The nurse's first action should be to clarify the order with the physician, as the medication in the patient's medication drawer does not match the one ordered by the physician.
What is medication?Medication is a type of medical treatment that involves the use of drugs, such as prescription medications, over-the-counter medicines, and dietary supplements. These drugs can be taken orally, injected, or applied topically to treat a variety of physical and mental health issues. Medication can also be used to prevent illnesses, such as vaccinations and prophylactics.
The nurse should not administer the wrong medication, call the pharmacist, or inform the patient that he will have to wait for the right drug until the order is clarified.
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The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
a. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles
b. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition
c. Gastrointestinal system (GI) and lower extremity muscles
d. Respiratory system and facial muscles
The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting the respiratory system and facial muscles in a patient with myasthenia gravis.
What is Myasthenia gravis?Myasthenia gravis is a chronic autoimmune neuromuscular disease that causes muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the skeletal muscles that control eye movement, facial expression, chewing, swallowing, and breathing. It occurs when the body's immune system attacks the receptors in the neuromuscular junction, which are responsible for transmitting nerve impulses to the muscles. As a result, the communication between the nerves and muscles is disrupted, leading to weakness and fatigue. The disease can affect people of all ages, but it is most common in women under the age of 40 and men over the age of 60. Myasthenia gravis is a treatable condition, but there is no known cure.
Here,
Myasthenia gravis is an autoimmune disorder that results in muscle weakness and fatigue, particularly in the voluntary muscles. The muscles involved in breathing and those in the face and neck are often affected, which can lead to respiratory distress, difficulty swallowing, and difficulty speaking. Symptoms affecting the cardiovascular, CNS, GI, or lower extremity muscles are not typically associated with myasthenia gravis.
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A nurse giving a client a bed bath drops the towel on the floor. What should the nurse do?
A. Wash his/her hands, pick up the towel, and shake the towel out
B. Wash his/her hands and go to the linen room to obtain another towel Correct
C. Use a bath blanket as a towel
D. Borrow a towel from the client’s roommate
Wash the hands and go to the linen room to get another towel in case when the nurse drops the towel on the floor while giving a client a bed bath. So, the correct option is B.
What is Bed bath?When a person who cannot walk well or who cannot move at all needs a bed bath, also called a sponge bath, but often a face cloth is also used. Nurses can give a full bath in bed without wetting the bed sheets, while little ones who don't have problems with blood flow can take more frequent baths if they wish.
During bed bathing, if towel drops on the floor, the nurse should wash his/her hands and go to the linen room to obtain another towel.
Hence, the correct option is B.
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A 12-lead ECG that reveals slight ST segment elevation; Q waves in leads II, III, and aVF; and ST elevation in V1 and V2 most indicate which of the following?
The patient's right ventricle is experiencing ischemia due to a myocardial infarction that occurred in her inferior wall.
What does an ECG test for?An ECG can detect arrhythmias, which are abnormal heartbeats or very fast, slow, or irregular heartbeats. Coronary heart disease is a disorder when the blood flow to the heart is blocked or interfered with by an accumulation of fatty substances. Heart attacks happen when the blood flow to the heart is suddenly interrupted.
Can an ECG identify a damaged heart?The patterns on the ECG may help in determining the extent of the cardiac injury as well as the precise location of the damage. Oxygen and blood are delivered to the heart. By doing an ECG while you're experiencing symptoms, your healthcare provider can evaluate whether your chest pain is being caused by reduced blood supply to the muscle.
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what is the order of the following instruments: 1. files 2. endodontic explorer 3. gutta-percha 4. paper points 5. glick
Know the order of the these instruments: #1-endodontic explorer, #2-Files, #3-paper points, #4-Gutta-percha, #5-Glick range 1.
What are the 5 primary root canal steps in order?Steps of a root canal procedure
Preparing the area. The dentist starts through numbing the area. ...
Accessing and cleaning the roots. Next, the dentist drills thru the tooth to access the root canals and pulp chamber. ...
Shaping the canals. ...
Filling the canals. ...
Filling to the get right of entry to hole. ...
Healing and antibiotics. ...
Adding the crown.
