The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting the respiratory system and facial muscles in a patient with myasthenia gravis.
What is Myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the skeletal muscles that control eye movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and breathing. It occurs when the body's immune system attacks the receptors in the neuromuscular junction, which are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses to the muscles. As a result, the communication between the nerves and muscles is disrupted, leading to weakness and fatigue. The disease can affect people of all ages, but it is most common in women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60. Myasthenia gravis is a treatable condition, but there is no known cure.
Here,
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the voluntary muscles. The muscles involved in breathing and those in the face and neck are often affected, which can lead to respiratory distress, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty speaking. Symptoms affecting the cardiovascular, CNS, GI, or lower extremity muscles are not typically associated with myasthenia gravis.
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Where are receptors for thyroxine found? (Multiple answers possible)
a. Intranuclear
b. Intramitochondrial
c. On the cell membrane
The receptors for thyroxine are found in a. Intranuclear, b. Intramitochondrial, c. On the cell membrane.
Intranuclear inclusion bodies (INB) were also common in viral infections and are thought to be viral particle accumulations. This compartmentalization, however, is inconsistent with the cycle of replication for Viral replication replicating in the cytoplasm.
IntraMitochondria is indispensable intracellular vesicles engaged in many cellular functions, particularly the production of adenosine triphosphate (ATP). Because cancer cells require a high level of ATP to proliferate, ATP elimination may be a novel target for the cancer inhibition zone.
The cell membrane, also known as the endoplasmic reticulum, is involved in cellular and serves to separate the cell's interior from the outside atmosphere. The cell membrane is made up of a semipermeable lipid bilayer. The cell membrane controls the flow of nutrients into and out of the cell.
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what does os medical abbreviation
Oculus sinister, which in Latin means "left eye," is short for OS, which is the conventional shorthand for the left eye. Some medical professionals may only write "left" or abbreviate "left eye" as LE.
What exactly are the eye's parts?The cornea is the transparent outer layer of the eye's focused coping, and it is found at the front of eyeball. The iris, which is the colorful portion of the eye, controls how much light enters the eye. Behind the iris, the glass is a transparent portion of the eye that aids in focusing light or an image on the retina.
What materials make up eyes?The optically transparent aqueous humour, lens, & vitreous body are all enclosed by three coatings that make up the eye. The cornea and sclera make up the outermost coat, while the choroid, retina, and ciliary body make up the intermediate coat and the major bloodstream to the eye, respectively.
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the code of ethics for nurses is composed and published by which organization?
A The national league for Nursing
B The American Nurses Association
C The National Institutes of Health, Nursing division.
D The Medical American Association
Professional nurses make an effort to abide by the widely recognised norms of conduct set in the ANA's code of conduct for nurses.
Our American Nurses Association is happy to announce that its Code of Ethics for Nurses including Interpretation Statements has been totally updated (The Code). The foundation for ethical analysis & decision-making for RNs in all practise levels, roles, and contexts is provided by this book. 1950 saw the adoption of the first official code of conduct for nurses (Fowler, 1997). The patient, whether a person, family, group, community, or population, is the nurse's top priority. The nurse promotes, defends, and safeguards the patient's rights, well-being, and security. practise, makes choices, and acts in a way that is compatible with the duty to offer the best possible care for patients.
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What medication would the nurse recognize as being a schedule V (C-V) medication?
A little bit of codeine-infused cough syrup. Little doses of narcotics (codeine) used as antitussives or antidiarrheals are the most commonly abused components of schedule V (C-V) drugs.
Drug schedule 2 includes morphine. Drugs that are not controlled include ibuprofen and allergy medicines. For medications to be added to this schedule, the following conclusions must be made:
Comparatively to the drugs or other substances under schedule IV, the drug or substance has a low risk for abuse.
It is now recognised by medicine in the United States that the drug or other substance is used in treatment.
In comparison to the drugs or other substances in schedule IV, abuse of the drug or other substance may result in a minimal amount of physical dependence or psychological reliance.
