wean? Which of the following is NOT TRUE about simple distillation?a. The greater the difference in the boiling points of the components, the better the separation.b. The less volatile component boils first and travels along the condenser.c. It can be applied to mixtures with components boiling below 150C.d. A sand bath can be used in place of a water bath to provide even heating of the flask. How to convert 73kg to pounds? A bag contains 9 blue marbles and 45 white marbles. If a representative sample contains 2 blue marbles, then how many white marbles would you expect it to contain? Explain. Because the ratio of blue marbles to white marbles is ___ in the population, the expected number of white marbles is ___ times the number of marbles in the representative sample. There should be ___ white marbles.Please help me ASAP ty! A yoga class begins at 6:45 pm and lasts for 1/2 hours. Jo 40 minutes to pack away after the class finishes. What time does jo finish packing after the class? A 6-sided die is tossed. Find P (even | less than 3). Place the following affirmative action policy changes in order.A)-The supreme courts subjects affirmative action policies to strict scrutinyB)-President Johnson promotes minority employment among the federal civil service.C)-The federal government makes affirmative action a prominent goal Which of these climate zones can be found in Mali? A) Humid Subtropical B) Marine West Coast C) Mediterranean D) Semiarid. Semiarid. Brent is running on a hot day. His body operates best when its inner temperature is 98.6F. Find the different quotient of f Does the following equation show a linear or nonlinear function? Linear Nonlinear y=-2x-6 how do you know if you are delivering proper volume with each ventilation The diaphragm is innervated by the _________ nerve, which allows it to contract.A. vagusB. phrenicC. hypoglossalD. vestibulocochlear which scenario would violate a persons 5th amendment right? One of the earliest theatres to have a permanent proscenium arch wasThe Swan TheatreThe Farnese TheatreThe Eisenhower TheatreThe Globe Theatre