What are the steps of root canal obturation?The major steps in the sequence of root canal obturation are: • choosing a method and timing the obturation • deciding on master cones • canal drying, sealer software • filling the apical portion (lateral and vertical compaction) • completing the fill • assessing the high-quality of the fill The root canal machine must ...
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what are the three possible locations for the p waves in a junctional rhythm?
There are three different positions for the P waves in a junctional rhythm: absent, retrograde, inverted, or buried.
What is P wave?On an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG), a test that captures the electrical activity of the heart, P waves are one form of electrical wave that can be seen. The atria, or upper chambers of the heart, depolarize (contract), and the P wave, which is the first wave to emerge on the ECG, represents the electrical activity related to this process.
P waves may not always be present in a junctional rhythm. This is so that the electrical impulse that starts the heartbeat doesn't come from the SA node, where P waves usually come from, but from the AV node or the bundle of His.
Inverted P waves, or retrograde P waves, develop following the QRS complex.
Before, during, or after the QRS complex, inverted or buried P waves may be observed. These P waves could be challenging to spot since they can resemble a dip in the QRS complex or a T wave.
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What aspects of self-administration of drugs show that the client is deficient in knowledge of the subject? (Select all that apply.)
A) not having a high school degree
B) inability to remember
C) not having a college degree
D) lack of interest in learning
E) cognitive limitation
The aspects of self-administration of drugs show that the client is deficient in knowledge of the subject are:
B) inability to rememberE) cognitive limitationD) lack of interest in learningOptions B, D and E are correct.
Drug self-administration protocols allow for the study of addiction in a laboratory setting under controlled settings. In these techniques, an animal subject or human volunteer responds by pressing a lever, which releases a dosage of a drug such as cocaine or heroin.
It might help you learn more about your medications and why you're taking them. It helps you to keep your independence while in the hospital. It assists the ward team in identifying any difficulties you may be experiencing with your medications and providing you with further information and assistance as needed. Blood-clotting factors, immunosuppressive treatment medications, erythropoietin for dialysis patients, osteoporosis drugs for some homebound patients, and certain oral cancer drugs are examples of self-administered pharmaceuticals that are covered.
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What is the ICD-10 code for BPH without obstruction?
ICD-10 code N40. 0 for Benign prostatic hyperplasia without lower urinary tract symptoms is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range - Diseases of the genitourinary system
What is the causes of hyperplasia?Endometrial hyperplasia results from an imbalance of the hormones oestrogen and progesterone; the condition may prevent the lining from shedding completely each month. Endometrial hyperplasia, also known as abnormal uterine lining thickening, is a potential outcome.
What transpires throughout hyperplasia?In a healthy tissue or organ, hyperplasia refers to an increase in cell production. A sign of abnormal or precancerous changes could be hyperplasia. The term for this is pathologic hyperplasia. It might also result from normal cell growth.
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You work with an overweight 55-year-old dentist with no known history of heart disease. He begins to complain of sudden, severe, "crushing" pain under his breastbone, in the center of his chest. The pain has lasted more than 5 minutes. What problem should you think of right away, and what should you do?
A) Heartburn; tell him to take an antacid
B) Angina; phone his personal physician
C) Heart attack; phone 911
D) Arrhythmia; drive him to an Emergency Department
When an overweight 55-year-old dentist with no known history of heart disease complains of sudden, severe, "crushing" pain under his breastbone, in the center of his chest which has lasted more than 5 minutes, the action to be taken is: (C) Heart attack; phone 911.
Heart attack is the condition where the flow of blood to the heart is suddenly blocked. This causes loss of oxygen from the cardiac tissues and as a result, the heart stops working in the lack of oxygen.
911 is the telephonic number in the US which provides the general citizens direct access to a public safety answering point (PSAP). It is an emergency number which assists the public about various emergency situations.
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a patient sustains burns from boiling water that spilled from a pot. which type of burn should the paramedic document in the record?
A patient sustains burns from boiling water that spilled from a pot. Thermal burn type of burn the paramedic should document in the record.
