Fentanyl anesthetic is commonly used for short procedures on pediatric clients, the correct option is A.
Sedation and analgesia are necessary for a variety of disorders in the pediatric population. Ineffective pain management may cause physiological and behavioral reactions that may have a negative impact on the growing nociceptive system. Morphine is no longer the drug of choice for quick procedures due to the development of short-acting opioids.
Shorter acting opioids like fentanyl are preferred for procedural sedation. Fentanyl and midazolam are a well-liked and safe combination for procedural sedation and analgesia in children. To lessen the possibility of hemodynamic or respiratory compromise when administered together, both should be administered in smaller dosages.
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According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the:
A. end-product must not be in excess.
B. substrate must bind to the repressor.
C. repressor must not be synthesized.
D. repressor must bind to the operator.
E. substrate must bind to the enzyme.
According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the: B. substrate must bind to the repressor.
An operon is a functional piece of DNA in genetics that houses a collection of genes that are all regulated by the same promoter. The genes are combined during transcription to form an mRNA strand, which is then either translated in the cytoplasm as a single unit or split up during splicing to form monocistronic mRNAs, which are translated separately and consist of multiple strands of mRNA that each encode a single gene product. The operon's genes as a result either express themselves simultaneously or not at all. An operon is defined by the co-transcription of many genes.
From the discovery of the first operons in eukaryotes in the early 1900s, operons have been assumed to exist only in prokaryotes (which includes organelles like plastids that are derived from bacteria).
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For a child with suspected abuse, which action is the priority?
A. Obtain a skeletal survey.
B. Determine the reason that the injury occurred.
C. Establish a trusting relationship with the child.
D. Isolate the child from the caregiver.
For a child with suspected abuse, the priority action is: (C) Establish a trusting relationship with the child.
Abuse is the improper treatment of a person by another person. Abuse can have various form like physical, mental, emotional, sexual, etc. Abuse in children can be very damaging for their growth and development. They usually develop in life under-confident and have issues in trusting any person.
Trust is the situation of firm belief that one one person has over other person. In the case of abuse, people and especially children find it difficult to trust even their closed ones. As a result such people are not able to form long and healthy relationships in life.
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What is the ICD-10 for hypothyroidism?
9 – Hypothyroidism, Unspecified. ICD-Code E03. 9 is a billable ICD-10 code used for healthcare diagnosis reimbursement of Hypothyroidism, Unspecified.
What's the difference between diagnosis and diagnoses?The plural form is diagnoses, pronounced [ dahy-uhg-noh-seez ]. The verb form is diagnose. A doctor can be said to diagnose an illness or a patient but the meaning is the same—to diagnose is to give a diagnosis of what specific condition is affecting the patient.
What is diagnostic test?A test used to help figure out what disease or condition a person has based on their signs and symptoms. Diagnostic tests may also be used to help plan treatment, find out how well treatment is working, and make a prognosis. There are many different types of diagnostic tests.
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When working with a visually impaired patient, you should position yourself ______ him and speak as clearly as possible.
When working with a visually impaired patient, you should position yourself Facing Toward him and speak as clearly as possible.
As professionals in the field of eye health, we place a high priority on understanding the value of health education as well as the prevention and treatment of eye diseases. However, despite the information we have gained, our efforts are not always successful, and we are left with the burden and challenge of providing care for those who must deal with a visual impairment, maybe for the remainder of their lives. Understanding their challenges, recognising their talents, and learning how to work and communicate with them in both a social setting and a medical setting are all necessary. The lack of education of medical staff members and their ignorance of the support requirements of patients who are blind or visually impaired is frequently all too obvious within the eye hospital itself.
People who are blind or visually impaired come from a variety of backgrounds. Some are young, while most are elderly. They could be athletes, farmers, gardeners, chess players, instructors, typists, musicians, housewives, lawyers, physiotherapists, social workers, telephonists, parents, computer programmers, etc.
