the pcaob has the authority to enforce sox title iii, section 303, in which type of proceedings?

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Answer 1

The PCAOB (Public Company Accounting Oversight Board) has the authority to enforce SOX (Sarbanes-Oxley) Title III, Section 303 in disciplinary proceedings against registered public accounting firms and their associated persons.

Section 303 of Title III of the Sarbanes-Oxley Act requires that the registered public accounting firm of an issuer who is found to have engaged in fraudulent activity must "promptly" report that activity to the audit committee of the issuer's board of directors. In case the accounting firm fails to do so, the PCAOB has the authority to bring disciplinary proceedings against the firm and its associated persons.

The PCAOB can conduct investigations and enforcement proceedings against registered public accounting firms and their associated persons for violations of SOX and PCAOB rules and standards, including those related to Section 303. The PCAOB has the power to impose sanctions, such as fines, censures, and suspensions, on firms and individuals found to have violated SOX and PCAOB rules.

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what was the purpose of the framers granting congress the power to tax?

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The purpose of granting Congress the power to tax was to provide the federal government with a reliable source of revenue to fund its operations and programs. This power was also intended to help ensure that the government could fulfill its obligations to its citizens, such as providing for the common defense and promoting the general welfare.

True/False? after the passing of the sarbanes-oxley act, auditors of public companies can perform nonaudit services, such as investment advising, for their clients.

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False; since the Sarbanes-Oxley Act was passed, public company auditors are now permitted to provide non-audit services to their clients, such as investment advice.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act is what.

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act, sometimes known as the SOX Act, is a federal law in the United States that seeks to safeguard investors by improving the veracity and accuracy of business disclosures. Enron and WorldCom (now known as MCI Inc.), two significant accounting scandals that deceived investors and artificially boosted stock values, served as the catalyst for the Act.

On July 30, 2002, President George W. Bush signed the Act into law, following a push from Senator Paul Sarbanes and House Michael Oxley. One hundred and ten elements make up the SOX Act (or sections).

Financial crime and accounting fraud were significantly less common than before once the Sarbanes-Oxley act was put into effect. The attempt to inflate important numbers like revenues and net profits was discouraged by organizations.

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true/false. you wish to cite a session law called the permanent electronic duck stamp act of 2013, published in volume 128 of the united states statutes at large at page 2847. the bill was the 239th bill passed by both houses of congress in december of 2014 during the 113th congress.

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It is true that you wish to cite session law called permanent electronic duck stamp act of 2013, published in volume 128 of United States.

What is session law?

Session law refers to the compilation of laws that have been passed by a legislative body during a particular legislative session. It is usually published annually in a bound volume and contains all the bills and resolutions passed by a state or federal legislative body during a particular session. Session laws are important because they provide a permanent record of the legislative activity for that year, and they can be used as a reference for lawyers, judges, legislators, and other interested parties. These laws are usually numbered and organized by topic, making them easy to locate and reference. Session laws are also important because they can serve as the basis for the creation of the official code of a particular jurisdiction.

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According to the United States Census Bureau, a Mexican American might also be considered a member of which races?
A) Japanese, Cuban, or another
B) Black, Mexican, or another
C) Black, White, or another
D) White, Guatemalan, or Mexican
E) White only

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According to the United States Census Bureau, a Mexican American might also be considered a member of black, white and another races.

Hence, the correct option is C.

The population in United States is divided in various categories on the basis of races or color of a person. OMB recognizes five minimum categories (White, Black or African American, American Indian or Alaska Native, Asian, and Native Hawaiian or Other Pacific Islander) for race with a sixth category of other races permitted by the United States consensus bureau. People through these races identify their ethnicity whether they are of Hispanic or Latino origin the two forms of ethnicity.

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Who was declared the rightful governor of Georgia in a special election in 1948?

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Herman Talmadge was the rightful governor of Georgia in a special election in 1948.

The "three governors issue" in Georgia in 1946–1947, which was sparked by Eugene Talmadge's death as governor–elect, was one of the more peculiar political spectacles in American political history.

Upon Talmadge's passing, his supporters came up with a scheme that let the Georgia legislature choose a governor in January 1947. The newly elected lieutenant governor, Melvin E. Thompson, claimed the position of governor after the General Assembly chose Talmadge's son Herman Talmadge as governor.

Also, the previous governor, Ellis Arnall, refused to step down. Ultimately, the dispute was resolved by the Georgia Supreme Court.

