The Ampacity (current-carrying capacity) of a conductor must not be less then the rating of the_________
protecting that conductor

Answers

Answer 1

The Ampacity (current-carrying capacity) of a conductor must not be less than the rating of the overcurrent protection device protecting that conductor.

The Ampacity (current-carrying capacity) of a conductor must not be less than the rating of the protective device protecting that conductor. The protective device can be a fuse or circuit breaker that is designed to open when the current in the circuit exceeds a certain level. The ampacity of a conductor is determined by factors such as the size and material of the conductor, the temperature rating of the insulation, and the length of the run. It is important to ensure that the ampacity of the conductor is not exceeded, as this can lead to overheating and potentially a fire.

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Related Questions

How does C++ tell the difference between an overloaded prefix and postfix ++ and -- operator function?

Answers

C++ distinguishes between prefix and postfix ++ and -- operators based on whether the function has an additional (unused) int parameter for postfix operators.

When defining the overloaded ++ or -- operators in C++, the postfix version takes an extra, unused int parameter. This parameter is not used by the function but is used by the compiler to distinguish between prefix and postfix versions. If the operator is used as a postfix operator, the compiler will pass a value of 0 for this parameter, and if it is used as a prefix operator, the compiler will not pass any value. The prefix and postfix operators can then be implemented differently based on the presence or absence of this parameter.

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An enclosed channel of metal or nonmetallic materials designed expressly, with additional functions as permitted in this code.
100 def.

Answers

The enclosed channel can be made of either metal or nonmetallic materials, and it must meet the requirements set forth in this code for its intended use. In this context, "100 def" likely refers to a specific definition or section within the code that provides more details on the allowable uses and specifications for such conduits.

Additionally, it must be able to withstand temperatures of up to 100 degrees Fahrenheit without compromising its structural integrity.

A conduit, which is an enclosed channel made of either metal or nonmetallic materials. It is designed expressly for the purpose of protecting and routing electrical wiring, with additional functions as permitted in the relevant electrical code.

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Question 3a:
What three aspects of message exchanges did we see in this section?

Answers

Three main aspects of message exchanges. The first aspect was the sender. The second aspect we saw was the message itself. and astly, we saw the receiver,

The first aspect was the sender, who is the person or entity that initiates the communication by creating and sending a message. The sender's intention or purpose behind sending the message can vary, but the ultimate goal is to convey information or a message to the receiver.

The second aspect we saw was the message itself, which is the information being communicated by the sender. Messages can take various forms such as verbal, written, or visual, and can be transmitted through different channels like email, phone calls, or social media platforms.

Lastly, we saw the receiver, who is the person or entity that receives and interprets the message sent by the sender. The receiver's understanding of the message can be influenced by various factors like their background, culture, language, and context. Therefore, effective communication requires clear and concise messaging and a mutual understanding between the sender and the receiver.

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A network administrator is variably subnetting a given block of IPv4 addresses. Which combination of network addresses and prefix lengths will make the most efficient use of addresses when the need is for 2 subnets capable of supporting 10 hosts and 1 subnet that can support 6 hosts?

Answers

A network administrator can efficiently use IPv4 addresses by choosing the appropriate network addresses and prefix lengths for the subnets. In this case, you need 2 subnets for 10 hosts and 1 subnet for 6 hosts.
A network administrator can efficiently use IPv4 addresses by choosing the appropriate network addresses and prefix lengths for the subnets. In this case, you need 2 subnets for 10 hosts and 1 subnet for 6 hosts.
For the 10-host subnets, you can use a /28 prefix length. This will provide 16 IP addresses per subnet, with 14 available for hosts (as you need to exclude the network address and broadcast address). So, for two 10-host subnets, you could use:
1. Subnet 1: Network Address: x.x.x.0, Prefix Length: /28
2. Subnet 2: Network Address: x.x.x.16, Prefix Length: /28
For the 6-host subnet, you can use a /29 prefix length. This will provide 8 IP addresses, with 6 available for hosts. You could use
3. Subnet 3: Network Address: x.x.x.32, Prefix Length: /29

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Question 13
A major worry associated with prolonged, low-level PCB exposure is:
a. general tiredness
b. loss of appetite
c. liver cancer
d. reproductive problems