A burn is a tissue damage produced by heat, cold, electricity, chemicals, friction, or UV radiation. Heat from hot liquids, solids, or flames causes the majority of burns. Burns are most common in the home or office. Domestic kitchens, featuring stoves, fires, and hot liquids, pose dangers at home. Fire, chemical, and electric burns are all threats in the job. Other risk factors include alcoholism and smoking. Burns can also occur as a result of self-harm or interpersonal aggression.
Fire and hot liquids are the most prevalent causes of burns in the United States. Smoking accounts for 25% of fatal house fires, whereas heating devices account for 22%. Nearly half of all injuries are caused by firefighting operations.
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Which preparations use toxoids but not live viruses? Select all that apply.
1. Rotarix
2. Varivax
3. MMR II
4. PEDIARIX
5. DAPTACEL
4,5) The ingredients in the formulations of PEDIARIX and DAPTACEL are toxoids rather than live viruses.
What does Pediarix do?Diphtheria, tetanus, pertussis, hepatitis B, and polio are all diseases that are protected against by the Pediarix vaccination. Between the ages of six weeks and six years, this vaccination can be given to infants in three doses, according to FDA approval.
Anybody aged seven or older should not receive an injection of Pediarix. The vaccines should be given, however, at months 2, 4, and 6. Children who fall behind in their vaccines can still get the chance to get them since there is a big age range between six weeks and six years.
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The nurse questions which item that is listed on the plan of care for a patient with an implantable cardioverter?
The nurse would likely question the frequency of device checks and any instructions related to device replacement or maintenance.
What is maintenance?Maintenance is the process of preserving and protecting a property, item, or system in order to maintain its current state or condition. It is an ongoing process that involves inspecting, repairing, replacing, and improving components or systems in order to ensure that they are in good working order. Maintenance activities can be performed on a variety of items, such as buildings, machinery, vehicles, electrical systems, plumbing systems, and other equipment. Depending on the type of maintenance being performed, it may involve regular inspections, preventive maintenance, scheduled repairs, corrective maintenance, and emergency maintenance. Maintenance is important for maintaining the efficiency and safety of a system or property, as well as for extending its lifespan.
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The nurse is caring for a patient with a diagnosis of pericarditis. Where does the nurse understand the inflammation is located?
A. The thin fibrous sac encasing the heart
B. The inner lining of the heart and valves
C. The heart's muscle fibers
D. The exterior layer of the heart
When you have pericarditis, the pericardium, the thin, two-layered, fluid-filled cushion which surrounds the outside of your heart, inflames.A nurse considere of pericarditis begins suddenly and can last anywhere from a few weeks and several months.
A typical pericarditis symptom is acute chest discomfort. Chest pain happens when the layers of the inflamed pericardium rub against one another. When you have pericarditis, the pericardium, the thin, two-layered, fluid-filled cushion which surrounds the outside of your heart, inflames.A nurse considere of pericarditis begins suddenly and can last anywhere from a few weeks and several months.Your heart and the starting points of the major blood arteries which branch out from it are both surrounded by a sac called the pericardium, which is filled with fluid. One of the most typical symptoms of acute pericarditis is a sudden onset of severe, stabbing chest discomfort. One could feel uncomfortable, and it frequently.
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Damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in
a. heart stoppage or respiratory failure.
b. a loss of hearing ability.
c. a loss of muscular coordination.
d. having blind spots in one's vision.
Damage to the cerebellum would most likely result in: (c) a loss of muscular coordination.
Cerebellum is the region of the brain that deals with the motor control and coordination. Thus, damage to it can result in loss of muscular coordination. Cerebellum is located in the hindbrain region. This part is also known as the little brain.
Muscular coordination is the balanced movement of the various body parts where the force is well equally distributed to each muscle. This coordination is achieved by the musculoskeletal system of the body. This coordination is of the voluntary muscles only. The coordination is also necessary for the balance of the body.
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which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old
The nurse would straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back while administering ear drops to a four-year-old.Therefore, the correct option is A.
What is ear medication administration?Ear medication administration are a set of procedures that are followed by the healthcare professionals to administer the ear medications to various age group individuals with utmost safety and precautions.