The Georgia Supreme Court concluded in March 1947 that Melvin E. Thompson was the legitimate acting governor of the state because he was the lieutenant governor-elect and ran for re-election.

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what doraville police officer charged with concealing gwinnett 16-year-old’s death?

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Miles Bryant was charged with the disappearance and death of 16-year-old Susan Morales

which group is ultimately responsible for choosing the president of the united states?

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The final decision on the united states president rests with the Electoral College. a group of 538 electors who, in line with the Constitution, are chosen by each state and the District of Columbia.

The Electoral College, a body of 538 electors chosen by each state and the District of Columbia in accordance with the Constitution, is ultimately responsible for selecting the President of the United States. Voters in presidential elections are actually choosing a slate of electors who have vowed to back a certain candidate. The candidate who receives a majority of the electoral votes (at least 270) is elected President. It is important to note that certain states have rules requiring electors to vote for the candidate who won the popular vote in their state, even though the Electoral College is the final arbiter of the presidential election.

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michael needs to discipline one of his employees. before doing so, he should make sure the punishment he is administering fits the crime.truefalse

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Answer:

True

Explanation:

The "time" should match the "crime"

which of the following is not an example of public law? a. administrative law b. criminal law c. constitutional law d. contract law

Answers

B is the answer to this question

is the u.s. federal tax system for individuals progressive or regressive?

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In the United States, the federal tax system for individuals is progressive. Gradually increasing tax rates, from 10% to 37%, are available.

Since they place the onus of paying taxes on those who are probably the best able to pay it, progressive taxes are well-liked.

Progressive tax systems often permit a number of credits and deductions, similar to the federal income tax. Like the Earned Income Tax Credit, these tax benefits offer additional assistance to low-income individuals. They may also promote specific behavior. For instance, the American Opportunity Tax Credit and the mortgage interest deduction both promote homeownership and higher education, respectively.

Yet, some tax benefits might also enable high-income taxpayers to pay less tax than those with lower incomes. For instance, wealthier taxpayers occasionally pay a lower rate overall than their middle-class peers due to preferred rates on long-term capital gains.

"Bracket creeps" can also result from inflation. This occurs when taxpayers are forced into a higher tax band, even though their increasing income doesn't give them additional buying power.

A regressive tax contrasts with a progressive tax. It refers to paying a greater tax rate when your income drops. Regressive taxes come in two different varieties, namely proportional taxes and flat taxes.

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a driver who is involved in a significant collision must report it to the dmv within ______ days if _______

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Depending on the state or area, there may be differences in the procedure and standards for filing a DMV report after a collision.

An accident that results in grave repercussions, such as injury, death, or severe property damage, is referred to as a significant collision. Depending on the context, the word "major" might mean several things, but generally speaking it describes a collision that is not little or inconsequential. A collision's severity can vary depending on a variety of variables, including the type of collision, the number of persons involved, and the level of the damage done. The lives of persons involved in collisions, as well as their families and communities, can be significantly affected. In order to ensure that the necessary steps are done to stop future harm, it is essential to follow the correct protocols and report a severe collision to the right authorities as soon as possible.

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Which one of the following items is not normally included in a request for an exception to security policy?A. Description of a compensating controlB. Description of the risks associated with the exceptionC. Proposed revision to the security policyD. Business justification for the exception

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Proposed revision to the security policy or requests for an exception to a security policy would not normally include in a request for an exception to security policy.

Hence, the correct option is C.

Security policy is a set of rules, comprehension or well organized plan to regulate access to an organization's system and the information that can include any private confidential data of a company. These security policies are distributed in three primary areas or classifications of security controls. such as management security, operational security, and physical security controls. Exceptions are the documented variances in the form of policy adopted in accordance with suitable specific technical and/or business requirements. These exceptions cannot alter the original policy, which remains in force for systems not covered by the exception. If such an exception violates the previous statutes then the framed exception will be considered null and void.

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What are the main duties of national association for the advancement of secrecy?

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Official Secrets Act prohibits the public from having access to confidential information pertaining to the security and integrity of the country.

How does prohibition operate?

Someone would be prohibited from doing something if there was a legislation against the sale of alcohol. to forbid something from being used or done, especially through legal means. It is forbidden for businesses to use trademarks that are confusingly similar to those that are already in use.

This indicates grade level based on how complex the word is. a prohibition in action. regulations governing the manufacturing and promotion of alcoholic beverages aimed to the general public. The act of prohibiting anything, like when my mother disallowed watching television while we were having dinner.