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an arterial catheterization is performed by cutdown for transfusion. what cpt® code is reported?
It says arterial catheterization for sample, monitoring, or transfusion if you look at the descriptor for 36625. (percutaneous 36620, cutdown 36625)
What does cardiac catheterization's CPT code mean?
There is a single billing limit for the CPT codes 93454 and 93455 per catheterization. All dye injections for angiography, catheter insertion, replacement, and repositioning, as well as the supervision and interpretation, are all included in the CPT codes for cardiac catheterization. The separate billing of component services has been discontinued.
For reporting a cardiac catheterization, which of the following codes are appropriate?
According to ICD-9, the codes for heart catheterizations were 37.22 for a left heart catheterization, 37.21 for a right heart catheterization, and 37.23 for a combined right and left heart catheterization.
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regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of what
Regarding dysfunctional uterine bleeding, the nurse should be aware of that it is most commonly caused by anovulation.
Abnormal uterine bleeding (AUB), also known as (AVB) or atypical vaginal bleeding, is vaginal bleeding from the uterus that is unusually frequent, lasts for an unusually long period of time, is heavier than normal, or is irregular. When there was no underlying reason, the phrase dysfunctional uterine hemorrhage was employed. Vaginal bleeding is not permitted during pregnancy. Iron deficiency anemia can arise, and the quality of life might suffer as a result.
Ovulation issues, fibroids, the uterine lining developing into the uterine wall, uterine polyps, underlying bleeding problems, birth control side effects, or cancer may be the underlying reasons. In some cases, more than one cause category may apply.
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The nurse is preparing a client for a chorionic villi sampling procedure. Which factor should the nurse point out in the teaching session to the client?
1- "The results should be available in about 2 weeks."
2- "You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test."
3- 'Afterward, you can resume your exercise program."
4- "This test is very helpful for identifying spinal defects."
When preparing a client for a chorionic villus sampling (CVS) procedure, the nurse should point out the following factor to the client:- "You'll have an ultrasound first and then the test."
This is a correct and important statement to make because an ultrasound is performed prior to the CVS procedure to locate the placenta and the fetus's position. The CVS procedure involves removing a small sample of cells from the placenta for genetic testing.
Option 1 is incorrect because CVS test results are usually available within a few days, not two weeks.
Option 3 is incorrect because clients are usually advised to avoid strenuous exercise or activities for a few days after a CVS procedure to reduce the risk of complications.
Option 4 is not entirely correct because, while CVS can detect some types of genetic abnormalities, it is not commonly used to identify spinal defects. CVS is primarily used to detect chromosomal abnormalities such as Down syndrome.
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the resistered nurse and practcal nurse are caring for a client who was admitted to the medical unit last night with a
A doctor on the team is heard making a false remark about a sick patient by a nurse working in the emergency room.
Which tasks may the registered nurse effectively assign to a knowledgeable LPN?
The RN may assign the LPN to take care of stable patients with established ostomies (LPN). (Choose 1) The RN may assign the LPN to conduct particular assessments. The LPN concentrates on gathering information and separating out normal from aberrant findings.
Can an RN release a patient?
Discharging patients from the hospital is a difficult process that is fraught with dangers such as liability exposure. To ensure that the patient receives the same high-quality medical care, nurse-led discharge has acquired widespread acceptability in many developed countries.
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Based on current research, what are the two factors needed for development of celiac disease?
-genetic predisposition to celiac disease
-infection with h. pylori bacteria
-dietary exposure to gluten
-stress and depression
Based on current research, the two factors needed for the development of celiac disease are genetic predisposition to the disease and dietary exposure to gluten, which are present in the first and third options.
What is celiac disease?Celiac disease has a strong genetic component, and it tends to run in families, so people who have certain genes, particularly the HLA-DQ2 and HLA-DQ8 genes, are at a higher risk of developing celiac disease, and gluten is a protein found in wheat and barley that can induce this disease.
