The nurse would palpate the posterior tibialis artery, which is situated behind the medial malleolus, the bony protrusion on the inside of the ankle, to check for the presence of the posterior tibialis pulse.
The location of the posterior tibial pulseBelow and beneath the medial malleolus, one can feel the posterior tibial pulse. To feel for the popliteal pulse, gently flex the knee and deeply palpate the popliteal fossa in the midline.
Where on the foot is the pulse located?Look for the posterior tibial pulse, which is situated behind the medial malleolus, the ankle bone, or the dorsalis pedis pulse, which is positioned on the top of the foot.
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What does the nurse understand the term in-service education to mean?
1
It helps achieve an organization's required competencies.
2
It helps the nurse gain knowledge about traditional health care practices.
3
It is a one-way education program to promote and maintain current nursing skills.
4
It is focused on techniques and technologies that have been used successfully in the past.
According to the given statement It helps achieve an organization's required competencies.
The correct option is 1.
Who is a nurse in simple word?A nurse is indeed a person who has received special training in caring for the ill and injured. In order to treat patients and keep them healthy and active, nurses collaborate with physicians and other healthcare professionals. Also, nurses provide end-of-life care and support for bereaved family members.
Are nurses capable of operating?Nurses cannot do surgical procedures by themselves. Nurses can perform a range of tasks before, during, and following surgical procedures. Consider seeking more education or training to get the career you really desire.
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a patient tells the nurse, "i was straining to have a bowel movement and felt like i was going to faint. i took my pulse and it was so slow." what does the nurse understand occurred with this patient?
The nurse can understand that the patient experienced a vagal response during straining to have a bowel movement. This can lead to a sudden decrease in heart rate, resulting in the feeling of faintness.
The vagus nerve, which controls heart rate, can be stimulated during the straining of a bowel movement, causing a drop in heart rate. This response is also known as vasovagal syncope. The nurse should further assess the patient's vital signs and provide education on ways to avoid triggering a vagal response during bowel movements, such as avoiding straining and increasing fluid and fiber intake.
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the client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of suspected hodgkin's disease. which signs and symptoms of the client are associated with hodgkin's disease? select all that apply. 1. Fatigue 2.Joint pain 3. Weakness 4. Weight gain 5. Night sweats 6. enlarged lymph nodes
After a diagnosis of suspected Hodgkin's disease, the patient is admitted to the hospital. The signs and symptoms of the client's Hodgkin's disease include tachycardia, weakness, and night sweats.
What is a disease of Hodgkin's?A alteration (mutation) in the DNA of a class of white blood cell known as B lymphocytes results in Hodgkin lymphoma. This doesn't happen for a known reason. The DNA provides the cells with a fundamental set of instructions, including when to divide and expand. These instructions are altered by the Genetic mutation, causing the cells to continue to grow and reproduce uncontrollably.
One or more lymph nodes in a certain region of the body, such as your neck or groyne, are typically where the aberrant cells start to multiply. Although the original mutation that results in Hodgkin lymphoma has an unknown cause, there are a number of things that can make you more likely to get the disease.
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Indicate the level of prevention that is represented in each question
"Rehab houses for persons recovering from addiction"
A. Primary Prevention Active
B. Primary Prevention Passive
C. Secondary Prevention
D. Tertiary Prevention
A representation of the level of prevention (Tertiary Prevention)
What dosages do preventative medications have?Three categories of drug misuse prevention measures can be identified based on a public health model: primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.
How much of a preventative measure is dietary counseling?Generally speaking, nutrition therapy is advised for primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention.
What is prevention at the primary level?Primary Prevention refers to efforts such as immunizations, changing risky behaviors (bad eating habits, tobacco use), and outlawing drugs that are known to be linked to a disease or health condition in order to intervene before adverse health impacts arise.
Which of the following is a nurse's tertiary preventive example?Examples include the use of insulin to treat diabetes, penicillin to treat pneumococcal pneumonia, Cardiovascular exercise programs, drug therapy, and alcohol and drug rehab centers.