Answers

The major worry associated with prolonged, low-level PCB exposure is reproductive problems. However, PCB exposure can also lead to other health concerns such as liver cancer, general tiredness, and loss of appetite.
A major worry associated with prolonged, low-level PCB exposure is:d. reproductive problems

PCBs are known to be persistent organic pollutants (POPs) that can accumulate in the environment and in the food chain, leading to potential exposure through the consumption of contaminated fish, meat, and dairy products. Even at low levels, long-term exposure to PCBs has been associated with a range of health problems, including developmental and cognitive impairments, endocrine disruption, immune system dysfunction, and an increased risk of cancer. Because of these concerns, the production and use of PCBs have been banned in many countries, but PCBs can still be found in some products, and they continue to be a public health concern.

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An example of manual system that uses automated electronics is the CAC that allows users to authenticate signatures, securely log onto computer systems, and gain access into designated areas. True or False?

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True. A CAC (Common Access Card) is an example of a system that uses automated electronics to enable users to authenticate signatures, securely log onto computer systems, and gain access to designated areas.

The Common Access Card, sometimes known as the CAC, is a smart card that resembles a credit card in size. It is the accepted method of identification for eligible DoD and USCG contractor workers as well as Active Duty United States Defence forces, including the Selected Reserve and National Guard, US Department of Defence (DoD) civilian employees, and US Coast Guard (USCG) civilian employees. It serves as the primary card for granting physical entry to buildings and other restricted areas, as well as access to defense-related computer networks and systems. In accordance with the Geneva Conventions, particularly the Third Geneva Convention, it also functions as an identifying card.

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a ____ shovel is intended for moving loose material.

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The answer to the question: "a ____ shovel is intended for moving loose material"

A scoop shovel is intended for moving loose material.

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How many notches does a DDR 3 DIMM have?

Answers

A DDR3 DIMM (Dual In-line Memory Module) typically has 240 notches, which are the small notches on the connector edge of the module.

What is DDR3 DIMM?

A DDR3 DIMM (Double Data Rate 3 Dual In-Line Memory Module) is a type of RAM module used in computers and other electronic devices to store data.

DDR3 DIMMs have a single notch located near the center of the module's bottom edge, which is used to differentiate it from other types of memory modules like DDR2 and DDR4, which have their notches in different positions.

This notch ensures compatibility with the correct motherboard slot and prevents incorrect installation. The DDR3 DIMM's increased speed and efficiency compared to its predecessors make it a popular choice for modern computer systems.

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Question 14
Which one of the following was not initially associated with PCBs?
a. minimata disease
b. yusho disease
c. yu-cheng disease
d. chlorance

Answers

I'd be happy to help you with your question. The term not initially associated with PCBs (polychlorinated biphenyls) among the given options is:a. Minamata disease Minamata disease is caused by mercury poisoning, not PCB exposure.

The other options, Yusho disease and Yu-Cheng disease, are both associated with PCBs, and "chlorance" seems to be a typo or an irrelevant term.When polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs) were first introduced, they were not initially associated with environmental pollution or health hazards. Instead, they were widely used in a variety of industrial and commercial applications due to their desirable physical and chemical properties. PCBs were used as coolants and lubricants in electrical equipment, hydraulic systems, and transformers.

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What happens when this is used in a constructor's body to call another constructor of the same class if that call is not the first statement in the constructor?
a. a. A compilation error occurs.
b. b. A runtime error occurs.
c. c. A logic error occurs.
d. d. Nothing happens. The program compiles and runs.

Answers

When a constructor calls another constructor of the same class within its body, it must be the first statement. If it is not the first statement, then it will result in a logic error as the program's behavior becomes unpredictable.
When a constructor calls another constructor of the same class within its body, it must be the first statement. If it is not the first statement, then it will result in a logic error as the program's behavior becomes unpredictable. This is because the constructor's body is executed after the initialization of the object's fields and calling another constructor within the body can cause unexpected results. This error may not result in a compilation error or a runtime error, but it can lead to bugs and unexpected behavior in the program.

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a wireless engineer is interested in using an antenna that is commonly used in

Answers

A wireless engineer may be interested in using a dipole antenna, which is commonly used in various wireless communication applications. The dipole antenna is easy to construct and can be used for both transmitting and receiving signals. It is a popular choice for applications such as Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and radio communication.