While administering the ear drops to a 4-year-old child, the nurse should first straighten his/her ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back. Then placing accurate number of drops that are prescribed by the doctor.Therefore, the correct option is A.
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The question is incomplete, but most probably the complete question is,
Which action would the nurse take when administering ear drops to a four-year-old?
A. Straighten the ear canal by holding the upper part of the ear and gently pull up and back.
B. Stretch the ear canal
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
The only artery that carries deoxygenated blood is the _____.
The only artery that carries deoxygenated blood is the pulmonary artery.
The blood channels that carry oxygen-rich blood from the heart to the body's tissues are called arteries. Each artery consists of three layers and is a muscular tube bordered by smooth tissue.
The inner layer of the intima is lined with a smooth tissue known as endothelium.
A layer of muscle called the media allows arteries to withstand the high cardiac pressures.
A connective tissue called adventitia holds arteries to adjacent tissues.
The major high-pressure pipeline that connects to the left ventricle of the heart, the aorta, is the biggest artery. A system of smaller arteries that run throughout the body branch off from the aorta. Arterioles and capillaries are the names of the smaller arteries' branches. Low pressure is used by the pulmonary arteries to transport blood deficient in oxygen from the heart to the lungs.
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in a client's seventh month of pregnancy, she reports feeling "dizzy, like i'm going to pass out, when i lie down flat on my back." the nurse explains that this is due to:
Feeling dizzy or lightheaded when lying flat on the back during the later stages of pregnancy is a common condition known as supine hypotensive syndrome or inferior vena cava syndrome.
This happens when the inferior vena cava, a major vein that conducts blood from the lower body back to the heart, gets compressed by the weight of the expanding uterus. This constriction restricts blood flow to the heart, which lowers cardiac output and lowers blood pressure, which can cause lightheadedness or fainting.
The nurse should inform the patient that this condition is a typical physiological reaction to the uterus's pressure on the inferior vena cava and that the unborn child is not at risk. The client can be encouraged to lie on her left side rather than her back to relieve the symptoms as this position will release pressure from the inferior vena cava and restore blood flow.
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Which feature according to Benner is observed in a nurse at the "proficient" level?
A. The nurse learns by means of a set of rules.
B. The nurse identifies the principles of nursing care.
C. The nurse identifies problems related to the health care system.
D. The nurse focuses on managing care rather than managing skills.
According to Benner, the nurse should focus on managing care rather than managing skills, hence option D is correct.
What is proficiency according to Benner?There are five stages of proficiency according to Benner: advanced novice, beginner, competent, and proficient.
The novice nurse knows by observation a set of rules, which are generally stepwise and linear. The observational experience is known by The advanced beginner and is capable to knows the principles of nursing care.
Therefore, at the "proficient" level nurse focuses on managing care, not on managing skills.
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what is the correct amount of wet diapers a mature infant should produce each day?
6-8 wet diapers/day is the correct amount of wet diapers a mature infant should produce each day.
There are several diapering options for your baby, including baby nappies, cloth diapers, and biodegradable diapers. There is some disagreement about which option is best for the baby and the environment.
An infant and baby are a human being's very young offspring. The term infant is a proper or specialist synonym for the term baby. Other organisms' juveniles may also be referred to by the terms. A newborn is a baby who is only a few working days, days, or up to a month old.
A newborn is typically defined as a baby between the ages of birth and two months. Infants are considered children from birth to one year of age. The term "baby" can refer to any infant up to one-year-old babies.
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Homeopathy was developed over _____ years ago in Europe by Samuel Hahnemann, a German physician. A. 50. B. 100. C. 200. D. 400. C. 200.
Homoeopathy is currently the second most popular type of medicine in the world (WHO). Well over 200 years ago, German doctor Samuel Hahnemann formed the organization.
How long ago was homoeopathy created?The oldest kind of alternative medicine to emerge from Europe is homoeopathy, which was developed in 1796 by Samuel Hahnemann. Because it was mainly ineffectual and frequently harmful, Hahnemann condemned the conventional medicine of the late 18th century as being irrational and unadvisable.
How long has homoeopathy been practiced?A more than 200-year-old medical system called homoeopathy was created in Germany. It is based on two unorthodox theories: "Like cures like"—the idea that an illness can be treated with a chemical that causes symptoms identical to those of the condition in healthy individuals.