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what are the signs of adrenal gland problems in females
Adrenal problems in women can cause a variety of symptoms depending on the type of adrenal disease. Some possible symptoms of adrenal problems in women include:
As per the question given,
Fatigue and weaknessMuscle weaknessAbdominal pain and crampsChanges in appetite and weightHigh blood pressureIrregular periods or menstrual cyclesExcessive growth or hair lossMood swings including depression, anxiety, or irritabilityLow libido or sexual dysfunctionDesire for salt and increased thirstThese symptoms can be caused by a variety of adrenal disorders, including adrenal insufficiency, Cushing's syndrome, and adrenal tumors. If a woman experiences any of these symptoms, she should see a doctor for a proper diagnosis and treatment plan. Early diagnosis and treatment of adrenal problems can help prevent serious complications and improve quality of life.
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what if you get pinworms in a mouthtooth cavity
You can disregard the notion that a tooth worm created a cavity if you find out that you have one. The best strategy to cure dental caries, regardless of the underlying reason, is to schedule a restoration procedure with your dentist as soon as you can.
Can you get rid of a tooth worm?
The only way they could get rid of the tooth worm from inside the tooth was to extract the entire tooth, so they naturally tried to do that.
Can parasites enter inside your teeth?
Rarely detected in tonsils, Entamoeba gingivalis typically inhabits the gingival tissues surrounding teeth and gums. Nonpathogenic parasites feed on food scraps, microorganisms, food epithelial tissues, and other sources.
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The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old in a clinic setting. The child is due for a scheduled immunization. Which approach is the best for the nurse to take when administering the IM injection?
A) Tell the child to hold very still and be very quiet during the injection.
B) Ask the child if the nurse can give the injection now.
C) Tell the child it won't hurt a bit.
D) Allow the child to pick which arm the injection will go in.
D) In a clinic scenario, the nurse is tending to a 5-year-old. The child is due for a prearranged vaccine. The best method for giving the IM injection is to let the youngster choose which arm it will go in.
Describe IM injection.A method for getting a drug deep inside the muscles is by intramuscular injection. Faster absorption of the medicine into the bloodstream is made possible by this. The previous time you got a vaccine, like the flu shot, you might have had an intramuscular injection at a doctor's office. Intramuscular injections can occasionally be given by the patient themselves.
Self-injection may be necessary, for instance, with some medications used to treat multiple sclerosis or rheumatoid arthritis. Modern medicine routinely administers intramuscular injections. They are employed to provide medication and vaccinations. This is the method used to administer a number of medications and practically all injectable vaccinations.
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The nurse is conducting a community program about removing the risk factors that may predispose patients to hypertension. Which of the following types of prevention is the nurse focusing on?
Secondary prevention
Primary prevention
Tertiary prevention
Prognosis prevention
The nurse is concentrating on primary prevention as a kind of prevention.
Which disease preventive program aims to prevent illnesses from happening?Primary prevention seeks to stop illness or harm before it starts. This is accomplished through reducing exposure to risks that can result in disease or injury, changing risky or unhealthy behaviors, and boosting resistance to disease or damage should exposure occur.Which behaviors will a nurse emphasize as the main means of disease prevention?Immunizations, health education initiatives, nutrition, and physical activity comprise primary preventative measures.
Which four methods of prevention are there?Primordial, primary, secondary, and tertiary prevention are the key categories used to classify preventative levels.
What part do nurses play in the community's illness prevention and control?In order to prevent illness outbreaks and encourage a better lifestyle for society, nurses play a crucial role. Through outreach initiatives and patient counseling, they assist hospital visitors, their caregivers, and the general public in learning how to avoid illnesses and live healthier lives.learn more about hypertension here
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You are dispatched to an apartment complex, where a tenant was found unconscious by the landlord. There is no evidence of trauma. After completing the primary assessment and addressing immediate life-threats, you should:
A. You should carry out a quick body scan after finishing the initial examination and dealing with any imminent dangers to your life.