Hence, the two factors needed for the development of celiac disease are genetic predisposition to the disease and dietary exposure to gluten, which are present in the first and third options.
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when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
When assisting a person with their medication, the following statements are true: Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do and Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication. Therefore option A and B are correct.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do: It is important to communicate clearly and inform the person or their family member about the process of administering medication.
This helps establish trust and ensures everyone is aware of the actions being taken.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication: Confirming with the person that you have the correct medication is essential to avoid any errors or misunderstandings.
Their confirmation helps verify that the medication being administered is indeed the intended one.
Therefore options A and B are correct.
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Your question is incomplete, but most probably your full question was.
when assisting a person with their medication, which of the following statements are true. select 2 answers.
A. Explain to the person or family member what you are going to do.
B. Ask the person to confirm that you have the right medication.
C. Wait for emergency medical services so they can administer the medication.
D. You may assist with an over the counter (otc) medication, but you may not assist with a prescription medication.
The physician orders phenytoin 150 mg PO q.12h for the patient. The nurse finds the following drug in the patient’s medication drawer. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A- Administer the ordered dose to the patient.
B- Call the pharmacist to clarify the drug route.
C- Clarify the order with the physician.
D- Inform the patient that he will have to wait for the right drug
The nurse's first action should be to clarify the order with the physician, as the medication in the patient's medication drawer does not match the one ordered by the physician.
What is medication?Medication is a type of medical treatment that involves the use of drugs, such as prescription medications, over-the-counter medicines, and dietary supplements. These drugs can be taken orally, injected, or applied topically to treat a variety of physical and mental health issues. Medication can also be used to prevent illnesses, such as vaccinations and prophylactics.
The nurse should not administer the wrong medication, call the pharmacist, or inform the patient that he will have to wait for the right drug until the order is clarified.
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What is normal phosphorus level in mmol L?
Phosphorus levels in blood are calculated using the Units of Measurement (SI) and expressed in mmol/l. People have regular blood phosphorous levels in the SI.
What are typical outcomes from blood tests?
Results of a blood test, a blood test. It is highly improbable that what a given Blood, even from a nutritious patient, will show "regular" values for each and every Blood test taken because the majority of Blood test reference ranges, which are frequently referred to as "normal" ranges of Blood results, are typically characterized as the range of outcomes of the average 95percent of the healthy population.
What occurs if my blood work is higher or lower than usual?
Your doctor could suggest additional testing if your erythrocytes levels are abnormal. I need to phone my doctor soon. The outcomes of your CBC will be discussed with you by your provider. Call your physician if you have any questions regarding the results.
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The key to understanding how a client responds to illness is understanding his or her ______.
The key to understanding how a client responds to illness is understanding his or her unique perspective, which is influenced by their individual beliefs, experiences, emotions, cultural background, and social support network.
How each person react?Each person may have a different way of coping with illness and may require personalized care and support to manage their physical and emotional needs. By understanding the client's perspective, healthcare providers can tailor their approach to care and develop a treatment plan that is most effective for the individual.
How does an individual respond to illness?We typically respond negatively to even modest disease symptoms. We might experience resentment, rage, disappointment, or frustration. When we can afford the time off to take care of and nourish ourselves as would be ideal, an illness seldom happens.
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which intervention would the nurse recommend for post-cesarean gas pain? lying on the right side walking around the room using a straw when drinking water supporting the incision when moving
The nurse would recommend the following for post-cesarean gas pain:
lying on the right side walking around the room using a straw when drinking water supporting the incision when movingWhat is post-cesarean gas pain?A post-cesarean gas pain is described as a common complaint after delivering a baby especially after a Cesarean section surgery).
A post-cesarean gas pain is mainly occurs in women and they feel bloated with sharp pains that sometimes radiate up towards the collarbone and shoulders.
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Which needle size and gauge would you use for a Morphine 10mg IM for 6'0", 185 lb male
a commonly used needle size for intramuscular injections is 1-1.5 inches in length and the gauge is usually between 20-23.
