A doctor on the team is heard making a false remark about a sick patient by a nurse working in the emergency room.
Which tasks may the registered nurse effectively assign to a knowledgeable LPN?
The RN may assign the LPN to take care of stable patients with established ostomies (LPN). (Choose 1) The RN may assign the LPN to conduct particular assessments. The LPN concentrates on gathering information and separating out normal from aberrant findings.
Can an RN release a patient?
Discharging patients from the hospital is a difficult process that is fraught with dangers such as liability exposure. To ensure that the patient receives the same high-quality medical care, nurse-led discharge has acquired widespread acceptability in many developed countries.
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A nurse must give two ophthalmic medications to the same client. What step should the nurse take?
a) Check with the physician to see if a single medication to treat both problems is available instead.
b) Instill both in one eye and then both in the other.
c) Put both medications in the dropper at once.
d) Wait 1 to 5 minutes after administering the first drug before delivering the second.
The step that nurse should take is: d) Wait 1 to 5 minutes after administering the first drug before delivering the second.
What are the nursing procedures for giving medications that are considered to be the most crucial?Assessment, nursing diagnosis, planning and creating care objectives, treatments, and evaluation as it relates to medication administration are the five steps of the nursing process. The following guidelines are followed by the nurse: Consistently adhere to the "rights" surrounding the administration of drugs.
How much time should pass between taking two medications?Try to space out your dose times throughout the day as evenly as possible. For instance, every 12 hours for a medication that must be given twice daily, or every 8 hours for a medication that needs to be taken three times a day.
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which statement(s) regarding critical pathways is/are true? (select all that apply.) efficient for specific diseases or case types the same as medical plans standardized and enhanced quality care evaluated less frequently than care plans enhanced communication for a variety of health care providers
The correct options are:
Efficient for specific diseases or case typesThe same as medical plansStandardized and enhanced quality careEnhanced communication for a variety of health care providers.What is communication?
Communication is the exchange of information or ideas between individuals or groups. It is an essential part of human interaction and is necessary for successful relationships and achieving common goals. Effective communication involves both verbal and nonverbal elements, such as tone of voice, body language, and written or spoken language. Communication can occur in various settings, including personal relationships, social groups, business environments, and healthcare settings. Good communication skills are essential in building relationships, promoting teamwork, and achieving success in various aspects of life.To know more about communication, click the link given below:
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Which factor identified by the nurse while obtaining the client's health history predisposes a client to type 2 diabetes?
1. Having diabetes insipidus
2. Eating low cholesterol foods
3. Being twenty pounds overweight
4. Drinking a daily alcoholic beverage
Being twenty pounds overweight predisposes a client to type 2 diabetes.
What is type 2 diabetes?Type 2 diabetes is a chronic condition in which the body becomes resistant to insulin or is unable to produce enough insulin to regulate blood sugar levels effectively. This results in elevated levels of glucose in the blood, which can lead to a range of health problems, including heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, and nerve damage.
What are some risk factors for type 2 diabetes?Risk factors for type 2 diabetes include being overweight or obese, having a family history of diabetes, being physically inactive, having high blood pressure or high cholesterol, and being over the age of 45. Other factors that may increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes include a history of gestational diabetes, polycystic ovary syndrome, or metabolic syndrome, as well as certain ethnic and racial backgrounds. Additionally, lifestyle factors such as a poor diet, smoking, and excessive alcohol consumption can also increase the risk of developing type 2 diabetes.
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?How do you treat an inflammation of the plantar fascia on the sole of the foot?
Plantar fasciitis is a common condition that causes inflammation of the plantar fascia, a band of tissue that runs along the bottom of the foot. To treat plantar fasciitis, the following steps can be taken:
As per the question given,
Rest: Avoid activities that put stress on the foot, such as running or jumping.Ice: Apply ice to the affected area for 15-20 minutes at a time, several times a day.Stretching: Stretching exercises can help to loosen the plantar fascia and reduce pain.Supportive footwear: Wear shoes with good arch support and cushioning.Physical therapy: A physical therapist can help to develop a stretching and strengthening program tailored to the individual's needs.Medication: Over-the-counter pain relievers such as ibuprofen or acetaminophen may be used to relieve pain and reduce inflammation.In severe cases, a corticosteroid injection may be used to reduce inflammation. Surgery is rarely needed but may be an option in cases that do not respond to other treatments.