What is the initial assessment that needs to be made when dealing with a trauma patient?Prior to the patient's arrival, the trauma evaluation is started by obtaining information, assembling the trauma team, and setting up the necessary equipment. As soon as a patient arrives, the team conducts the initial survey, which involves a review of the patient's airway, breathing, circulation, impairment, and exposure.
What procedures comprise a trauma assessment?a. Quickly assessing the patient
b. Review of airway
c. Analysis of breathing.
d. Encouraging ventilations
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what does a normal knee xray look like
One of most popular imaging procedures used to identify knee issues is the X-ray. X-rays are being used to illustrate the distance between bones and joints.
What substance make bones?
The structure that keeps the body up is only one function of bones. Bones are available in a variety of forms and functions. In this page, we describe their purpose, composition, and cell types involved. Contrary to popular belief, bones are dynamic, living tissues that are always undergoing remodeling.
What two sorts of bones are there?
There are 2 kinds of tissue that make up bones: 1. Dense (cortical) bone: A tough, sturdy, and dense outer layer. It accounts for about 80% of mature bone mass. 2. Hyaline cartilage (bony or spongy) bone is made up of a network of rod-like structures called trabeculae.
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what is pcn medical abbreviation
Medical treatments have been revolutionized by the operation, but like all surgeries, it has some hazards that patients should be aware of. Benefits. Risks. Limitation.
What is treatments ?
the meaning of treatment Handling, using the star demands careful handling (1a): the act, style, or occurrence of treating an individual or something. b: the procedures or methods often used in a specific instance 2a: a treatment method or medication b: an experimental circumstance
What does the English word treat mean?
Sometime after the Normans, the French word traiter was imported into English and became known as the verb treat. Although treat is not the only English verb with many meanings, in this instance each meaning seems to be both unique and widely used.
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A______, or a surgical removal of the breast,was performed after the biopsy revealed a cancerous lesion.
Hi !
Answer:
A masectomy or a surgical removal of the breast,was performed after the biopsy revealed a cancerous lesion.
disaccharides consist of __________ molecules of sugar joined together.
Disaccharides consist of two molecules of sugar joined together. When two monosaccharides (simple sugars) are connected by a glycosidic bond, a disaccharide (also known as a double sugar) is created.
Any substance made up of two connected simple sugar molecules (monosaccharides), often known as a disaccharide or double sugar. Crystalline, water-soluble molecules are known as disaccharides. A glycosidic bond (or glycosidic linkage), whose location may be denoted by the letters - or - or a combination of the two (-, -), connects the monosaccharides inside them. Enzymes called glycosidases cleave glycosidic bonds. Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are the three main disaccharides.
Sucrose is a compound made up of one molecule of glucose and one molecule of fructose joined together by α-,β- linkage and is produced by green plants after photosynthesis.
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go to ""cell cycle phases"" and click on ""interphase."" the interphase alternates with mitosis. what happens during interphase and what phases does it include?
During the cell cycle, the period between two successive mitotic divisions is known as interphase.
Interphase can be divided into three distinct phases: G1 (Gap 1), S (Synthesis), and G2 (Gap 2).
G1 Phase: The G1 phase, which is the first interphase phase, is characterized by metabolic activity and cell growth. The cell creates new proteins, RNA, and other components during this stage and gets ready for DNA replication.
DNA synthesis or replication characterizes the S phase, which is the second interphase phase. In order to prepare for cell division, the cell creates a perfect copy of its DNA during this stage.
The G2 phase, which follows interphase, is distinguished by continued growth and metabolic activity. The cell creates extra proteins and other components required for cell division during this phase to get ready for mitosis.
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a client is prescribed gastric lavage after an overdose of acetaminophen. in which position would the nurse place the client when the nasogastric tube is being inserted?
It is correct to place the client in the high fowler position to insert the nasogastric tube.
How is the high fowler position?The patient is partially seated.The seat and back of the chair must form an angle between 45º - 60º.Raised bumps should be lower than the headboard.