The client's body habitus, or body form, size, and muscle mass, can also be used to determine the optimal needle size and gauge for an intramuscular injection. In this situation, an intramuscular injection of 10 mg of morphine would be adequate for a 6'0" 185 lb male, who is considered to be an average-sized adult male.
It's critical to remember that the precise needle size and gauge to be used for a given injection should be chosen by the healthcare practitioner or a licensed professional depending on the client's individual requirements and the drug being provided.
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What is the left lateral decubitus position?
The patient is said to be in the left lateral decubitus posture (LLDP) while they are lying on their left side. Another illustration is "chest pain while lying down," or angina decubitus.
Pain is what?
The definition of pain is built upon by the inclusion of six important Points and the derivation of the word discomfort for further useful context. Pain is defined as "An painful sensory and emotional feeling connected with, or approximating that linked with, actual or possible tissue injury."
What causes pain physiologically?
Pain physiology. While being subjective, most pain has a physiological foundation and is related to tissue damage. Yet not every tissue reacts to damage in the same way. The visceral organs, for instance, can be severed without causing pain, despite the fact that skin is susceptible to burning and cutting.
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a nurse is looking for information about the parameters of professional psychiatric-mental health nursing practice that provide the framework for nursing practice. the nurse would most likely seek out which source?
A nurse who is looking for information about the parameters of professional psychiatric-mental health nursing practice that provide the framework for nursing practice would most likely seek out the American Nurses Association's (ANA) Scope and Standards of Psychiatric-Mental Health Nursing Practice.
What is Psychaitric Mental health?
Psychiatric-mental health refers to the branch of healthcare that focuses on the diagnosis, treatment, and prevention of mental illnesses and disorders. Mental health encompasses a range of conditions that affect a person's thinking, feeling, mood, and behavior. These conditions may include depression, anxiety, bipolar disorder, schizophrenia, personality disorders, and substance use disorders, among others.
The document defines the scope of psychiatric-mental health nursing practice, including the population and setting, the nursing process, and the roles and responsibilities of psychiatric-mental health nurses. It also describes the standards of professional performance for psychiatric-mental health nurses, including their professional and ethical responsibilities, their communication and collaboration with others, and their use of evidence-based practice and quality improvement.
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a nurse is assessing a client diagnosed with multiple sclerosis (ms). which symptom does the nurse expect to find?
Answer:
Common symptoms include fatigue, bladder and bowel problems, sexual problems, pain, cognitive and mood changes such as depression, muscular changes and visual changes. See your doctor for investigation and diagnosis of symptoms, since some symptoms can be caused by other illnesses.
What does carbon dioxide mean in medical terms?
An unscented, colorless gas. It is a waste substance that the body produces. Blood carries carbon dioxide from the body's tissues to the lungs.
What does CO2 mean in regards to medicine?The level of carbon dioxide in your blood can be determined by a carbon dioxide (CO2) blood test. A colorless and odorless gas, carbon dioxide. It is a waste product that your body produces as a result of using food as fuel. Carbon dioxide is transported to your lungs via your blood.
What does having a high carbon dioxide level mean?Too much CO2 in your blood indicates that the body is not properly eliminating it (hypercapnia). Blood CO2 levels that are higher than usual may indicate a health issue such respiratory or metabolic alkalosis. Cushing's disease.
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what is rosc medical term
Typically, arterial pulse palpation or end-tidal CO2 monitoring are used to detect return of based on varying (ROSC) during chest compression; however,
What transpires after receiving ROSC?After cardiac arrest, ROSC, also known as the return of based on varying, is the restart of prolonged, perfusing cardiac activity together with a strong breathing effort. Moving, sneezing, or breathing, as well as indications of a perceptible pulse or a quantifiable blood pressure, are all indications of ROSC.