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A gerontological nurse is highly aware of the changes in pharmacokinetics that accompany the aging process. What phenomenon is primarily responsible for these changes?
A) Hemodynamic changes
B) Increased prevalence of chronic diseases
C) Changes in cognition, including concentration and decision-making ability
D) Decreased function of vital organs
The principal cause of these alterations is the phenomenon of decreased critical organ function
What physiologic alteration brought on by normal aging might influence how a senior reacts to medication?Increased body fat, decreased body water, decreased muscle mass, and altered renal, hepatic, and central nervous system function are only a few examples of these physiological alterations. Older adults who experience these changes may experience adverse drug reactions (ADRs).Which of the following physiologic changes brought on by aging may have an impact on how well medications are absorbed?Age-related physiological characteristics that may impact drug absorption include slower gastrointestinal tract motility, delayed stomach emptying time, and altered stomach pH.
How can aging affect the pharmacokinetics process?Age-related changes in first-pass metabolism are known to reduce medication bioavailability to some extent. Lean body mass decreases while total body water and body fat percentages rise with aging.learn more about pharmacokinetics here
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drugs administered using which of the following methods can enter the blood almost as quickly as intravenous injection?
Parenteral Route of Medication
Intravenous injection is the most frequent parental route of medication administration and has the advantage of bypassing the first-pass metabolism through the liver.
Which of the following routes has the quickest absorption into the bloodstream?Intravenous (IV)
Injection straight into the systemic circulation is the most frequent parenteral route.
It is the fastest and most sure and managed way. It bypasses absorption obstacles and first-pass metabolism. It is used when a fast effect is required, non-stop administraction and large volumes.
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When parents read rhyming stories, such as those written by Dr. Suess, to their children, their
A) children's phonological awareness decreases.
B) children usually become bored and learn to dislike reading.
C) children may become more interested in reading and will learn from it.
D) children learn how to read easier.
When parents read rhyming stories, such as those written by Dr. Suess, to their children, their children learn how to read easier, which means option D is correct.
The poems are an important part of cognitive growth and learning in the early life of children as they not only learn how the words are linked to one another but also the correct pronunciation which otherwise seems difficult to them. Different poems have different themes which attracts them to learn new concept and get familiar to new ideas and also relate them with things around them. Rhymes help the children in increasing phonemic awareness. The new sound and language formation is part of brain development. It also improves their memory concentration.
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What would you expect to happen to the incidence and prevalence of a disease if a new drug were discovered that prevented mortality from the disease but did not cure it?
a. Incidence unchanged, prevalence increases
b. Incidence increases, prevalence decreases
c. Incidence decreases, prevalence increases
d. Incidence decreases, prevalence unchanged
Incidence is unchanged, and prevalence increases. It is common to conflate prevalence and incidence. When a patient is treated for their illness or passes away, the prevalence changes.
While incidence refers to the percentage of people who develop an illness within a specific time period, prevalence describes the proportion of people who have a condition at or during that time.
A higher prevalence can indicate a longer time without a cure, more new instances, or both. A lower prevalence can indicate a quick recovery, fewer new cases, or a higher death rate than cure rate.
In contrast to incidence, which is confined to new instances only, prevalence covers all cases both new and old in the population at the stated time.
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A client is being discharged home after having a mastectomy. What discharge instructions should the nurse teach the client and family?
Select all that apply
1. Perform arm exercises as directed.
2. Take medications for pain as soon as pain begins.
3. Wash hands only after touching the incision area or drains.
4. Call your health care provider if inflammation of the incision or swelling of the incision or the arm occurs.
5. Avoid driving, lifting more than 10 pounds, or reaching above your head until given permission by the surgeon.
6. Empty surgical drains once a day and as needed, recording the amount in each drain, the date, and time, and bring to your follow-up appointment.
Fill surgical drains once a day and as needed, record the amount in each drain, the date, and the time, and bring it to your follow-up appointment.
What exactly is a mastectomy?
The medical term for medically removing one or both breasts is a mastectomy. Mastectomy surgery is frequently used to treat breast cancer. In some instances, the procedure may be used as a preventive measure for women who are thought to be at a high risk of getting breast cancer.
Some women might want a lumpectomy, also known as a wide local excision, in which a small amount of breast tissue containing the tumor and a border of healthy tissue around it is removed to preserve the breast.