The nasogastric tube is a tube used for draining and feeding the patient, it is placed through the nostrils with the destination to the stoma, for this reason, the patient must be in a position that helps this movement, the best position for this is called high fowler.
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what is the purpose of the comb in gel electrophoresis?
The purpose of the comb in gel electrophoresis: The comb's function is to create wells for the DNA samples to be deposited in.
The gel electrophoresis technique can be used to separate and analyse biomacromolecules (DNA, RNA, proteins, etc.) and their fragments based on their size and charge. It is used in biochemistry and molecular biology to distinguish proteins by charge or to determine the size of DNA and RNA fragments in a population of mixed DNA and RNA fragments. It is used in clinical chemistry to segregate proteins based on charge or size (IEF agarose, essentially size independent).
Resolving gels are often produced in 6%, 8%, 10%, 12%, or 15% strengths. The resolving gel is covered with stacking gel (5%) before a gel comb is introduced to create the wells and define the lanes for the placement of proteins, sample buffer, and ladders. The percentage selected is determined by the size of the protein in the sample that one wants to identify or measure. The percentage that should be applied should increase as the known weight decreases. Modifications to the gel's buffer system can aid in further resolving extremely tiny proteins.
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How do you code obesity?
According to ICD-10-CM guidelines, Coders must use the clinician's statement to assign the corresponding E66 code.
What the clinicians mean?doctor The word clinician is often used simply to mean "doctor," but it applies to any health professional who works one-on-one with patients, diagnosing or treating illness. A clinician might be a physician or nurse, a psychologist, or a speech-language pathologist.
What do clinicians study?Clinical trials are research studies performed in people that are aimed at evaluating a medical, surgical, or behavioral intervention. They are the primary way that researchers find out if a new treatment, like a new drug or diet or medical device (for example, a pacemaker) is safe and effective in people.
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How does an EKG show atrial fibrillation?
Your heart rate will be erratic and greater than 100 beats per minute when you are experiencing an episode of atrial fibrillation. Your irregular heart rate will be noted if you experience an episode of atrial fibrillation.
What causes atrial fibrillation primarily?Atrial fibrillation is most frequently caused by structural issues with the heart. Atherial fibrillation may be brought on by coronary artery disease. chest pains.
How dangerous is atrial fibrillation?Although many people with atrial fibrillation have typical, healthy lives, the illness can be painful and frequently requires treatment. You are around four to five times more likely to experience a transient ischemic attack (TIA) or stroke if you have this disorder.
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punnett square definition
who is responsible for connecting with the client?
Adherence outreach call is considered for a patient who is non-compliant and they are responsible for connecting with the client
Up to 50% of patients who are prescribed medications for the management of chronic disorders like diabetes or hypertension have medication nonadherence, which is highly frequent for patients with chronic diseases.
Compliance refers to a patient's passive behavior of passively adhering to a set of directives from the physician. Adherence outreach is a more proactive, positive behavior that forces the patient to alter their way of life because they are required to follow a daily routine, such as wearing a brace that has been prescribed.
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huntington disease is a lethal condition for which symptoms begin to appear in middle age. the age at which a person begins to show disease symptoms is called the of .
The age at which a person begins to show symptoms of Huntington's disease is called the onset or age of onset.
What is Huntington's disease?Huntington's disease is a degenerative disorder that is genetic in nature and not very common. It affects the brain and nervous system, and is caused by a mutation in the hunting-tin gene. This mutation results in the production of a harmful protein that accumulates in certain regions of the brain, leading to gradual damage and loss of neurones over time.
Huntington's disease is a condition that typically presents with symptoms in mid-life, but can occur at any age. The symptoms often involve involuntary movements, changes in mood, behaviour, and cognitive abilities. Over time, these symptoms become more severe and can interfere with a person's ability to walk, speak, and carry out daily activities.