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to avoid injury when pushing a patient or other object, you should:
Instead of pulling, it is safer to push. While shoulders back, kneel down. Instead of twisting at the hips to push, maintain a firm core and move the object with your legs and body weight.
Which of the following is a procedure you ought to follow while lifting a person or an object?
When lifting, always position the patient as closely as you can. For leverage and to keep your balance, keep your arms and patient as close to your body as you can. Keep your back as straight as you can while bending at the knees. Know your limitations and request assistance when you need to raise a patient.
Which should be used when moving objects and patients—pulling or pushing?
rather push instead than pulling, wherever possible. Lock yourself in the rear. Continually pull with your body's core in mind. Maintain weight close to the body.
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if a thrombus blocked blood flow in the deep brachial artery, choose all of the following in which blood could still reach the forea
If a thrombus in the deep brachial artery prevented blood flow, Blood could still get to the forearm through the brachial artery and superior ulnar collateral artery.
What location has the most blood flow resistance?The primary regulators of intravascular pressure and flow are the arterioles. The largest resistance is found in artery walls, which also contributes significantly to total peripheral resistance and ultimately mean arterial pressure.
Brachial artery location for blood pressure?The brachial artery, a significant blood vessel in the upper arm, supplies blood mostly to the arm and hand. From the axillary artery near the shoulder, the brachial artery runs down the underside of the arm.
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Which complication occurs in a patient with noninvasive ventilation? Select all that apply. One, some, or all responses may be correct.
Facial injury
Skin breakdown
Dry mucous membranes
Skin breakdown and dry mucous membranes are potential complications that can occur in a patient with noninvasive ventilation.
What is noninvasive ventilation?Noninvasive ventilation (NIV) is a type of mechanical ventilation that provides support to patients who are breathing spontaneously without the need for an artificial airway such as an endotracheal tube. NIV is delivered through a face mask, nasal mask, or nasal pillows that fit over the patient's nose and/or mouth, delivering positive pressure to help the patient breathe more effectively. NIV is commonly used to treat respiratory failure caused by conditions such as chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD), congestive heart failure, pneumonia, and acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS). It can also be used to support breathing during procedures that require sedation or anesthesia. Compared to invasive mechanical ventilation, NIV is associated with a lower risk of complications such as ventilator-associated pneumonia and tracheal injury. However, NIV requires careful monitoring of patients to ensure proper fit and avoid complications such as skin breakdown or discomfort.
Here,
Facial injury is not a typical complication of noninvasive ventilation, but it can happen in rare cases due to mask pressure or improper mask fitting. However, it is not a common complication.
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Hypoglycemia can be alleviated by injecting insulin.T/F
which is a manual treatment performed to influence joint and neurophysiological function?
Chiropractic manipulative therapy (CMT) affects joint and neurophysiological function through manual therapy.
Is safe neck manipulation in chiropractic care?The carotid and vertebral arteries may experience severe strain as a result of the high velocity push employed in cervical manipulation. Once a dissection has taken place, there is a significantly higher risk of thrombus formation, ischemic stroke, paralysis, and even death.
Who wants to manipulate their spine?One of many non-drug methods that can be used to treat both acute and chronic low-back pain is spinal manipulation. It might result in modest improvements in function and discomfort. Function refers to how low back pain impacts a person's ability to walk, stand, sleep, and perform household chores.
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An Anatomy and physiology instructor is discussing the lymphatic system of the head and neck. why would the instructor emphasize the importance of the drainage pattern of the lymph?
A. Nurse needs to follow lymph patterns to track the course of a disease.
B. The drainage pattern can help the nurse understand why the disease is spreading.
C. Enlargement of a node may be a sign of pathology that is distant from that node.
D. The drainage pattern may help pinpoint a fluid or electrolyte imbalance
Enlargement of a node may be a sign of pathology that is distant from that node that is why the instructor was emphasizing the lymphatic system, the correct option is C.