How does ROSC apply to CPR?We will notice a recovery of the patient's pulse and blood pressure when we have done our tasks correctly and given the patient what their body needed during cardiac arrest. A recurrence of spontaneous circulation, or ROSC,
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what is the action by the nurse during a blood pressure assessment will lead to a falsely high diastolic reading?
To avoid falsely high diastolic readings, the nurse should ensure that the cuff is appropriately sized for the patient, the patient's arm is supported at heart level, and that the cuff is inflated and released at the appropriate rate. The nurse should also take multiple readings to ensure accuracy and record the average reading.
There are several factors that can cause a falsely high diastolic reading during a blood pressure assessment. One common factor is if the cuff used for the assessment is too small. This can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading because the cuff will exert excessive pressure on the brachial artery, which can result in a delayed return of blood flow to the artery, leading to an inaccurate diastolic reading.
Another factor that can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading is if the patient's arm is not supported at heart level during the assessment. If the arm is too low, blood may pool in the veins of the arm, causing a falsely high diastolic reading.
Additionally, if the cuff is inflated too quickly or released too slowly, it can lead to a falsely high diastolic reading. It is important for the nurse to inflate the cuff slowly and release it at a rate of 2-3 mm Hg per second.
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if two servings are eaten, what percentage of the dv have you consumed for iron?
If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
What is iron ?
Several processes in our bodies require iron. Hemoglobin, a protein formed in part of iron, is one that carries oxygen from the lungs to every cell in the body. It helps our muscles retain and use oxygen. Iron is also found in a wide variety of other proteins and enzymes. Your body needs the recommended dosage of iron.
What is hormones ?
Your body's chemical messengers are called hormones. They move to tissues or organs in your body via the bloodstream. They affect a variety of processes, such as growth and development, and they operate gradually over time.
Therefore, If two servings are eaten, 20% of the dv have you consumed for iron.
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While reviewing a package insert for a drug, what would the nurse identify as the drug's generic name?
A. Levothroid B. L-thyroxine C. Levothyroxine sodium D. Synthroid
The nurse would identify "L-thyroxine" as the drug's generic name.
What is the purpose of a drug's generic name, and how does it differ from the brand name?A drug's generic name is the official, non-proprietary name assigned by the United States Adopted Names (USAN) Council, which is responsible for maintaining a uniform system of drug nomenclature. The generic name is intended to identify the active ingredient(s) in the drug, regardless of the manufacturer or brand. In contrast, a brand name is a proprietary name assigned by the manufacturer, which is often used for marketing purposes and may differ between countries.
How does the use of generic versus brand-name drugs affect patient care and healthcare costs?The use of generic drugs can have significant benefits for patients and the healthcare system. Generic drugs are often less expensive than their brand-name counterparts, which can help reduce healthcare costs and improve access to medications. In addition, because generic drugs are required to be bioequivalent to their brand-name counterparts, they are considered to be safe and effective alternatives. However, there may be some differences in the way that patients respond to different formulations of the same drug, so it is important for healthcare providers to monitor patients closely when switching between generic and brand-name drugs.
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how do therapeutic careers improve the health status of patients?
Therapeutic careers, such as nursing, physical therapy, occupational therapy, and speech therapy, aim to improve the health status of patients through various means.
These healthcare professionals work with patients to develop individualized care plans and treatment goals, which are designed to improve the patient's physical, emotional, and mental well-being. They provide hands-on care, education, and support to help patients manage chronic conditions. By promoting health and wellness, therapeutic careers can help patients achieve a better quality of life and reduce their healthcare costs. They also play a crucial role in promoting disease prevention and health promotion, which can have a significant impact on population health.
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what are the unique characteristics of the closed-ended (groshongtm) tip catheter include:
Answer:
the closed end has a patented three-position valve (or valves) which allows liquids to flow in or out, but remains closed when not in use. The catheter is placed into one of the large central veins so the tip lies in the superior vena cava above the right atrium.
