what role does atp hydrolysis play in the function of the proteasome?

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Answer 1
Degrades both folded and unstructured polyubiquitylated proteins

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what is the function of dna polymerase iii in replication in e. coli? A) to unwind the DNA helix during replication B) to seal together the broken ends of DNA strands C) to add nucleotides to the 3' end of a growing DNA strand D) to degrade damaged DNA molecules E) to rejoin the two DNA strands (one new and one old) after replication

Answers

In E. coli, DNA polymerase III adds nucleotides to the end of a developing DNA strand as part of the replication process.

What is DNA polymerase?

DNA replication, which is the process of generating a copy of DNA, depends on the enzyme DNA polymerase. The phosphodiester linkages between the nucleotides that make up the freshly produced DNA strand are formed through the action of DNA polymerase. The polymerization of this process is known.

In prokaryotes like E. coli, DNA polymerase III is a crucial enzyme in the replication of DNA. By adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the expanding DNA strand, it is in charge of creating the new DNA strand. DNA extension or elongation refers to this process.

DNA polymerase III creates a complementary daughter strand during replication by using the parental DNA strand as a template. The enzyme adds the right nucleotide to the developing daughter strand after determining the base pairing between the template strand and the incoming nucleotide.

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Which mechanism causes postzygotic reproductive isolation? a) temporal isolation b) hybrid sterility c) habitat isolation d) mechanical isolation.

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Hybrid sterlity. Once the individuals (of two different parent species) have mated and produced a zygote, the postzygotic isolating process is used to isolate the reproduction of those individuals.

A successful initial cross will result in hybrid sterility, but the secondary cross will not work. The fact that the primary cross's offspring have multiple sets of chromosomes may have resulted from the failure of meiotic chromosomal disjunction, which in turn may have caused the condition where multiple sets of chromosomes are present in the primary cross's offspring. As an illustration, a mule, a cross between a female horse and a male donkey, may mature into adulthood yet remain sterile since it is unable to produce functioning gametes.

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The sequential model for allosteric enzymes was proposed by:
A. Koshland
B. Pauling
C. Pasteur
D. Monod, Wyman and Changeux E. All of these

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The sequential model for allosteric enzymes was proposed by: Koshland option A

According to this paradigm for allosteric control of enzymes, multimeric protein subunits have two conformational states.  Ligand binding triggers conformational changes in the multimeric protein's other subunits.

Although the subunits undergo conformational changes individually (as contrast to the MWC model), the switch of one subunit increases the likelihood of the other subunits changing by lowering the energy required for following subunits to undertake the identical conformational shift.

The binding of a ligand to one subunit in elaboration modifies the structure of the protein, making it more thermodynamically favorable for the other subunits to flip conformation to the high affinity state.

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the steroid hormone aldosterone has a short half-life for a steroid hormone—only about 20 minutes. what would you predict about the degree to which aldosterone is bound to blood proteins?

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Aldosterone may not be as tightly linked to plasma proteins as other steroid hormones, according to the short half-life.

The action of aldosterone is completely opposed to that of the atrial natriuretic peptide released by the heart. The renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system includes aldosterone. Its half-life in plasma is under 20 minutes. The majority of aldosterone's effects are mediated through traditional nuclear receptors, which change gene transcription. Signaling mechanisms in traditional epithelial target tissues are fairly well understood. Aldosterone, however, has significant effects in tissues that are not epithelial, such as increased production of pro-inflammatory molecules and reactive oxygen species. It is still unknown how these effects are managed and how receptor specificity is kept.

The combination of genetic and environmental factors can be seen in the variation in aldosterone production. Despite the fact that environmental influences are extensively understood

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the concept of ""descent with modification"" was proposed by __________.

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The concept of ""descent with modification"" was proposed by Charles Darwin .

Darwin described evolution as "descent with modification," implying that species change over time, giving rise to new species, and sharing a common ancestor. Natural selection is the mechanism hypothesized by Darwin for evolution.

What is an example of descent with modification?

For example, if a bacterium receives an antibiotic resistance gene, it has a better chance of surviving. Natural selection then distributes that resistance across the population, requiring scientists to develop a new antibiotic. Laura Klappenbach. "Descent with Alteration." ThoughtCo, Aug

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the av node releases an electrical impulse to cause the contraction of which chambers of the heart?