Identify the requirements: The wireless engineer needs to determine the frequency range, gain, radiation pattern, and polarization required for the specific application. Research common antenna types: Some commonly used antennas include dipole, monopole, Yagi-Uda, and patch antennas. Each type has its advantages and limitations based on the desired application.
Select the appropriate antenna: After comparing the different antenna types, the wireless engineer will choose the one that best fits the requirements and constraints of the project. Design and implementation: The engineer will design the chosen antenna according to the desired specifications, taking into account factors such as size, material, and mounting options. Test and optimize.


In summary, a wireless engineer commonly selects and implements an antenna by identifying the requirements, researching common antenna types, selecting the most suitable option, designing and implementing the antenna, and testing and optimizing its performance.

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A wireless engineer may be interested in using a commonly used antenna such as a dipole antenna or a patch antenna.

These types of antennas are popularly used in wireless communication systems due to their ability to provide a directional or omnidirectional signal pattern, depending on the design. Additionally, they are relatively easy to construct and tune for specific frequencies, making them a cost-effective solution for many applications.

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standard and protocol to mean the same thing. (T/F)

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Answer: False. While standard and protocol may be related, they do not mean the same thing. A standard is a set of guidelines or requirements that are agreed upon and followed to ensure consistency and quality. A protocol, on the other hand, is a set of rules or procedures that govern the exchange of information or data between systems or devices.

Explanation: 1. Standard: A set of rules, guidelines, or specifications that industries agree upon to ensure the compatibility and interoperability of products, services, and processes. Standards are usually established by recognized organizations or governing bodies.

2. Protocol: A specific set of rules and procedures for communication and data exchange between devices or systems. Protocols define how the data is transmitted, processed, and interpreted.

In summary, a standard defines the overall guidelines, while a protocol provides the specific rules for communication and data exchange within that standard.

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Operating at over _________ volts metal faceplates, shall be permitted to be grounded by means of metal mounting screws. 517.13 (B)

Answers

The answer to your question is that metal faceplates operating at over 50 volts shall be permitted to be grounded by means of metal mounting screws, as specified in code section 517.13 (B). It is important to note that grounding is essential for the safe and proper functioning of electrical equipment and circuits.

A grounding connection ensures that any stray electrical current is safely directed to the earth, preventing potential damage or harm to people or property.
In the case of metal faceplates, which are commonly used in electrical installations to cover and protect electrical outlets and switches, grounding is particularly important. Metal faceplates can conduct electricity, and if they are not properly grounded, they can pose a safety hazard to anyone who comes into contact with them.

By using metal mounting screws to ground metal faceplates, the screws provide a direct path to the earth, which can effectively dissipate any electrical charges that may be present. This grounding method is both effective and easy to implement, making it a popular choice for many electrical installations.
In summary, when working with metal faceplates operating at over 50 volts, it is essential to ensure that they are properly grounded using metal mounting screws to prevent any potential safety hazards.

To summarize the process: when installing metal faceplates for electrical equipment operating at over 100 volts, it is crucial to ensure that the faceplates are properly grounded to maintain safety and prevent potential electrical hazards. This can be achieved by using metal mounting screws, which create a secure connection between the metal faceplate and the grounded equipment, forming a safe path for any potential electrical faults or surges. By following this guideline, you can ensure the safe operation of your electrical equipment while complying with the NEC regulations.

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Receptacles incorporating an isolated grounding connection shall be identified by an _________ triangle located on the face of the receptacle.
406.3(d)

Answers

Receptacles incorporating an isolated grounding connection shall be identified by an orange triangle located on the face of the receptacle. This is required by code section 406.3(d).

The purpose of this identification is to ensure that users are aware of the presence of an isolated grounding connection and use it properly for electrical safety.Yes, that is correct. Receptacles incorporating an isolated grounding connection shall be identified by an equilateral triangle located on the face of the receptacle. This triangle shall be a green color and shall be located at the bottom of the receptacle opening where visible after installation. (Reference: NEC 2017, Article 406.3(D))

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What types of memory can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard?

Answers

The specific type of memory that can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard depends on the motherboard's memory controller and the type of memory slots that it has.

A motherboard with a 100-MHz front-side bus (FSB) speed typically requires memory that can operate at a speed of 100 MHz or lower.

The most common types of memory that can be used on a 100-MHz motherboard are:

SDRAM (Synchronous Dynamic Random Access Memory):

This type of memory was commonly used in computers with 100-MHz FSB speeds.