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What is the ICD-10 code for left shoulder?
ICD-10-CM code M25. 812, which specifies a diagnostic for financial reimbursement, is in fact a billable/specific code. The 2023 update to ICD-10-CM M25. 812 became effective on 1st august, 2022.
Why do people utilise ICD-10-CM?
All healthcare settings employ the ICD-10 morbidity categorization system to group diagnoses and the causes of visits. The United States is where it was created. The ICD-10-CM is based on the World Health Group's statistical classification of disorders (WHO).
What are the two primary parts of the ICD-10-CM?
The Icd-10 code manual is divided into three books. In Volume I, there is a tabular index. Again, Volume II contains the alphabetical index. Volume III contains a list of treatment numbers that are only used in hospitals.
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What is the ICD-10 code for weakness and debility?
R53. 1 is a billable/specific ICD-10-CM code that can be used to indicate a diagnosis for reimbursement purposes.
What are the examples of reimbursement?Some common examples of reimbursements are reimbursements of business expenses like travel or food expenses, reimbursements made by insurance companies to the insured person for their medical bills, or reimbursements made to a person who makes a purchase on behalf of a third party.
Is reimbursement a benefit?A healthcare reimbursement plan is a benefit where employers reimburse their employees for medical expenses. This differs from traditional group health plan coverage because the employer makes a benefit allowance available instead of choosing and administering a group health insurance policy from a carrier.
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What type of cholesterol makes steroids?
The cholesterol type that makes up the steroids is LDL.
Steroids are the artificial version of the natural hormones present inside the body of animals and humans. Steroids are classified into three categories: Sex hormones, Corticosteroids, and Anabolic steroids. The steroids are required for normal growth, metabolism, homeostasis and reproduction.
LDL is the abbreviated form of Low Density Lipids. It is the bad version of cholesterol inside the body of animals and humans. High levels of LDL are known to cause serious disease of the heart and liver. The average optimal value of LDL in a healthy adult is: Less than 100 mg/dL.
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Which drug would the nurse expect to depress respiratory rate and depth? (select all that apply) 1. Cocaine 2. Amphetamines 3. Opioid analgesics
The nurse would expect opioid analgesics to depress respiratory rate and depth, the correct option is 3.
Opioid analgesics work by binding to opioid receptors in the brain and spinal cord, which can cause respiratory depression as a side effect. This effect is due to the opioid's ability to suppress the brainstem's respiratory center, leading to a decrease in the rate and depth of breathing.
Therefore, patients taking opioids should be closely monitored for signs of respiratory depression. Cocaine and amphetamines, on the other hand, are stimulants that typically increase respiratory rate and depth. They work by activating the sympathetic nervous system, which can increase heart rate, blood pressure, and respiratory rate.
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Possessing a vape with thc on school property is a:_______
A. Juvenile drug charges. A student may be charged with juvenile drug offences if marijuana or another form of THC is discovered in their possession, or if they are found to have traces of it in a vape pen.
The majority of school vaping incidents will take place there. State law mandates that a student be expelled from school if they are discovered using, possessing, or selling a controlled substance like marijuana (or THC in other forms). The student can end up in a juvenile court system school with strict discipline. Even if the school lacks the means to establish that a vape pen was utilised for drug usage, students who possess one risk suspension or expulsion.
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Possessing a vape with thc on school property is a:
a. Juvenile drug charges.
b. Fines upto $500.
c. punishment by faculty.
d. no action.
In which sleep stage does heart rate and breathing increase?
Answer:
in rapid eye movement sleep
when bob walks, he has straight and tall posture. is bob using the correct form?
Yes, Bob has correct form. The realisation that walking involves more than just placing one foot in front of the other often shocks people.
In reality, a little skill can go a long way towards improving the effectiveness and enjoyment of your walks. Technique is crucial if you want to walk quicker and farther, which can help you get fitter and reduce weight. Your muscles will have more range of motion while you are standing tall, which will result in a stronger stride. You'll look and feel more confident as well as seem thinner before you lose a single pound by correcting your walking posture. Also, you'll be able to take deep breathes for increased vitality and it will aid with aches and pains.