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This electrical impulse causes the two atria to contract as it travels through them, pumping blood into the right and left ventricles.

What happens to the electrical impulse after it leaves the AV node?

The electrical current then travels through the AV node, down the conduction pathway, through a passageway known as the bundle of His, and into the ventricles. For the purpose of stimulating the right and left ventricles electrically, the bundle of His splits into right and left channels.

Where does the AV node constrict the heart?

The contraction of the atria is brought on by an electrical signal produced by the SA (sinoatrial) node. The lower heart chambers (ventricles), which get the signal through the AV (atrioventricular) node, then contract.

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What is the swim bladder structure of fish?

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An outpocketing of the digestive tube gave rise to the swim bladder, which is housed inside the body cavity.

It serves as a hydrostatic organ, or ballast, allowing the fish to maintain its depth without rising or falling, and it carries gas (often oxygen). The fish's buoyancy comes from its swim bladder or air bladder. Only bony fish have it in their bodies. The bony fish uses this organ, which is filled with gas, to manage its buoyancy in the water and prevent sinking. Essentially, it is a tough capillary network covering a sac-like structure. A layer of connective tissue known as the tunica externa lies beneath the capillary system. The tunica interna, which is below this layer and predominantly made up of epithelial gas glands and smooth muscle fibers, is situated. The swim-bladder in fishes can be broadly classified into two groups based on whether or not there is a duct (ductus pneumaticus) between the swim-bladder and the oesophagus.

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describe how different parts of the cell cycle are regulated in healthy cells.

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The cell cycle is a complex process that is tightly regulated in order to ensure the proper growth and division of cells. During the cell cycle, different parts of the cell are regulated by specific checkpoints.

These checkpoints ensure that the cell is prepared for the next step in the cycle, and that any errors that could lead to cell death or mutations are avoided.The G1 checkpoint occurs just after the cell has been created and is responsible for determining if the cell is healthy enough to enter the S phase, or synthesis phase.The G2 checkpoint occurs after the S phase and is responsible for determining if the cell is ready to undergo cell division. The M checkpoint occurs after the M phase and is responsible for ensuring that the cell’s genetic material is evenly distributed among the two daughter cells. The G0 checkpoint is the final checkpoint of the cell cycle, and is responsible for determining if the cell is healthy enough to remain in the resting phase or enter a new cell cycle.

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heartworms are an example of what types of parasite? question 48 options: endoparasites epiparasites ettiparasites ectoparasites

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Heartworms are an example of endoparasites. Endoparasites are parasites that live inside their host's body, such as in their organs, tissues, or bloodstream.

In the case of heartworms, they reside in the heart, lungs, and blood vessels of dogs, cats, and other animals. Endoparasites may cause severe damage to their hosts and can lead to illnesses, disability, or death. They rely on their hosts for survival and often have complex life cycles that involve multiple hosts and environments. Prevention and treatment of endoparasites are essential for the health and well-being of both domestic and wild animals and can also impact human health in some cases. Heartworms are an example of endoparasites. Endoparasites are parasites that live inside their host's body, such as in their organs, tissues, or bloodstream.

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Fill The Blank! the classification of an organism is important for scientists because _____.

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For biologists, with an organism's  always have the classification at which the it offers critical details about its evolutionary type of background.

The taxonomy for many organisms have a crucial understanding for all the variety of living things which helps in recognising different types of creatures. The capacity for any individuals for a species is very effectively interbreed which is, to mate and help to give birth to healthy offspring that is the most important or crucial criteria for the given species among the categorization (those that can in turn breed and produce more offspring).

Classes let students learn about a wide range of different plants and animals, as well as their traits and commonalities. The classification of an organism frequently provides information about the other organisms to which it is related as well as its evolutionary history.

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what are enzymes that are responsible for breakdown of disaccharides

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The enzymes maltases, sucrases, as well as lactases, additionally found in the border of the tiny intestine wall, convert the disaccharides into monosaccharides.