The head and neck's lymphatic system is being discussed by an anatomy and physiology instructor. Because the lymphatic drainage pattern parallels the progression of sickness, the instructor would underline the significance of this pattern.
The thymus and bone marrow are two important elements of the lymphatic system. These two systems play a critical role in the development of antibodies, the generation of regeneration cells, the detection of pathogenic bacteria and viruses, and the body's ability to fend off disease.
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at what frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the fda’s current good manufacturing practices requirements?
Minimum frequency and Each day of use frequency should quality control testing be performed on each lot of anti-human globulin to be in compliance with the FDA's.
Human Anti-Human Globulin or Anti-IgG serves as a bridge between the antibody coatings of neighborhood red blood cells, causing agglutination. Red blood cells that are not coated will not agglutinate. Human Anti-Human Globulin Rabbits are immunized with human IgG to produce anti-IgG.
The principles of the test In blood banks, polyspecific AHG has always been commonly used to perform overt and covert antiglobulin screening (DAT and IAT). The DAT determines whether red blood cells are coated with immunoglobulin, complement, or both in vivo. This test is required when investigating immune-mediated hemolysis.
The test works on the basis that antihuman globulin (AHG) immune cells bind to RBCs coated with living thing immunoglobulin or supplement (in vivo or in vitro). Its AHG serves as a link but also causes RBC agglutination.
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What is the ICD-10 code for DM with ESRD?
Diabetes type 2 with chronic renal damage brought on by diabetes. ICD-10 -CM code E11. 22 is a billable/specific code that designates a diagnosis for financial payment.
What is diabetes in ESRD?Deterioration of kidney function is referred to as nephropathy. End-stage renal disease, often known as ESRD, is the last stage of nephropathy. Diabetes is the most typical cause of ESRD, according the CDC.
What distinguishes CKD and ESRD from one another?Kidney disease progresses via five stages. The dependency on dialysis distinguishes CKD Stage 5 from ESRD. Dialysis may or may not be used to treat CKD Stage 5 patients, and kidney damage may or may not be irreversible. Chronic dialysis is necessary for a patient with ESRD.
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what is the best statment for description of colic for parents who are asking whether their infant is experiencing this alteration?
Colic is a common condition in infants that causes prolonged and inconsolable crying for at least three hours a day, three days a week, for three weeks or longer.
It typically occurs in the late afternoon or evening and may be accompanied by fussiness, irritability, and difficulty sleeping. The exact cause of colic is unknown, but it is believed to be related to digestive issues or an immature digestive system.
While colic can be distressing for both parents and infants, it usually resolves on its own within the first few months of life. Colic is a condition in which an otherwise healthy infant cries excessively and inconsolably for no apparent reason.
This crying usually occurs for at least three hours a day, three days a week, for three weeks or longer. Colic typically starts in the first few weeks of life and can last until the baby is three to four months old.
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What are the 4 signs of shock?
the four shock signals clammy, cold skin. ashy or pale skin. If you have a dark complexion, your lips, fingernails, or hair may have a grayish tint. rapid heartbeat
The rate of the heartbeat.Your heart beat is indeed the contraction of the heart as it pumps blood to the remainder of your body, including your lungs. Your heart's electrical circuitry controls how quickly it beats.
The heartbeat's location?The fictional communities of Aidensfield and Ashfordly served as the backdrop for Heartbeat. Although both of these towns are undoubtedly fictional, most of the filming for them took place in the North Yorkshire Riding.
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elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs when
When the intercostal muscles contract the elevation of the rib cage during inhalation occurs.
The diaphragm contracts and moves downward, while the intercostal muscles also contract to move the rib cage outwards during inhalation. The volume of the chest cavity increases as the pressure inside the thoracic cavity decreases. The pressure change later pulls air into the lungs.
The diaphragm relaxes and directs higher into the thoracic cavity. This elevates the pressure inside the thoracic cavity compared to the environment, and air rushes out of the lungs. No muscles are contracting to expel the air, therefore, the movement of air out of the lungs is a passive event.