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The nurse is irrigating an acid chemical burn on a client's arm. Which would indicate to the nurse that irrigation can be stopped?
1. Client's pain rating has decreased from 6 to 2 on a 0 to 10 pain scale.
2. The pH value of the runoff solution is 7.0.
3. Client reports a burning sensation in the affected arm.
4. Capillary refill is less than 2 seconds in the affected arm.
The nurse is irrigating an acid chemical burn on a client's arm.The pH value of the runoff solution is 7.0 indicate to the nurse that irrigation can be stopped.
What is acid chemical?
An acid chemical is a substance that has acidic properties, which means it has a low pH level. Acid chemicals can cause damage to living tissue by breaking down or corroding the cells and tissues they come into contact with.
Examples of common acid chemicals that can cause burns or skin damage include sulfuric acid, hydrochloric acid, and nitric acid, among others. Acid chemicals can be found in a variety of settings, including laboratories, industrial settings, and even in household cleaning products. It is important to handle acid chemicals with care and follow proper safety procedures to avoid injury and damage to living tissues.
2. The pH value of the runoff solution is 7.0.
Irrigation of a chemical burn is important to remove any remaining chemicals and prevent further tissue damage. The pH of the runoff solution is an indicator of whether the chemical has been neutralized and thoroughly irrigated. A pH of 7.0 indicates a neutral solution, which means that the chemical has been removed and the irrigation can be stopped.
The other options are not suitable indicators to stop irrigation. Pain relief does not necessarily mean that the chemical has been removed or the tissue damage has been prevented. A burning sensation reported by the client indicates that the chemical is still present and causing damage. Capillary refill time is an indicator of tissue perfusion and not a reliable indicator to stop irrigation in chemical burns.
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what criteria does the braden scale evaluate
Braden Scale is used for Predicting Pressure Sore Risk and it was used to foster early identification of patients with risk of developing pressure sores.
In general , the Barden scale is composed of six subscales which reflect the sensory perception like skin moisture, activity, mobility, friction and shear, and nutritional status. Braden Scale must be utilized every time after the patient is admitted and then once daily and health care provider should keep a note at the changing skin condition if any .
The value of lower Braden score is indicative of a higher levels of risk for pressure ulcer development. Also, a score of 18 or less would indicates the risky condition .
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Which action is the most effective in minimizing the risk of contamination when using sterile liquids during a sterile procedure? A. Touch only the outer 1½ -inch margin of the sterile field unless you are wearing sterile gloves. B. Assess the patient for any known allergies to the sterile solution. C. Compare the label of the solution with the specific solution necessary for the procedure. D. Avoid splashing when pouring sterile liquids onto the sterile field.
A. The best way to reduce the risk of contamination while utilising sterile liquids during a sterile procedure is to only touch the outer 1 1/2-inch border of the sterile field, unless you are wearing sterile gloves.
How can something that is supposed to be sterile get contaminated?Conner states that a sterile object can get contaminated if someone touches it, a non-sterile surface touches it, or another vector comes into contact with it.
Which factor contaminates sterile products the most frequently?It is crucial to remember that among other things, manufacturing machinery and equipment, shoddy facility design, pharmaceutical staff, production materials, and HVAC systems are the main sources of contamination for sterile products.
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The nurse supports and facilitates clients in their use of cultural practices when such cultural practices are not harmful to clients, for example the practice of home burial of the placenta. What is this called?
Religion and spirituality are among the most frequent cultural concerns that nurses encounter.
Because of their religious convictions, some religious organisations may refuse to receive prescription drugs, blood transfusions, surgery, or even other potentially life-saving procedures. Communicating in simple language that the patient can follow and comprehend. a patient's religious background and beliefs are not disparaged or judged, but rather encouraged to follow their own path. demonstrating constant empathy for the patient. Religion and spirituality are among the most frequent cultural concerns that nurses encounter.The nurse's responsibilities in end-of-life treatment include giving each patient tailored, culturally appropriate care. As was previously said, the care given to patients in their dying hours will live on in the memories of the family members who've been present.
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