The aforementioned enzymes start breaking down disaccharides after food passes from the stomach and small intestine. This takes place in the small intestine's inner wall's microvillus membrane, also known as the "brush boundary." Disaccharidases were glycoside hydrolases, which are enzymes that convert some kinds of sugars, known as disaccharides, into monosaccharides, which are more basic sugars. Enzymes called glycosidases cleave glycosidic bonds. Lactose, maltose, and sucrose are the three main disaccharides. Sucrose is a compound made up of one glucose molecule and one molecule of fructose joined together by a -,-linkage and is produced by green plants after photosynthesis.

(What enzymes are responsible for breakdown of disaccharides?)

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Why is the oxidation of NADPH energetically favorable? Select one: a.The oxidized form of NADPH is more stable than the reduced form. b.NADPH is the form of the molecule that can gain two high-energy electrons. c.The biosynthetic reactions that are coupled to NADPH oxidation are energetically favorable.

Answers

a. The oxidized form of NADPH is more stable than the reduced form. We can now better understand how cells maintain compartmentalised NAD(H) and NADP(H) pools because of newly discovered genetically.

Encoded biosensors and newly identified biosynthetic enzymes. Redox stress is the term used to describe both oxidative and reductive stress, which are both reflected in changes in NAD(H)/NADP(H). the newly discovered functions of NAD+-consuming proteins in managing cellular redox balance and metabolic homeostasis. NAD(H) and NADP(H) are highly compartmentalised during their biosynthesis and distribution in cells. To maintain their normal functions and, at the same time, prevent redox stress, cells must maintain steady levels of these redox couple pools, which must be understood. To preserve cellular redox homeostasis and energy metabolism, it is also critical to comprehend how NAD(H)- and NADP(H)-utilizing enzymes interact with other signalling pathways, such as those controlled by hypoxia-inducible factor.

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In a physiological system operating with positive feedback, _____.

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Answer: homeostasis

Explanation: The kidneys excrete salt into the urine when dietary salt levels rise. the positive feedback's effector responses are in the same direction as the initiating stimulus rather than opposite it.

why are there so many types of organisms and why are their distributions so restricted?

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There are a huge variety of different creatures, and due of geological age and manmade disturbance, respectively, their distribution is rather constrained.

Endemism is the term used to describe a species' limited range or presence in a single geographic location.

Geological age has been one of the key theories; older groupings of organisms are more diverse simply because they have had more time to amass more species.

Anthropogenic disturbance, which affects species ranges through habitat loss, alteration, or degradation, pollution, disease, the introduction of non-native species, over-harvesting, and global climate change, is one of the most prevalent causes now limiting the distribution of species.

The survival and reproduction of a species, and consequently its local density and regional range, may be hampered by both physical (temperature, rainfall), as well as biotic (predators, competitors), variables.

Food, water, habitat, and mates are the typical ecological limiting variables. The carrying capacity of an environment will depend on the accessibility of these elements. Demand for food increases along with population growth. Food is a scarce resource, so organisms will start to fight for it.

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5.11 Unit Test: Molecular Genetics - Part 1 for K-12
I need the answers please

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Molecular genetics is the study of the structure and function of genes at a molecular level.

What is Molecular Genetics?

Generally,  It combines molecular biology, genetics and biochemistry to understand how the information encoded in DNA is used to produce proteins and regulate the activity of cells.

It also examines the regulation of gene expression, the role of DNA in development, and the molecular basis of genetic diseases and mutations.

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what is part of a plant that transports water from the roots

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Answer: xylem

Explanation:

What does your body use to transduce specific external stimuli into neural activity?a. sense receptors. b. transducers. c. sensory adaptation. d. neural links

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The correct option is A ;  Sense receptors , A sensory activation happens when a physical or chemical input is converted by a sense receptor into a neural response (sensory transduction).

An individual's understanding of a feeling is called perception, which is a brain function. The ability to learn about our surroundings or the condition of our interior world is one of the main functions of sensory receptors. Receiving different kinds of inputs from various sources, the nervous system converts them into electrochemical messages. It is known as sense transmission.

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what is/are the main source(s) of nadph for fatty acid biosynthesis?