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True or False: The Sarbanes-Oxley Act applies to all companies required to file their financial statements with the SEC.

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Answer:

True

Explanation:

The Sarbanes-Oxley Act of 2002 (SOX) is a federal law that applies to all public companies required to file financial statements with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). The law was enacted in response to a series of accounting scandals involving public companies, such as Enron and WorldCom, and aims to improve the accuracy and reliability of corporate financial reporting. SOX requires public companies to implement various internal controls and procedures related to financial reporting, auditing, and corporate governance, among other areas.

Final answer:

Yes, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act applies to all companies who are required to file their financial statements with the SEC. It was enacted to protect investors by ensuring financial transparency and integrity in reporting.

Explanation:

True, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act (SOX) does apply to all companies that are required to file their financial statements with the Securities and Exchange Commission (SEC). Enacted in 2002, this federal law was passed to protect investors from fraudulent financial reporting by corporations. Therefore, any company that is publicly traded and submits financial statements to the SEC must adhere to the regulations set by the Sarbanes-Oxley Act, to ensure integrity and transparency in their financial reporting practices.

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Adding in parts of a memory based on the surrounding memory information and what would generally make the most sense in that situation is called what? a. Encoding b. Recoding c. Storage d. Retrieval

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The correct answer is option d. Retrieval is the process of recalling information stored in memory.

It is the process of bringing knowledge into our conscious awareness from our long-term memory. It is a cognitive process that requires the capacity to retrieve information from our memory and to recall it.

Either explicit memory or implicit memory may be involved in retrieval. In contrast to implicit memory, which involves the unconscious recall of skills, habits, and conditioned responses, explicit memory involves the conscious recollection of facts and events that have previously been learnt and stored in the long-term memory.

The person is engaging in retrieval when they are adding details to a memory based on the information in the surrounding memories and what would typically make the most sense in that circumstance.

It takes memory recall to be able to recover information, which is a cognitive process called retrieval. It is the process of bringing knowledge into our conscious awareness from our long-term memory.

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Describe the three different tax rates discussed in the chapter and how taxpayers might use them.
-Marginal Tax Rate
-Average Tax Rate
-Effective Tax Rate

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The three different tax rates discussed in the chapter are Marginal Tax Rate, Average Tax Rate, and Effective Tax Rate.

The tax rate is the percentage at that a trade or character is burdened. There are various procedures used to present a tax rate: sanctioned, average, slight, and productive. These rates can too convene utilizing various definitions used for a tax base: all-embracing and restricted.

A elector's average tax rate (or active tax rate) is the share of profit that they pay in taxes. By contrast, a person native of country's slight tax rate is the tax rate set on their last currency of salary. Taxpayers' average tax rates are lower — ordinarily much lower — than their borderline rates.

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the judge decides whether there is probable cause to believe the defendant committed the crime for which he or she is charged, during the __________.

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The judge decides whether there is probable cause to believe the defendant committed the crime for which he or she is charged, during the Preliminary hearing.

Five different sorts of legal hearings might occur during a criminal trial:

Arraignment Hearing: At this hearing, the offender is formally charged with a crime and is given the option of pleading guilty or not guilty.Preliminary Hearing: This hearing is performed after the arraignment and is when the judge determines if there is enough evidence to hold the defendant pending trial.Trial: This is the formal proceeding in which the judge or jury hears the evidence and renders a verdict about the defendant's guilt or innocenceSentencing Hearing: After being found guilty, the offender is brought before the court for a hearing on sentence.Appeal Hearing: A defendant who has already been found guilty may request an appeal hearing from the trial court's decision to a higher court in an effort to have the conviction or sentence vacated or amended.

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the rights and responsibilites of all navy personnel are found in which of the

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The United States Navy Regulations contain information about the obligations, rights, and interactions of different officials, groups, and people and are sanctioned by law.

Unlike other regulations that may be adopted in line with legislation, Navy Regulations are everlasting regulations of general applicability that are issued by the Secretary of the Navy. When it comes to the Naval Services, Title 10 of the United States Code is mostly implemented through the Navy Regulations. The President, the Secretary of Defense, or a congressional act have the legal authority to issue orders and directives, not the Naval Regulations.

The Chief of Naval Operations is in charge of upholding the Navy Regulations and making sure they meet the Department of the Navy's current requirements. Other Department of the Navy instructions may not contradict, modify, or revise any portion of the Navy Regulations. The Secretary of the Navy must give his or her approval before any additions, modifications, or removals to the U.S. Naval Regulations.