Mastectomy and lumpectomy are both referred to as "local therapies" for breast cancer since they focus on the tumor's site rather than systemic treatments like chemotherapy, hormone therapy, or immunotherapy.
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The nurse is reviewing the plan of care for assigned clients. Which client has the highest risk for developing an infection?
a school-age child who is current with immunizations
an older adult client with a history of heart failure
a middle-aged adult who takes prescribed medication to control blood pressure
an adolescent who has a right radial fracture
Infections that patients contract as a result of receiving medical care are known as healthcare associated infections (HAIs).
Which of the following patients is susceptible to infection?
Certain patients are more at risk than others; for example, infections are more likely to spread to small children, the elderly, and people with weakened immune systems. Other risk factors include protracted hospital stays, the use of indwelling catheters, healthcare workers who don't wash their hands, and excessive antibiotic usage.
At a medical facility, who is most vulnerable to infection?
During treatment, individuals and healthcare professionals frequently engage more closely than they do in community settings. Furthermore, those who are already sick or weak are more likely to be susceptible to infection.
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The nurse learns that a client with a seizure disorder has a serum phenytoin level of 35 mcg/ml. Which action does the nurse take first?
1. Ask to repeat the serum phenytoin level in morning.
2. Lower the bed and apply foam padding around the bed.
3. Inform the health care provider and expect a change in the phenytoin order.
4. Ensure suction is at the bedside.
The nurse takes the first action as Informing the health care provider and expecting a change in the phenytoin order.
What is the significance of a high serum phenytoin level in a client with a seizure disorder?A high serum phenytoin level can cause toxicity, leading to symptoms such as dizziness, confusion, and ataxia.
What are the nursing implications when caring for a client with a high serum phenytoin level?The nurse should ensure that the client's airway is clear and that suction is available at the bedside in case of aspiration. The nurse should also notify the healthcare provider and expect a change in the phenytoin order, such as a dosage reduction.
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The nurse is caring for a client with rectal bleeding. The nurse will place the client into which position to facilitate rectal examination?
a. supine b. prone c. Fowler's d. Sims'
During a rectal examination, a doctor or nurse will use their finger to feel inside your bottom for any issues (rectum). You shouldn't experience any pain, and it normally happens fairly quickly.
When assessing the client's care, which step should the nurse take first?The first step is assessment, which calls for the use of critical thinking abilities and the gathering of both subjective and objective facts. Spoken statements from the patient or caretaker are considered subjective data. Vital signs, intake and output, as well as height and weight, are examples of objective data that can be measured and is palpable.
Which position is appropriate for the perineal and rectal exams?Legs extended, butt raised in the air, head down. The patient is lying down on the table with the head and knee lifted for rectal examination. Anus and the pilonidal region.
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which service may be available as part of a residential treatment program
Participants in residential treatment programmes could also receive vocational training, training for daily living skills, psychoeducation about the disease process and drugs.
Which element falls under the category of psychoeducation?
Cognitive-behavior therapy, group therapy, and education are all combined in psychoeducation. The main objective is to educate patients and their families about the various aspects of the condition and its management so that they may collaborate with mental health specialists for a better overall result.
Which service is most likely to be provided by the community health nurse?
The prevention and treatment of mental illness are the primary responsibilities of the community health nurse in mental health care.
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Which is the role of the nurse explaining the reason for the intravenous infusion and kit to the client? 1. Educator 2. Manager 3. Advocate 4. Caregiver.
The role of the nurse explaining the reason for the intravenous infusion and kit to the client is "educator". Hence is the correct option is Option 1.
One of the most important roles of a nurse is to educate patients and their families about the medical treatments and procedures they will be undergoing. This involves describing why the intravenous infusion and kit are needed, how to use them, and any potential side effects or hazards. The nurse assists clients in making educated decisions about their health and enhances their ability to participate in self-care by offering education. Therefore the correct answer is option 1 - educator
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who issues requests for compounding pharmacies to mix special preparations?
Physician demands that compounding pharmacies combine particular preparations.
A drug may be compounded for a patient who cannot be treated with an FDA-approved medication, such as a patient who is allergic to a specific dye and requires a medication that does not contain it, or an elderly patient or a child who cannot swallow a tablet or capsule and requires a medicine in liquid dosage form. When an FDA-approved medicine is not medically appropriate to treat a patient, practitioners in hospitals, clinics, and other health care institutions may give compounded pharmaceuticals. Compounding can fill a critical patient need in certain cases. Unfortunately, some compounders engage in behaviors that may endanger patients or jeopardies the medication approval process. For example, the FDA has discovered that some compounders have made fraudulent claims making false representations that compounded pharmaceuticals are safe and effective, sometimes for the treatment of serious ailments, by wrongly implying the drugs meet the FDA approval criteria.