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The oxidative branch of the hexose monophosphate shunt or pentose phosphate pathway is generally accepted to be the major cellular source of NADPH.  

To compare places of specific enzymes in  force of  NADPH for cellular biosynthesis, collections of incentive mutants were constructed by gene  dislocations and matings. These mutants include haploid strains containing  all possible combinations of elisions in  incentive genes  garbling three differentially compartmentalized iso zymes of NADP1-specific isocitrate dehydrogenase and  in the gene garbling glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogen ase( Zwf1p).

Growth phenotype analyses of the mutants indicate that either cytosolic NADP1-specific isocitrate dehydrogenase( Idp2p) or the hexose monophosphate shunt is essential for growth with adipose acids as carbon  sources and for sporulation of diploid strains, a condi tion associated with high  situations of adipose acid  conflation.  No new biosynthetic  places were  linked for mitochon drial( Idp1p) or peroxisomal( Idp3p) NADP1-specific  isocitrate dehydrogenase isozymes.

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Which of the three solutions most closely approximates the solute concentration in a red blood cell? How do you know?A. The solution that most closely approximates the solute concentration of a red blood cell is solution 1 because the conditon of the cell is normal which also makes it isotonic.B. We were able to read the printed page through solution 3 because the cells were hypotonic causing them to burst and not cloud the solution as the other two soultions did.C. In this experiment the test tube containing water was the negative control.D. All the enzymes were specific for one substrate and did not overlap because each substrate were specific and could only bind to their intended and fitting active site.

Answers

The correct option is A; The solution that most closely approximates the solute concentration of a red blood cell is solution 1 because the condition of the cell is normal which also makes it isotonic .

The pH range of 4.5 to 7 was found to have the highest activity of -amylase. Lowering the pH of the enzyme solution below this range reduces enzyme activity. RNA is more reactive than DNA and is not stable in alkaline conditions because it contains a ribose sugar. Because of its larger helical grooves, RNA is more vulnerable to enzyme attack. UV light has the potential to damage DNA. RNA is more resistant to UV light damage than DNA.

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what is mcdonalds small fries calories

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A small McDonald's Chips contains 230 calories. In addition to the abundance of additives, Chatfield claims that trans fats are another reason to avoid McDonald's French fries.

"Fried fast foods, such as French fries, are the most common source of artificial trans fats, as high frying temperatures can increase trans fat content in cooking oil," she cautions. The potatoes are not coated in any animal fats or substances. Once at the eatery, our fries are simply cooked in specialized frying vats in a non-hydrogenated blend of sunflower and rapeseed oil that is vegan-friendly.

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What characteristics of viruses make them seem like living things what characteristics make them seem nonliving?

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Answer:  It makes them seem like living things by containing proteins and genetic information

Explanation:

when are the arms and legs most susceptible to teratogens?

Answers

When tissues and organs are forming during the organogenesis stage, which lasts from 3 to 8 weeks of foetal life, teratogens may cause serious congenital anomalies,

Organogenesis occurs in the embryo between implantation, which happens at around 14 days after conception, to about 60 days after conception.This is often the time when teratogenesis is most vulnerable and a deformity is most likely to result from exposure to the a teratogenic substance. When tissues and organs are forming during the organogenesis stage, which lasts from 3 to 8 weeks of foetal life, teratogens may cause serious congenital anomalies, whereas exposure during the first 2 weeks of pregnancy may only result in minor functional and morphological issues. Approximately 10 to 14 days after conception, according to experts, teratogens can start to damage a kid developing in the womb. The first 12 weeks are when the foetus is most susceptible.

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What enables competitive inhibitors to bind to a specific enzyme? a. Competitive inhibitors have unique sugars that are attracted to the enzyme. b. Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme's substrate. c. Competitive inhibitors form unique covalent bonds with enzyme structures. d. Competitive inhibitors cover the entire surface of an enzyme.

Answers

The correct answer is (b) Competitive inhibitors have structures that resemble the enzyme's substrates.

Competitive impediments have structures that act as the enzyme's substrate. Competitive impediments have unique sugars that are attracted to the enzyme substrates.