Explanation:
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Which drug, depending on the dosage, can be a hallucinogen, stimulant, depressant, or painkiller? a. marijuana b. opium c. PCP d. caffeine
PCP drug, depending on the dosage, can be a hallucinogen, stimulant, depressant, or painkiller.
The correct option is C.
A person may experience a drug use disorder called hallucinogen use disorder if they consume hallucinogens often. Even when hallucinogens cause issues in many aspects of their lives, people with hallucinogen use syndrome will continue to use them.
What is intoxication with hallucinogens?The varied class of medications known as hallucinogens can have erratic, peculiar effects. Hallucinations are frequently brought on by alcohol consumption, along with changed perception, poor judgement, concepts lost reference, and depersonalization. The traditional withdrawal symptoms does not exist. A clinical condition is diagnosed.
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Which lab value is most concerning in an infant with fever and a suspected bacterial infection?
a. C-reactive protein of 11.5 mg/L
b. Lymphocyte count of 8.7
c. Platelet count of 475
d. White blood cell count of 14
C-reactive protein of 11.5 mg/L value is most concerning in an infant with fever and a suspected bacterial infection right option is (A)
Little, single-celled creatures called bacteria enter the body and cause bacterial illnesses. These diseases are frequent and there are several ways you can develop them. There are numerous varieties of bacteria, and they can all affect the body in various ways.
Your symptoms and available treatments may be impacted by this. A bacterial illness can affect people of any age, including kids and adults. Any part of the body, including the bladder, brain, intestines, lungs, and skin, can become infected with bacteria.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. when utilizing the multiple pass technique of the 24-hour dietary recall method, the first pass is completed when_____
While using the 24-hour dietary recall method's multiple pass technique, the first pass is finished when the client remembers every food and drink they had the day before.
What is one difficulty with using the 24-hour recall diet analysis method?One of the main issues with nutritional assessment surveys that use the multiple-pass 24-hour recall is underreporting due to the limitations of human memory.
How frequently are new versions of the Dietary Guidelines released?Every five years, the United States Departments of Health and Human Services (HHS) and Agriculture (USDA) collaborate to revise and publish the Dietary Guidelines. In order to incorporate the most recent developments in nutrition science, the Dietary Guidelines have been updated.
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A post-cardiac arrest patient who experienced in-hospital cardiac arrest is unable to follow verbal commands. Which interventions would be appropriate for this patient? A. Obtain brain imaging
B. Initiate targeted temperature management (TTM)
C. Establish EEG monitoring
Initiate targeted temperature (ITM) management for the patient with post cardiac arrest if he is not able to follow commands, the correct option is B.
To fully recover from cardiac arrest, high-quality post-cardiac arrest treatment is unavoidably required. This care should include targeted temperature management, early assessment of a potential acute coronary event, and intense hemodynamic and respiratory care. In the consensus, management of these crucial concerns was addressed and recommended.
In order to lessen secondary brain damage, targeted temperature management (TTM), a therapeutic therapy approach, controls core body temperature for a predetermined amount of time. TTM dramatically improved neurologic outcomes in PCAS patients receiving bundle care and suspected cardiac etiology.
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When applying the rule of nines to a 10-month-old child, the EMT should recognize which one of the following?
Select one:
a. The front and back of the torso are considered 72% of the total body.
b. The front of the arm is approximately 9% of the total body.
c. The head of a child is considered to be 18% of the total body.
d. Both legs combined are appropriately 18% of the total body.
The head of a child is considered to be 18% of the total body. Using the "rule of nines," one may rapidly determine the amount of a burn on a baby or small child.
A baby's body surface area is divided into percentages using this technique. It takes up 21% of the body's surface area for the front and back of the head and neck.
10% of the body's surface is taken up by the front and rear of each arm and hand.The body's surface area is accounted for by the chest and stomach (13%).The body's surface area is made up of 13% of the back.A 6% portion of the body's surface is made up of the buttocks and genitalia.13.5% of the surface area of the body is made up by the front and back of each leg and foot.Learn more about genitalia here:
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