SDRAM can operate at speeds of up to 133 MHz and comes in various capacities, ranging from 64 MB to 1 GB.

EDO RAM (Extended Data Out Random Access Memory):

This type of memory was used in some older computers with 100-MHz FSB speeds.

EDO RAM operates at a speed of 66 MHz and comes in capacities ranging from 4 MB to 256 MB.

FPM RAM (Fast Page Mode Random Access Memory):

This type of memory was commonly used in older computers with 100-MHz FSB speeds.

FPM RAM operates at a speed of 66 MHz and comes in capacities ranging from 4 MB to 256 MB.

Buffered and Registered memory:

These are specialized types of memory that are typically used in servers and workstations.

Buffered and Registered memory are designed to improve reliability and stability in high-performance systems, but they may not be compatible with all motherboards.

It is always recommended to check the motherboard's specifications or consult the manufacturer's documentation before purchasing memory for the system.

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In a room containing a 480 volt switchboard, a mosonary wall oposite the front of the switchboard is considered to be ____________.
110.26(a)(6)

Answers

The main answer is "an unacceptable location."  According to electrical safety standards, a masonry wall opposite the front of a 480 volt switchboard is considered to be an unacceptable location.

because it can obstruct access to the switchboard and prevent safe operation and maintenance. The National Electrical Code (NEC) requires a minimum working space in front of electrical equipment, and this space must be kept clear and unobstructed. A masonry wall can also create a hazard by reflecting electrical arcs and increasing the risk of electric shock and fire. Therefore, it is important to ensure that the area in front of switchboards and other electrical equipment is free from obstructions and complies with safety regulations.

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4) An auditor determines the financial statements include at least a material departure from GAAP. Which type of opinion may be issued? -Disclaimer -Qualified -Adverse

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If an auditor determines that the financial statements include at least a material departure from GAAP.

The type of opinion that may be issued is either a qualified or adverse opinion. A disclaimer opinion would only be issued if the auditor is unable to obtain sufficient evidence or lacks independence in performing the audit.

An auditor determines if the financial statements include at least a material departure from GAAP. In this case, the type of opinion that may be issued is an "Adverse" opinion. An adverse opinion indicates that the financial statements are materially misstated and do not comply with GAAP, which could potentially mislead users of the financial statements.

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How does increasing quantum/time-slice impact the
different scheduling criteria?

Answers

Increasing the quantum or time-slice in a scheduling algorithm impacts different scheduling criteria in the following ways:

1. Throughput: A larger time-slice allows each process to execute for a longer duration before being interrupted. This can reduce the overhead of context-switching and potentially increase throughput, particularly for CPU-bound processes.
2. Turnaround time: The impact on turnaround time depends on the workload. For CPU-bound processes, a larger time-slice can reduce turnaround time as it reduces context-switching overhead. However, for I/O-bound processes, a larger time-slice may increase turnaround time as these processes spend more time waiting in the ready queue.
3. Response time: A larger time-slice can increase response time, especially for interactive processes, as they may have to wait longer before getting a chance to execute. In this case, shorter time-slices are preferred for better responsiveness.
4. Fairness: A larger time-slice may reduce fairness in the scheduling algorithm, as processes with shorter execution times may have to wait for a longer time in the ready queue.In summary, increasing the quantum or time-slice impacts scheduling criteria in different ways, depending on the nature of the processes and the desired performance objectives. Balancing these trade-offs is essential for designing effective scheduling algorithms.

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In class I Division 2 location where the enforcing agency determines that there is mechanical ventilation providing a minimum of ______________ air change per hour.
511.3 (c)(1)

Answers

In a Class I Division 2 location, where the enforcing agency determines that there is mechanical ventilation providing a minimum of six air changes per hour, as stated in section 511.3(c)(1) of the National Electrical Code.In a Class I Division 2 location, the enforcing agency may determine that mechanical ventilation provides a minimum of 6 air changes per hour.

This information can be found in section 511.3(c)(1) of the applicable code or regulation.This requirement is specified in the National Electric Code (NEC) Article 500. The ventilation system is designed to prevent the accumulation of flammable gases, vapors, or dust in hazardous quantities by constantly introducing fresh air into the hazardous location and exhausting the contaminated air. The six air changes per hour minimum is intended to ensure that the ventilation system is providing sufficient fresh air to dilute and remove any flammable substances that may be present.