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what are the major goals of prenatal care? select all that apply
A. Promote the health of the mother, fetus, newborn, and family
B. Ensure a safe birth by promoting good health habits and reducing risk factors
C. Teach health habits that may be continued after pregnancy
D. Educate in self-care for pregnancy
The major objectives of prenatal care are A, B, C, and D.
The major goals of prenatal careA key of prenatal care is to advance the health of the mother, fetus, baby, and family. This entails keeping an eye on the mother's and the fetus's health, spotting and handling any health issues or complications, and offering the mother and family support and information.Another key objective of prenatal treatment is to ensure safe delivery by encouraging healthy lifestyle choices and lowering risk factors. This entails encouraging exercise, supporting good eating choices, and lowering or quitting any dangerous activities like smoking and alcohol consumption.Another aim of prenatal treatment is to impart healthy habits that may be maintained after pregnancy. This entails teaching the mother on the value of carrying on with a balanced diet, regular exercise, and other healthy behaviors after the delivery of the child.learn more about prenatal care here
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a fast time and relatively low heart rate at the end of a 1-mile walk test indicates a high level of cardiorespiratory endurance group of answer choices true false
A fast time and relatively low heart rate at the end of a 1-mile walk test indicates a high level of cardiorespiratory endurance this statement is False.
What is Cardiorespiratory endurance?
Cardiorespiratory endurance refers to the ability of the circulatory and respiratory systems to supply oxygen to the working muscles during physical activity and to eliminate waste products, allowing for sustained physical activity. It is an important component of physical fitness and is typically assessed through activities that elevate heart rate and breathing, such as running, cycling, or swimming.
A fast time and relatively low heart rate at the end of a 1-mile walk test is generally considered an indicator of high cardiorespiratory endurance. This is because cardiorespiratory endurance is a measure of the ability of the heart, lungs, and circulatory system to supply oxygen and energy to the muscles during prolonged physical activity.
If a person has high Cardiorespiratory endurance it means their body is efficient at delivering oxygen and energy to the muscles, which allows them to sustain physical activity for longer periods of time without experiencing fatigue or exhaustion.
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Which term describes something that pertains to the shoulder?
-A. emoral
B. acromial
C ventral
D. vertebral
The word "acromial" refers to something that has to do with the shoulder.
What part of the body is the acromial area?Your scapula's top outer edge is known as the acromion (shoulder blade).It is situated above the glenohumeral joint and joins your clavicle (collarbone) to form the acromioclavicular joint.Acromial end: What does that mean?The acromial end (also known as the acromial extremity) has a tiny, obliquely downward-directed oval surface for articulation with the acromion of the scapula. For the acromioclavicular ligaments to adhere, the articular facet's perimeter is rough, especially above.What makes it an acromial?In terms of human anatomy, the acromion is a bony projection on the scapula (from Greek: akros, "highest," "shoulder," plural: acromia) (shoulder blade). It extends lateral to the shoulder joint over the coracoid process.learn more about acromial here
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Which agency developed the Bloodborne Pathogens Standard?- OSHA- FDA- CDC- Congress
The Bloodborne Pathogens standard was published by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) on December 6, 1991.
The Occupational Exposure to Bloodborne Pathogens Standard Regulation was created by the Occupational Safety and Health Administration (OSHA) to lessen or completely eliminate the risk of an employee contracting any of a number of illnesses that are spread through blood or other potentially infectious materials. The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act of 2000, establishes protections to defend employees against health risks associated with bloodborne infections. The risk of exposure to blood, body fluids including visible blood, and other fluids to which universal precautions apply is decreased through protective barriers.
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what is the practicing nurse’s most important source of researchable problems?
A practicing nurse's most important source of researchable problems is nurse's own clinical practices.
Nurse is a certified person in the healthcare profession who is skilled to take care of the sick, injured and old people as well as assist the doctors in treating the patients. The nurse form the backbone of the healthcare sector as they are involved in providing high quality health services.
Clinical practices are the practical application of the healthcare knowledge that any certified person gains through the study and courses. It involves carrying out the medical practices upon the clients or patients according to their needs or body conditions.