The age at which a person begins to show symptoms of Huntington's disease is called the "onset" or "age of onset" because it marks the beginning of the disease progression. The onset of Huntington's disease is the point at which the mutated hunting-tin gene begins to produce the toxic protein that accumulates in the brain and leads to the gradual loss of neurones, causing the characteristic symptoms of the disease.
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An older patient exhibits a shuffling gait, lack of facial expression, and tremors at rest. The nurse will expect the provider to order which medication for this patient? a. Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet) b. Donepezil (Aricept) c. Rivastigmine (Exelon) d. Tacrine (Cognex)
Based on the symptoms described (shuffling gait, lack of facial expression, and tremors at rest), the nurse would expect the provider to order medication for the treatment of Parkinson's disease.
Carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet), which was one of the options given, would be the drug one will prescribe for this patient. Parkinson's disease is often treated with carbidopa-levodopa because it helps reduce symptoms like shakes, stiffness, and bradykinesia, which is slow movement.
It does this by increasing the amount of dopamine in the brain. People with Parkinson's disease have less of this chemical than healthy people. Options B, C, and D are usually used to treat Alzheimer's disease. They are also called donepezil, rivastigmine, and tacrine. But the signs described in the story don't match up with those of Alzheimer's.
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To detect and treat the most common complication of MI, what should the nurse do?
a. Measure hourly urine output. b. Auscultate the chest for crackles.
c. Use continuous cardiac monitoring. d. Take vital signs every 2 hours for the first 8 hours.
To detect and treat the most common complication of MI Take vital signs every 2 hours for the first 8 hours.
What is signs?Signs are visual indicators that communicate important messages to an audience. They can be used to direct, inform, warn, or advertise. Signs are often found in public places such as roads, buildings, and parks, as well as in private areas such as homes, businesses, and schools. Signs can be made from a variety of materials including paper, metal, plastic, and wood, and may feature text, images, or a combination of both. Signs come in many shapes, sizes, and colors and can be used for many purposes, from providing directions to advertising a product or service.
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a student with diabetes is about to start p.e. class. a check of the student’s blood glucose level indicates it is 296 mg/dl. what should be done next?
The student should consult with their doctor or diabetes nurse to determine the best course of action.
What is consult?Consulting is a professional service that provides objective advice and expertise to help organizations identify and solve problems, make decisions, and improve performance. It is a form of business-to-business assistance that focuses on providing expert advice and guidance to organizations in order to help them reach their goals.
Depending on their doctor’s advice, the student may need to take corrective action to bring their blood glucose level down to a safe level. This may include eating a snack with carbohydrates, taking insulin, or exercising. Once the blood glucose level is within the target range, the student can safely participate in physical education class. It is important to discuss any physical activity with the student’s doctor to ensure that the student is able to safely participate in physical education class.
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A client's axillary temperature is 100.8°F. The nurse realizes this is outside normal range for this client and that axillary temperatures do not reflect core temperature. What should the nurse do to obtain a good estimate of the core temperature?
1)
Add 1°F to 100.8°F to obtain an oral equivalent.
2)
Add 2°F to 100.8°F to obtain a rectal equivalent.
3)
Obtain a rectal temperature reading.
4)
Obtain a tympanic membrane reading.
The best option to obtain a good estimate of core temperature in this case is to obtain a rectal temperature reading (Option 3).
Who is nurse?A nurse is a healthcare professional who is trained to provide patient care in a variety of settings. Nurses work in hospitals, clinics, schools, long-term care facilities, and other healthcare environments, and they play a critical role in helping patients manage their illnesses and injuries. Nurses are responsible for providing direct patient care, administering medications, monitoring patients, and collaborating with other healthcare professionals to develop and implement care plans. They also educate patients and their families on how to manage their conditions and promote overall wellness.
Here,
Rectal temperatures are the most reliable way to assess core temperature, as they are not affected by factors such as oral intake, environmental temperature, or activity level. Option 1 is not accurate because adding 1°F to an axillary temperature is not a reliable way to estimate an oral temperature. Option 2 is also not accurate, as adding 2°F to an axillary temperature is not a reliable way to estimate a rectal temperature. Option 4 (obtaining a tympanic membrane reading) can be a good estimate of core temperature, but the accuracy can be affected by factors such as ear wax, ear infections, or improper placement of the thermometer.