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_______ is a term often used to describe comprehensive efforts to monitor and improve all aspects of quality within a firm.
Ethics, Robotics, Expert systems, TQM, CIMS

Answers

TQM (Total Quality Management) is a term often used to describe comprehensive efforts to monitor and improve all aspects of quality within a firm. This can include considerations of ethics and responsible use of emerging technologies like robotics and expert systems.


Total Quality Management (TQM) is a term often used to describe comprehensive efforts to monitor and improve all aspects of quality within a firm. TQM involves continuous improvement processes, employee involvement, and customer satisfaction to ensure a high level of quality in products and services.

Caroline is building an expert system for wartime defense. Which of these is true about the system she is building? A. The expert system can demonstrate atta.

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"is a term often used to describe comprehensive efforts to monitor and improve all aspects of quality within a firm."

TQM (Total Quality Management) is a term often used to describe comprehensive efforts to monitor and improve all aspects of quality within a firm.

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Q7) e) What device in an internet besides the destination host reads the destination IP address?

Answers

The device in an internet besides the destination host that reads the destination IP address is a router. Routers are responsible for forwarding data packets based on the destination IP address, ensuring that the information reaches its intended destination.

In an internet, there is a device called a router that is responsible for routing data packets between different networks.

When a data packet is sent from a source host to a destination host, the packet contains the IP address of the destination host. The router reads this destination IP address and determines the next hop in the path to the destination. It then forwards the packet to the next hop router or to the destination host directly if it is on the same network.

Therefore, besides the destination host, the router is the device in an internet that reads the destination IP address to ensure that the data packet reaches its intended destination. The router plays a crucial role in the functioning of the internet by directing data traffic efficiently and securely.

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A particular telnet site does not appear to be responding on a Windows 7 computer. What command could the technician use to show any cached DNS entries for this web page?

Answers

The technician could use the "ipconfig /displaydns" command in the command prompt to show any cached DNS entries for the telnet site.

The technician could use the "ipconfig /displaydns" command in the command prompt to show any cached DNS entries for the telnet site. This will display a list of all recently accessed DNS entries, including the telnet site in question. If the entry is outdated or incorrect, the technician can then flush the DNS cache using the "ipconfig /flushdns" command to ensure that the computer obtains the correct DNS information for the telnet site.

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Question 51
What percentage of the typical American's lifetime exposure to ultraviolet radiation occurs before age 20?
a. 50
b. 60
c. 70
d. 80

Answers

Answer: The research has shown that about 70% of a typical American's lifetime exposure to ultraviolet radiation occurs before the age of 20.

The answer is c. 70.

Explanation:

This highlights the importance of protecting children and young adults from excessive sun exposure to reduce their risk of skin damage and skin cancer later in life.

The percentage of the typical American's lifetime exposure to ultraviolet radiation that occurs before age 20 is approximately 25%. However, this option is not available in the choices you provided.

The closest option would be:
a. 50

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Q7) a) How many octets long is an IPv4 header if there are no options?

Answers

The IPv4 header is an essential part of the internet protocol that is used to deliver data packets across networks. The header is responsible for providing crucial information about the packet, such as the source and destination IP addresses, the packet length, and the protocol used.

The IPv4 header consists of several fields, including the version, header length, type of service, total length, identification, flags, fragmentation offset, time to live, protocol, header checksum, source and destination IP addresses, and options. The length of the header is determined by the header length field, which specifies the number of 32-bit words in the header. If there are no options in the IPv4 header, the header length field would have a value of 5, indicating that the header is 20 bytes or 160 bits long. Each octet, or byte, is composed of 8 bits, so the IPv4 header with no options is 20/8 or 2.5 octets long. However, as the header length field can vary depending on the presence of options, the header length can be up to 60 bytes or 480 bits long. In summary, an IPv4 header with no options is 20 bytes or 2.5 octets long, but the header length can vary depending on the presence of options.

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Type MV cable shall be permitted for used on power systems rated up to _________ volts in raceway, wet and dry locations.
328.10

Answers

MV cable shall be permitted for use on power systems rated up to 35,000 volts in raceway, wet, and dry locations. This information can be found in section 328.10 of the National Electrical Code (NEC).

The right response is pneumatic power systems since these systems are made up of connected parts that use compressed air to operate automated machinery.