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The nurse is teaching the parents of a 9-year-old girl about the socialization that is
occurring in their child through school contacts. Which information would the nurse include in her teaching plan?
A) Teachers are the most influential people in the development of the school-age
child's social network.
B) Continuous peer relationships provide the most important social interaction for
school-age children.
C) Parents should establish norms and standards that signify acceptance or rejection.
D) A characteristic of school-age children is their formation of groups with no rules
and values involved.
For youngsters of school age, ongoing peer interactions offer the most crucial social contact.
The correct option is B.
How do you describe a nurse?From the time of birth to the age of life, nurses are present in every community, big and small. Nurses do a variety of duties, from providing direct attention to patients and managing cases to setting nursing practise standards, creating quality control processes, and managing intricate nursing care systems.
What attire do nurses wear?Scrubs are typically worn by nurses in the workplace. Scrubs are straightforward uniforms that are simple to sanitise. There are more colourful choices available, however they frequently feature neutral colours that assist patients recognise the nurses (and nurses identify stains).
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What is characteristic of mechanical obstruction?
The hallmark signs of a mechanical bowel blockage, regardless of the underlying etiology, are abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and diminished bowel sounds.
What is mechanical obstruction?A partial or total obstruction of the gut is referred to as a mechanical intestinal obstruction.
It can occur anywhere along the intestines, but the small bowel is where it most frequently occurs.
The large bowel is located lower in the intestines, whereas the small bowel is located higher up.
Mechanical compression that occurs intraluminally or extraluminally can result in mechanical small bowel blockage.
Adhesion is the most frequent cause in affluent nations, followed by hernias, cancer, and several other inflammatory and infectious diseases.
Regardless of the underlying cause, abdominal discomfort, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and reduced bowel sounds are the cardinal symptoms of mechanical bowel blockage.
Therefore, the hallmark signs of a mechanical bowel blockage, regardless of the underlying etiology, are abdominal pain, vomiting, constipation, abdominal distention, and diminished bowel sounds.
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Which arrow is pointing to the LCL (lifting condensation level)? a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E. d. D.
The correct answer is c.C. The arrow labeled C is pointing to the LCL (Lifting Condensation Level).
What is arrow?An arrow is a type of projectile that is launched via a bow. Arrows have been used since ancient times as weapons, tools, and even as symbolic objects. The arrow consists of a shaft with an arrowhead attached to the front end, with fletching and a nock at the other end. The arrowhead is usually made of metal and can have a variety of shapes and sizes. The fletching is usually made of feathers and is designed to stabilize the arrow in flight. The nock is a small notch at the back of the arrow for attaching it to the bowstring.
The LCL is defined as the height in the atmosphere at which a parcel of air becomes warmer than its environment and begins to rise, resulting in condensation and the formation of clouds.
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the complete question is
Which arrow is pointing to the LFC (Level of Free Convection)?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
The arrow labeled C is pointing to the LCL (Lifting Condensation Level). The correct answer is c) C.
What is arrow?An arrow is a type of projectile that is launched via a bow. Arrows have been used since ancient times as weapons, tools, and even as symbolic objects. The arrow consists of a shaft with an arrowhead attached to the front end, with fletching and a nock at the other end. The arrowhead is usually made of metal and can have a variety of shapes and sizes. The fletching is usually made of feathers and is designed to stabilize the arrow in flight. The nock is a small notch at the back of the arrow for attaching it to the bowstring.
The LCL is defined as the height in the atmosphere at which a parcel of air becomes warmer than its environment and begins to rise, resulting in condensation and the formation of clouds.
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The complete question is
Which arrow is pointing to the LFC (Level of Free Convection)?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
The nurse is explaining the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act to a group of new employees. What should the nurse include when explaining its purpose? Select all that apply.
a.Protects health insurance benefits
b.Provides transferability of insurance to others
c.Protects family members
d.Protects those with preexisting conditions
e. Provides personal health information privacy
Health insurance protect health insurance benefits, pre-existing conditions, and personal health information privacy. So, the correct options are A, D and E.
What is Health Insurance?Health insurance or medical insurance is defined as the type of insurance that covers the whole or a part of the risk of a person incurring medical expenses as with other types of insurance the risk is shared among several persons.
Health insurance protect health insurance benefits, pre-existing conditions, and personal health information privacy.