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a client has just undergone bronchoscopy. which nursing assessment is most important at this time?
Following a bronchoscopy, the most important nursing assessment is to monitor the patient's respiratory status closely. The patient's oxygen saturation, respiratory rate, depth of breathing, and quality of breath sounds should be monitored.
What is bronchoscopy?Bronchoscopy is a medical procedure that involves inserting a flexible or rigid tube with a camera and light source on the end into the airways of the lungs to allow direct visualization of the structures within the airways.
The procedure is usually performed by a pulmonologist or a thoracic surgeon with the assistance of a specialized nursing team.
During the procedure, the patient may be given a sedative or local anesthetic to minimize discomfort and to help them relax.
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A nurse administers pure oxygen to a client during and after electroconvulsive therapy treatment. What is the nurse’s rationale for this procedure?
A. To prevent increased intracranial pressure resulting from anoxia
B. To prevent hypotension, bradycardia, and bradypnea due to electrical stimulation
C. To prevent anoxia due to medication-induced paralysis of respiratory muscles
D. To prevent blocked airway resulting from seizure activity
The nurse provides 100% oxygen before, during, and after electroconvulsive therapy to prevent anoxia brought on by the paralysis of the respiratory muscles brought on by the medicine.
How uncomfortable is electroconvulsive therapy?The ECT procedure will be performed once your medical team is certain that you are soundly sleeping and that all of your muscles are relaxed. You won't feel any discomfort throughout the procedure since you'll be sleeping, and neither will you feel the current or the seizure.
What negative effects does ECT have?The most prevalent adverse effects of ECT on the day of treatment include nausea, headaches, tiredness, disorientation, and moderate memory loss. These signs and symptoms may linger for a short while or for several hours. The risks must be compared against the consequences of poorly untreated mental illnesses.
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The percentages of Daily Values are applied to the Nutrition Facts label in which of the following ways?
The 2000-kcal diet allows easy comparison among similar foods.
They are based on 2000-kcal diet.
People requiring more or less than 2000-kcal must make the necessary adjustment.
Answer: what is it asking?
Explanation:
which clients are ideal candidates for interpreter service to prevent contributing health disparities? select all that apply. one, some, or all responses may be correct.
These clients are ideal candidates for interpreter service to prevent contributing health disparities:
A non-English-speaking client in the emergency departmentA Spanish-speaking client ready to be discharged from the facilityAn Indian American who does not speak the language used at the facilityWhat is health disparities?Health disparities are discrepancies that socially disadvantaged people encounter in the burden of disease, injury, violence, or opportunity to reach optimal health. These gaps are avoidable.
Health and healthcare inequalities exist across a wide variety of characteristics, although they are frequently seen through the perspective of race and ethnicity. Disparities can be seen, for instance, in socioeconomic position, age, geography, language, gender, status as a person with a disability, citizenship, and sexual orientation.
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Which medication may sometimes be overlooked when considering penicillin allergies in patients?
Piperacillin/tazobactam (Zosyn) medication may sometimes be overlooked when considering penicillin allergies in patients.
The combination of piperacillin and tazobactam is an antimicrobial agent that belongs to the class of drugs known as antibacterial drugs and beta-lactamase inhibitors. It kills the bacteria while preventing their growth. This medication, however, will not treat colds, flu, or any other virus infections.
Zosyn (piperacillin/tazobactam) is indeed a broad-frequency band prodrug that works against a wide range of bacteria. That's why it is frequently used for individuals who are critically ill or have serious illnesses.
Because piperacillin's side chain is a challenging field from penicillin's, we still wouldn't expect cross-reactivity. The majority of patients with piperacillin-tazobactam allergy are really not allergic to penicillin.
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If you turn resuscitation efforts for a patient over to another​ rescuer, this person must be trained to which level of​ proficiency?