In competitive inhibition, the asset resembles the substrate, taking its place and list to the active point of an enzyme. adding the substrate  attention would  dwindle the" competition" for the substrate to duly bind to the active point and allow a  response. Competitive inhibition occurs when motes veritably analogous to the substrate motes bind to the active point and help list the factual substrate.

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Which of these processes would a heterotroph be capable of doing?

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Heterotrophs are organisms that consume other organisms for energy. Animals, fungi and many protists and bacteria are heterotrophs. They sue the process of cellular respiration to turn their food into energy. They can also be classified as consumers

how many ribs does the human have

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Most adult humans have 24 ribs, 12 on each side of the thoracic (chest) region of the body.

The ribs are long, curved bones that wrap around the chest, helping to protect the heart, lungs, and other organs. The first seven pairs of ribs are called "true ribs" because they attach directly to the sternum (breastbone) via cartilage.

The next three pairs of ribs are called "false ribs" because they attach to the sternum indirectly or not at all. The last two pairs of ribs are called "floating ribs" because they are only attached to the spine and not to the sternum or other ribs.

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which models predicted a single dna band after one replication during the meselson and stahl experiment
a. Dispersive
b. Conservative
c. semiconservative

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After replication, the semiconservative hypothesis predicts that each molecule will have one old and one new strand.

Which is more conservative, DNA replication?

Semi-conservative: The semi-conservative nature of DNA replication is a crucial concept (see Figure 7.2). 7). This indicates that each new generation of an organism's double helix consists of one complete "old" and one complete "new" strand wrapped around one another.

What is the conservative DNA replication model?

In this process, the DNA replicates itself to produce multiple copies. Two copies of the same DNA are made using a single template in conservative replication. One of these is made entirely of new DNA, and the other is made of strands of old DNA.

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What level of organization does the ribosome belong to?

Organism
Organ
Organ System
Organelle

Answers

Answer:

Organelle is the answer.

Answer is organelle !!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!

which type of epithelium do you find in the respiratory zone

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Option 2) Simple  type of epithelium do you find in the respiratory zone .

Respiratory epithelium is ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium found lining most of the respiratory tract; it is not present in the larynx or pharynx

Respiratory epithelium, also known as airway epithelium, is a form of ciliated columnar epithelium that lines the majority of the respiratory tract called respiratory mucosa and acts to moisten and protect the airways.

It is not seen in the laryngeal vocal cords, or the oropharynx and laryngopharynx, where the epithelium is stratified squamous. It also acts as a barrier to possible pathogens and foreign particles, preventing infection and tissue damage by mucus secretion and mucociliary clearance.

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Full Question: What type of epithelium, do you expect to find in the respiratory zone?

StratefiedSimple

for this problem, you may want to create a punnett square on a separate piece of paper. assume brown eyes are dominant to blue eyes and dimples are dominant to no dimples. john has brown eyes, and his mother has blue eyes. john does not have dimples. zena has blue eyes and also has no dimples. what are the chances if this couple have children, they will produce a child with blue eyes and no dimples?

Answers

If this couple have children, there are 10% chances that they will produce a child with blue eyes and no dimples.

What is dihybrid cross?

Mating experiment between two organisms that are identically hybrid for two traits  is called as dihybrid cross. In other words it is the cross between two organisms where both organisms are heterozygous for different traits.

Dominant and Recessive traits:

Bb = Brown eyes

bb = Blue eyes

Dd = dimples

dd = no dimples

parents genotype = Bbdd × bbDd

For above dihybrid cross image is attached:

Thus, there are 10% chances of having child with blue eyes and no dimples.

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How many bones are in a humans body(adults body)
P.S I put this here so you can get 100 points and get leveled up just for answering.
I do really need to know though :)

Answers

Answer:

206

Explanation:

ez ! ;)

Answer:

206 bones

Explanation:

Adult humans typically have 206 bones in their bodies. These bones are divided into two main categories: axial skeleton and appendicular skeleton. The axial skeleton includes the skull, vertebral column, and rib cage, while the appendicular skeleton includes the bones of the upper and lower limbs, shoulder girdle, and pelvic girdle. The exact number of bones can vary slightly from person to person, as some bones may fuse together during development or some individuals may have additional small bones.

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