Therefore, the correct options are A, D and E.
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chris identify and prioritize the findings that require immediate follow-up by the nurse. what is the priority action the nurse should perform to address the client’s prioritized findings? ati
Assessment of the client's situation should be the priority action of the nurse.
What is the primary action approach?Emergency medical services employ the priority action approach (PAA) method all around the world. Primary assessment, crucial interventions, secondary assessment, and therapy are the steps involved.
Problems or difficulties that indicate important findings, clinical worsening, or are life-threatening require immediate attention and fall under the category of first-level priorities for care. When something is urgent, it calls for immediate action.
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a patient received intravenous (IV) push of ceftriaxone sodium antibiotic 250 mg through an existing IV line. the IV was flushed with normal saling before and after administration of the antibiotic to check for patency and to clear the IV line
Flushing an IV line with normal saline before and after medication administration is a common practice that helps to ensure the patency of the line and prevent medication incompatibilities and infections. It is important for nurses to follow this practice to ensure patient safety and medication effectiveness.
It is common practice to flush an IV line with normal saline before and after administering medication to ensure patency of the line and to clear the line of any residual medication or blood. In this scenario, the patient received an intravenous (IV) push of ceftriaxone sodium antibiotic 250 mg through an existing IV line, and the IV line was flushed with normal saline before and after the administration of the antibiotic.
By flushing the IV line with normal saline before and after the administration of the antibiotic, the nurse helps to prevent medication incompatibilities and reduce the risk of infection. Flushing the line before the administration of the medication helps to clear any blood or medication that may be present in the line, which could interfere with the effectiveness of the medication or cause an adverse reaction. Flushing the line after the administration of the medication helps to clear any residual medication from the line, which could accumulate and cause an overdose.
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Which age-related changes predispose the elderly patient to drug toxicity and extended duration of action of drugs? (Select all that apply.)
A. Decreased body water
B. Increased ratio of muscle to fat
C. Low serum albumin
D. Reduced blood flow to liver
The age-related changes that predispose the elderly patient to drug toxicity and extended duration of action of drugs include option A, C & D.
A. Decreased body water: As people age, they tend to have less body water, which can lead to higher drug concentrations in the body and an increased risk of drug toxicity.
C. Low serum albumin: Serum albumin is a blood protein that binds to many drugs and aids in their transport throughout the body. Serum albumin levels may decrease as people age, resulting in higher concentrations of free (unbound) drugs in the body and an increased risk of drug toxicity.
D. Reduced blood flow to the liver: Because the liver is in charge of drug metabolism, decreased blood flow to the liver can result in slower drug metabolism and elimination. This can result in prolonged drug action and an increased risk of drug toxicity.
As a result, options A, C, and D are correct. Increased muscle-to-fat ratio (option B) is not an age-related change that predisposes the elderly patient to drug toxicity or drug duration of action.
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What are the two layers of the dermis?
When preparing a client for a liver biopsy, the nurse explains that during the test the client will be placed in what position?
1 In the supine position, with the right arm raised behind the head
2 On the right side, with the left arm stretched up and over the head
3 On the left side, with the right arm extended out in front across the bed
4 In the prone position, with both elbows flexed and the hands resting on the pillow
The supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible during the liver biopsy. So, the correct option is A.
What is Liver biopsy?Liver biopsy is defined as the biopsy of the liver, which is a medical test performed to aid in the diagnosis of liver disease, to assess the severity of liver disease, and to monitor the progress of treatment. This is described as the procedure which involves taking a small piece of liver tissue for examination with a microscope for signs of damage or disease.
During liver biopsy, the supine position with the right arm raised behind the head exposes the right intercostal space which makes the large right lobe of the liver accessible.
Thus, the correct option is A.
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the right to an accounting of disclosures of phi allows patients to ask to see what disclosures have been made during the past _____ years.
According to the Privacy Rule, a person has the right to ask for a list of all PHI disclosures made by a covered entity.
What is a PHI disclosure accounting?
In cases where a covered entity has disclosed a person's protected health information ("PHI"), that person has the right to request a written record ("an accounting") under the HIPAA Privacy Regulation. The accounting must include all covered disclosures made during the six years before the request date.
When is the patient's consent required for the use and disclosure of PHI?
The patient's consent is required if the covered entity wants to use or disclose PHI for purposes other than treatment, payment, or health care operations, unless the use or disclosure is required by law.
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