A. The level of an ALS provider
B. The highest possible level
C. The same level as or a greater level than you
D. The level of a physician
If you turn resuscitation efforts for a patient over to another rescuer, this person must be trained to at least the same level as or a greater level than you, as indicated in option C.
Who is patient?A patient is an individual who is receiving medical or healthcare services from a healthcare professional or institution. The term "patient" typically refers to an individual who is seeking or receiving medical care for an illness or injury. This can include individuals who are being treated in a hospital, clinic, or other healthcare facility, as well as those who are receiving care in their own homes or other community settings. Patients can be of any age, gender, or background and may require a range of different types of medical care, including preventative care, diagnostic tests, medications, surgical procedures, and rehabilitation.
Here,
While higher levels of proficiency or a physician's expertise may be beneficial in some cases, it is not always necessary or practical. The most important consideration is that the new rescuer is qualified and capable of providing the necessary care and interventions to ensure the best possible outcome for the patient.
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What should the nurse do to maintain standard precautions?
A. Rinse gloves that become visibly soiled during use.
B. Use an antimicrobial soap for routine handwashing.
C. Disinfect hands immediately after removing gloves.
D. Keep gloves on when touching environmental surfaces.
C. Disinfect hands immediately after removing gloves should the nurse do to maintain standard precautions.
The following sections go over each component of Standard Precautions. Education and training are essential components of Standard Precautions because they assist DHCP in making appropriate decisions and adhering to recommended practises.
Because once Standard Precautions alone are insufficient to prevent transmission, Transmission-Based Precautions are added. When doctors have maladies that could spread through contact, droplet, or aerial itineraries (e.g., skin connection, sneezing, coughing), this new division of safe practices is used in additament to Standard Precautions.
Dental settings are typically not designed to provide all of the Transmit Precautions (for example, Airborne Preventive measures for patients with suspected infectious diseases, measles, or chickenpox) that are advised for hospital and other ambulatory surgery settings. Patients, on the other hand, rarely seek routine dental outpatient care.
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how does hypertension lead to bradypnea
Hypertension, or high blood pressure, can lead to bradypnea, which is a type of slow breathing.
What is Hypertension?Hypertension, also known as high blood pressure, is a medical condition that occurs when the force of the blood pushing against the walls of the arteries becomes too high. It can cause serious health consequences, such as heart attack, stroke, and aneurysm. High blood pressure is a common problem, affecting about one in three adults in the United States.
When the blood pressure is too high, the heart has to work harder to pump the blood throughout the body. This increased strain on the heart can cause the body to automatically slow down the breathing rate to compensate. With the decreased oxygen intake, the body can become exhausted and have difficulty recovering. Bradypnea can also lead to other medical conditions, such as respiratory failure and heart failure.
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what is the special, often unexpected urgency in treating infants' respiratory illnesses promptly?
Respiratory diseases can affect the ears where the ear infections can interfere with hearing and hinder the development of areas of the brain that are essential for language development.
What are Respiratory diseases?Respiratory disease is defined as diseases and disorders of the airways and lungs which affect human respiration. Respiratory diseases can affect the ears where the ear infections.
Respiratory diseases can affect any of the structures and organs that have to do with breathing which includes the nasal cavity, the pharynx called the larynx, the larynx, the trachea called the windpipe, the bronchi and bronchioles, the tissue of the lungs, and the thoracic cage
Thus, Respiratory diseases can affect the ears where the ear infections can interfere with hearing and hinder the development of areas of the brain that are essential for language development.
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the leader nurse is calculating the average daily census (adc) in a 40-bed medical—surgical unit, which accrued 679 client days in the month of july. what is the adc on this unit?
679 client days accrued in the month of July where, 22 are ADCs on this unit.
What is ADC?Average daily count (ADC) is defined as the average number of patients admitted during the years, which when multiplied by 365 gives the total number of patient days per year. ADC divided by bed capacity and multiplied by 100 gives the occupancy rate.