As for how this system functions, it generates, transmits, and controls power by using fluid power, such as a gaseous medium under pressure.

Since the President directs the executive arm of the federal government, the United States can be categorised according to a system and executive authority as having "A federal system with presidential power."

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What are the key components in a pre-paving conferences?

Answers

By addressing these key components in a pre-paving conference, stakeholders can establish a shared understanding of paving project expectations, identify potential risks and challenges, and develop strategies to ensure that the paving project is completed on time, within budget, and to the required quality standards.

Pre-paving conferences are an important aspect of the paving project management process, and typically occur after the pre-construction conference but before the start of paving activities. The key components of a pre-paving conference may include: Project scope: This involves discussing the project's goals, objectives, and requirements to ensure that all stakeholders have a clear understanding of the paving scope and expectations. Paving schedule: This involves reviewing the paving timeline and identifying key milestones, deadlines, and critical path activities to ensure that the paving project stays on track. Paving materials: This involves discussing the paving materials that will be used, including the type of asphalt, asphalt binder, aggregate, and additives, as well as any special requirements or specifications. Paving equipment: This involves reviewing the paving equipment that will be used, including the paver, rollers, trucks, and other support equipment, and ensuring that they are in good condition and meet project specifications. Quality control and safety: This involves discussing quality control measures and safety protocols to ensure that the paving project is completed to the required standards and that all workers are protected from harm. Communication and documentation: This involves establishing communication protocols and identifying the key documents and reports that will be used to track paving project progress, manage changes, and resolve issues as they arise.

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Name the four basic types of small engine governors.

Answers

The four basic types of small engine governors are mechanical flyweight, pneumatic or air vane, electronic, and hydraulic governors.

The four basic types of small engine governors are mechanical centrifugal governors, pneumatic governors, electronic governors, and hydraulic governors.

The mechanical centrifugal governors use weights and springs to regulate the engine speed, while the pneumatic governors use air pressure to control the speed. The electronic governors use sensors and a computerized control system to regulate the engine speed, and the hydraulic governors use hydraulic fluid to control the engine speed.

Each type of governor has its advantages and disadvantages, and the choice of governor will depend on the specific application and requirements of the engine.

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What are the requirements for an engineering solution to be successful? (Vocabulary)

Answers

To ensure a successful engineering solution, several requirements must be met, the solution must be technically feasible, meaning it can be developed and implemented using existing technology and knowledge.

Secondly, it should be economically viable, meaning the costs associated with designing, building, and operating the solution are justifiable by the benefits it provides. Thirdly, it should meet the intended purpose and performance requirements, which means it must effectively address the problem it was designed to solve. Additionally, the solution must be safe and reliable, meeting all relevant safety standards and regulations.

Finally, it should be sustainable, considering its environmental impact and the long-term viability of the solution. By meeting these requirements, an engineering solution can be considered successful.

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Which firewall technique blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests?

Answers

The firewall technique that blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests is called Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI).

SPI allows the firewall to monitor and track the state of network connections, ensuring that only legitimate packets related to established connections are allowed through. The firewall technique that blocks incoming packets unless they are responses to internal requests is known as Stateful Packet Inspection (SPI). This technique inspects each incoming packet to ensure that it is part of an established and authorized session, and blocks any packets that do not meet this criteria. SPI is commonly used in modern firewalls to provide a high level of security and prevent unauthorized access to network resources.

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A dc generator that suplies rotor current to larger alternators is called?

Answers

A DC generator that supplies rotor current to larger alternators is called an "exciter." Exciters are used to provide the initial electromagnetic field required for the alternators to produce AC voltage.

The photosystem's reaction centre, chlorophyll I transmits its excited electrons to ferrodoxin, a  exciter tiny protein on the stromal side of the thylakoid membrane, via a series of carriers. Then, ferrodoxin's electrons are transferred to NADP+ by the enzyme NADP reductase, producing NADPH.

Two water molecules are the source of the four protons and four electrons. Through an electron transport chain, the excited chlorophyll electrons are moved from photosystem II's electron acceptors to photosystem I.

Photosystems, the functional elements of photosynthesis, are recognised by particular pigment association and organisation patterns. Light energy is absorbed and transferred by photosystems, which also involves the transport of electrons. Photosystems are physically present in the thylakoid membranes.

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