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burning the american flag in protest is not unconstitutional because

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The First Amendment of the U.S. Constitution, which protects the right to free expression, allows for the burning of the American flag as a form of political protest, the United States Supreme Court declared in the landmark case of Texas v. Johnson in 1989.

The First Amendment of the US Constitution protects symbolic expression, which includes the burning of the American flag in protest. Flag burning is a type of expression that is protected by the First Amendment, according to many decisions by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court ruled in the famous Texas v. Johnson decision from 1989 that flag burning is a kind of political expression that is allowed by the First Amendment. The government could not forbid such expression just because it offended certain people, the court reasoned, because flag burning was a symbolic act that sent a particular message.

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which of the following options is an unlikely response to a data request when a strong data governance plan is in place

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When a strong data governance structure is in place, the data owner providing their login details is an unusual response to a data request.

Using a variety of policies and standards, data governance supports an organization's data's availability, quality, and security. These procedures identify the data's owners, security precautions, and intended usage. Data governance's overarching objective is to preserve high-quality data that is both safe and accessible for more in-depth business insights.

The main forces behind data governance programmes are big data and initiatives for digital transformation. Businesses must review their data management procedures in order to grow their business intelligence as the volume of data from new data sources, such as Internet of Things (IoT) technologies, rises.

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The Bill of Rights: What Does it Say?

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Ten of the first amendments to the Constitution together make up the Bill of Rights. Regarding their government, it explains how Americans are entitled to certain fundamental rights.

The rights to freedom of expression, of the press, and of religion are ensured. Any jurisdiction not granted to the federal government is reserved for the people or the States, and it lays out guidelines for the administration of justice in conformity with the law. The Constitution further states that "the mention of certain rights in the Constitution shall not be regarded as a rejection or denigration of those preserved by the people." The First Amendment guarantees a number of rights, including the freedom to petition the government, form or join a group for a protest or other purpose, and the freedom to express one's political views.

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In general, courts will not enforce a contract in which the offer states that the offeree's failure to respond will be considered an acceptance of the offer. True or False

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Generally speaking, a contract in which the offer specifies that the offeree's refusal to react shall be deemed an acceptance shall not be enforced in court.

What does deeming mean in law?

Generally speaking, if an offer specifies that the offeree's failure to react shall be deemed an acceptance, a court will not enforce the contract.

The procedure through which another person's income and/or resources are taken into account in order to determine if an SSI claimant's (or recipient's) basic need for food and shelter may be satisfied is known by the Social Security Administration as "deeming."

Acting against the law or in defiance of it is not lawful since it is not permitted by law or justified by it. a possessor acting illegally.

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what principle or law states that the stronger the reinforcer or punishment, the more quickly behavior will be conditioned?

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The law of effect is the idea that behaviour will become more quickly conditioned the more severe the reinforcer or punishment.

The law of effect is the idea that behaviour will get conditioned more rapidly the greater the reinforcer or punishment. Based on his studies of animal learning, psychologist Edward Thorndike initially put out the rule of effect in the late 19th century. According to the law, actions that are followed by rewards (reinforcement) are more likely to be repeated, but actions that are followed by penalties (punishment) are less probable. The speed and effectiveness of the conditioning process are greatly influenced by the potency of the reinforcer or punishment.

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if a restriction imposed on speech by the government is content neutral, then a court will not allow it. True or False.

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False, A court may nonetheless approve a speech restriction by the government if it complies with certain requirements even if it is content-neutral, meaning it does not support or oppose certain opinions or ideas.

To be content-nonpartisan, discourse impediments should pass what is known as the "halfway examination" standard under the Primary Change of the US Constitution.

This implies that the government must demonstrate that the limitation furthers a significant governmental interest while not significantly restricting speech beyond what is required to serve that purpose.

Time, place, and manner limitations on speech, such as prohibitions on the use of loudspeakers in residential areas or guidelines requiring demonstrators to keep a particular distance from the public, are examples of material restrictions that may be permitted under intermediate scrutiny.

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why is every person obliged to follow moral law?

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Some common arguments for why individuals are obligated to follow moral law are: promotes societal well-being, maintains social order, ensures consistency and fairness, etc.

1. Promotes societal well-being: Many ethical theories, such as utilitarianism, argue that moral laws promote the well-being of society as a whole.

2. Maintains social order: Moral laws also help to maintain social order by providing a framework for acceptable behavior. If everyone were to act purely based on their own self-interest and ignore moral principles, chaos and disorder could result.