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Which nursing interventions would be beneficial for older adult patients who are diagnosed with chronic obstructive lung disease (COPD)?
A. Assessing for bacterial infection
B. Monitoring blood pressure frequently
C. Placing a feather pillow under the head
D. Monitoring changes in peripheral pulses
E. Monitoring respirations and breath sounds
Evaluating for bacterial infection. Keeping track of breath sounds and respirations. Patients with COPD who are older adults are more vulnerable to bacterial and viral infections.
The nurse must keep an eye out for bacterial infections. Apnea is a common symptom of COPD patients. Hence, the nurse must keep an eye on breath sounds and respirations.
A patient with COPD wouldn't benefit from routine blood pressure checks. A patient's condition may worsen if they sleep with a feather pillow because it can cause allergic respiratory problems. Those with heart and vascular diseases, not COPD, would benefit from monitoring changes in peripheral pulses.
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When caring for a woman in her sixth month of pregnancy, she reports her plans to nurse for at least two to three years like the rest of the women in her family. Based upon your knowledge you:
1- Advise her to be careful who she discusses this with as many will consider that a type of reportable child abuse
2- Document her report but do nothing as this is a cultural belief that should be respected
3- Encourage her to start the baby on formula after the first year as recommended by many physicians
4- Discuss how painful this will be once the baby has teeth
The correct option is 3- Encourage her to start the baby on formula after the first year as recommended by many physicians.
Explain about the baby feeding formula?These are some things to be aware of when giving your newborn infant formula in the first few days, weeks, even months of life.
The belly of your new baby is really small. At each feeding, he or she doesn't require a large amount of infant formula to feel satisfied.In the first few days of life, if your baby is just receiving infant formula and thus no breast milk, you can start by giving him or her 1 to 2 ounces of formula each 2 to 3 hours. If your infant appears to be hungry, give him or her extra.Most newborns who are fed infant formula will eat 8 to 12 times a day.While a pregnant woman is being cared for in her sixth month, she discloses that she intends to nurse her baby for at least 2 to 3 years, much like the other ladies in her family.
Thus, considering what you know, you advise her to start the infant on formula following the first year, as many doctors advise.
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What is worse hypoxia or hypoxemia?
when a nurse notices that a patient has type o blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body.
Anti-A and anti-B antibodies are present in type O persons.
What makes blood type O unique?Everyone can receive red blood cells from Group O. It is the common donor. While receiving from all other groups, Group AB can give to other ABs. Red blood cells from Group B may be donated to B and AB people.O-positive blood is the most prevalent blood type, making up about 38% of the population.Are types O and O+ equivalent?O+ and O- blood types are accepted by all blood donors. O+ can be transfused to any positive blood group, whereas O- can be transfused to both positive and negative blood groups. The only other distinction is in the recipients to whom the blood is administered.Which blood type is the most powerful?In a situation where life is at stake or when there is a shortage of blood that is exactly the right type, type O negative red blood cells are thought to be the safest to give to anyone. The reason for this is that type O-negative blood cells lack antibodies to the A, B, or Rh antigens.learn more about type o blood here
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a brilliant surgeon who pioneered research with plasma and created the first blood bankA. Charlse DrewB. Langston HughesC. Benjamin BannekerD. Thugood Marshell
A brilliant surgeon who pioneered research with plasma and created the first blood bank was (A) Charles Drew.
Plasma is the liquid component of the blood. It forms about 55% of the blood. The plasma itself is made up of 99% of water. The plasma serves a verity of functions like protection of the body from diseases, nutrient distribution, waste removal, etc.
Blood bank is the place where blood and blood products are stored safely so that they can be used in the situation of emergency. The blood banks obtain blood from the donors who donate blood according to their will. The collected samples are properly screened to confirm they are safe for use, before storing them.
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