ADC is primarily used to collect data on the national population, housing censuses, agriculture, business, supplies, and so on. For above given information, there are 31 days in July, so 679/31 = 21.9 which is rounded off to 22.
Thus, 679 client days accrued in the month of July where, 22 are ADCs on this unit.
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what causes wake up with heart racing shortly after falling asleep
Answer:
1. Stress Hormones can cause your blood pressure and heart rate to spike.
2. Shock and Fear Just like anxiety and stress can cause your heart rate to go up, so can shock or fear.
3. Alcohol Alcohol increases your heart rate.
4. A Sugar Rush
5. Diabetes
6. A Lack of Oxygen
7. Atrial Fibrillation (AFib)
8. Stimulants
when testing a new drug to treat arthritis what method should be used to avoid bias in the data?
Double- blind experiments. A specific type of clinical experiment in which neither the research subject nor the subjects are aware of the treatment or intervention that each subject is receiving until the trial is over.
In a double-blind trial, neither the participants nor the researchers know which person is receiving a particular therapy. This method is applied to prevent bias from affecting research findings. The placebo effect and demand characteristics can both lead to bias, therefore double-blind trials are very useful in preventing this.
Although every study participant will take a tablet, only some of them will receive the actual medication that is being tested. The remainder of the patients will get an inactive placebo. The participants in a double-blind study are kept anonymous.
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An abnormally high level of which of the following will result in goiter?
a) thyroxine
b) either TRH or TSH
c) TSH
d) TRH
e) either thyroxine or TRH
An abnormally high level of TSH will result in goiter. Therefore, option (C) is correct.
What is goiter?Goiter is a condition characterized by the enlargement of the thyroid gland, which is located in the neck. It can be caused by various factors, but one of the most common causes is an abnormally high level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in the blood.
TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to produce more thyroid hormones, which regulate metabolism. In cases of iodine deficiency, for example, the thyroid gland may produce excessive amounts of TSH to compensate for the lack of iodine, leading to goiter.
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You are assessing the pupils of a patient who was struck in the back of the head. You note that his pupils differ in size by slightly less than 1 mm. The patient is conscious, alert, and oriented to person, place, time, and event. You should suspect:
A. injury to the pons or medulla.
B. increased intracranial pressure.
C. that he ingested an opiate drug.
D. physiologic anisocoria
You observe that his pupils are little under 1 mm apart in size. The patient is awake, alert, and aware of people, places, events, and times. You should be on the lookout for: Anisocoria.
Correct option is, D.
What are the 4 components of an abdominal assessment, in order?Inspection, palpation, percussion, or auscultation are the four main parts of the abdominal examination. The patient should be totally supine before starting the basic examination of the abdomen. Each of the following symptoms may be a marker of a particular illness.
What do the four abdominal quadrants look like and what do they do?The four quadrants allow for the localization of pain and discomfort, scar, lumps, and other interesting features, allowing for a more precise identification of the organs and tissues that may be affected. The left lower, left upper, right upper, and right lower quadrants are the names given to the four quadrants.
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List of reasons why surgical technologist might need to communicate with the diagnostic imaging department, medical laboratory department, or medical surgical floor nurse.
As a member of the surgical team, the surgical technologist plays an important role in ensuring that surgeries are conducted safely and effectively. In certain situations, it may be necessary for the surgical technologist to communicate with other departments or healthcare professionals to facilitate this process. Some reasons why a surgical technologist might need to communicate with the diagnostic imaging department, medical laboratory department, or medical surgical floor nurse include:
To obtain or share information about the patient's medical history or current condition
To coordinate diagnostic or lab tests that may be necessary before or after surgery
To ensure that necessary supplies or equipment are available for the surgery
To coordinate the transfer of the patient to and from the operating room
To communicate any special needs or precautions related to the patient's condition or the surgical procedure.
Effective communication between healthcare professionals is critical to ensuring safe and effective patient care, and the surgical technologist plays an important role in this process.
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