3. Consistency and fairness: Moral laws are often seen as a way to ensure consistency and fairness in how individuals are treated. By adhering to moral laws, individuals can ensure that they are treating others in the same way they would like to be treated.

4. Personal integrity: Many individuals also believe that following moral laws is important for personal integrity and character. Following moral principles can help individuals to develop a sense of moral duty and purpose and can also provide a sense of personal fulfillment and satisfaction.

It's worth noting that different ethical theories may offer different justifications for why individuals are obligated to follow moral law, and there is ongoing debate among philosophers about the nature of moral obligation. However, the above arguments are commonly cited as reasons why individuals should follow moral law.

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lloyd is drafting a complaint what should be included?

Answers

If Lloyd is drafting a complaint, it is likely that he is initiating a legal action against someone.

What are some of the general guideline of drafting a complaint

Here are some general guidelines for what a complaint should include:

Caption: The caption should include the name of the court, the name of the plaintiff (Lloyd), the name of the defendant(s), and the case number.

Introduction: The introduction should briefly explain who the plaintiff is and what the defendant(s) did that caused harm.

Jurisdiction: The complaint should explain why the court has jurisdiction to hear the case. This means Lloyd should identify the legal basis for the court's authority to hear the case.

Factual allegations: The complaint should include a detailed description of the facts of the case, explaining what happened and how it resulted in harm to the plaintiff.

Legal claims: The complaint should set out the legal claims that Lloyd is making against the defendant(s). This could include claims for breach of contract, negligence, fraud, or any other legal cause of action that applies to the specific case.

Prayer for relief: The complaint should state what Lloyd is asking the court to do. This could include an award of damages, an injunction, or any other remedy that is appropriate under the circumstances.

Signature: The complaint should be signed by Lloyd or his attorney

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how do you get away with murder?

Answers

you hide there body in a bag with you out 8feet underground and at 6 feet put a deer or cow cover with dirt and at the 3rd feet mart put a small anime like skunk or something and if you get questioned by cops just don’t talk and get a lawyer or make up some lie and if the person when missing at night say you were asleep and if they went missing during the day say you were at home or doing something with a friend that can vouch for you

when making a request to remain in the navy beyond hyt, you should use which of the following navpers forms

Answers

Request for HYT waivers for the AC, FTS, and SELRES must be made using the (option 1) NAVPERS 1306/7 Enlisted Personnel Action Request and must reach BUPERS-32 10 months before the date of the HYT.

On August 1, 2019, the U.S. Department of the Navy's Navy Personnel Command made NAVPERS 1306/7 legal document available for use nationwide. As of right now, the issuing department does not offer specific filing instructions for the form. When assigned to a type 2/4 command for rotational reasons after transfer to ships, submarines, or aircraft squadrons, sea duty incentive pay - back-to-back (SDIP-B) incentivizes Sailors to voluntarily prolong their sea duty by a minimum of 12 months and a maximum of 48 months beyond their PST.

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The complete question is:

When making a request to remain in the navy beyond hyt, you should use which of the following navpers forms:

        1. NAVPERS 1306/7

        2. NAVPERS 1102/5

        3. MICELIPIN 1450/5

        4. ARMAMIN 6750/5

if a trial was fundamentally flawed, a party can ask the judge for a motion, and for a new trial in order to prevent a miscarriage of justice. (True or False)

Answers

True, if a trial was fundamentally flawed, a party may petition the judge for a motion and a new trial in order to avoid a miscarriage of justice.

The judge denies a motion for a new trial, explain why:

Defendants typically file motions for new trials following a guilty verdict. Without the defendant's request, the trial judge in some jurisdictions can order a new trial. If the trial judge denies a motion for a new trial, the defendant may file an appeal, asking a higher court to overturn the trial judge's decision. One reason for granting a new trial motion is legal errors during trial. A judge who incorrectly excluded evidence that could have changed the outcome of a trial is one example.

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The use of so-called "passive consent" processes allow eligible students to opt out of data disclosure. This is generally used for _____.

Answers

Students who meet the criteria might choose not to have their data disclosed by using so-called "passive consent" procedures. Typically, this is utilised for student's directory information.

In other words, the study team must give a subject the information necessary for consent, but they are not obligated to get the subject's signature on the informed consent form.

The full informed consent procedure is providing a subject with sufficient information about the study, giving them enough time to consider all of their alternatives, answering their questions, making sure they understand this information, and getting their free consent.

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