The nurse should take the geriatric’s pre-admission functional skills into account when formulating patient goals when creating the plan of care for a patient who is hospitalized for an acute illness, the correct option is C.
Older persons should have tailored care plans based on their present functional capacities. A uniform geriatric nursing care plan is unlikely to take into account the unique requirements and abilities of each patient.
The need for a patient to be discharged to a long-term care institution varies. The patient's activity level should be planned to allow them to maintain their functioning abilities while they are in the hospital as well as any additional rest they may need to recover from the acute process.
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what therapist is most likely utilizing brief therapy during a session with a client?
The eclectic therapist is most likely to utilize brief therapy during a session with a client.
Eclectic Therapy is a treatment approach that combines the most effective techniques from other concrete-proof therapy modalities to create an effective, individualized treatment plan. Eclectic Therapists recognize that every client is unique and already has specific needs in therapy.
Therapists can establish a treatment plan that is flexible, supportive, and relaxed for each individual client using the Eclectic Therapy approach. The therapist but instead of the client will not be limited to a single therapy modality but will be able to switch between them as needed.
An eclectic therapist may combine Cognitive Behavioral Therapy (CBT), attachment-based therapy, and nature therapy in a single session. Each of those elements contributes to the client's needs. Clients can learn a wide variety of mental skills this way.
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what is the main reason for using the realm-sf instrument to evaluate health literacy?
A 7-item word recognition test called the REALM-SF is used to evaluate an adult patient's proficiency in reading common medical terms as well as lay names for bodily parts and illnesses. It gives doctors a reliable quick assessment of the patient's health literacy.
What is the health literacy realm?
A screening tool called the Rapid Evaluation of Adult Literacy in Medicine (REALM) evaluates a patient's ability to understand common medical jargon as well as plain terms for body parts and disorders.
What purpose does realm serve?
Any topic of discussion, interest, or activity can be referred to using the word realm. The majority of students' interests are restricted to the academic world. A nation with a monarch or queen is known as a realm. The realm's defence is essential.
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While completing a medication reconciliation at the clinic for SM, the pharmacist notices that his albuterol inhaler is the Ventolin HFA brand that contains 60 inhalations per canister. Based on his current usage, how many weeks will his inhaler last? (round answer to the nearest tenth)
The inhaler will last almost 2.5 weeks rounding to the nearest tenth.
What is inhaler?An inhaler, also referred to as a puffer, pump, or allergy spray, is a medical device that helps people breathe more easily while allowing them to take medication. This permits the delivery of drugs to the lungs and their absorption there, enabling the delivery of targeted medical care to this particular area of the body and minimising the side effects of oral drugs. There are many different types of inhalers, and they are frequently used to treat a wide range of medical conditions, with asthma and chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) being among the most notable.
Ventolin HFA comes in two sizes, 200 inhalations and 60 inhalations per canister. SM is using 24 inhalations per week (6 inhalations on 4 days of the week).
60 inhalations/24 inhalations per week = 2.5 weeks.
Thus, The inhaler will last almost 2.5 weeks.
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a patient presents to the ed with fever, chills, myalgia (muscle pain), and a dry cough. he says he has recently traveled to china. he says he got a flu shot a year ago. which is most likely in this case?
The woman was diagnosed with influenza, which she may have contracted because she did not get the flu vaccination this year.
Who is at risk for contracting the flu?A same CID study discovered that persons 65 and older have the lowest risk of contracting the flu, while children have the highest risk.For children aged 0 to 17 years, the median incidence numbers (or attack rates) were 9.3%; for adults aged 18 to 64, they were 8.8%; and for those aged 65 and beyond, they were 3.9%.
What is the best time to prevent getting the flu?The fall & winter months are often when the flu season in the US occurs.Although Influenza viruses can spread throughout the year, their prevalence is typically highest between the months of December and February.Flu seasonally changes the overall health effects (such as infections, hospitalizations, and fatalities).
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experimental group definition
An experimental group is the one that receives the medicine, vaccination, or other intervention being tested in a clinical research study.
What are the terms control and experimental groups?The experiment group, also known as the treatment group, is given the intervention whose outcome the researcher is interested in. The control group is given one of three options: no therapy, a known standard treatment, or a placebo (a fake treatment to control for placebo effect).
How can you tell if a group is experimental?The group that gets the experimental variable is known as the experimental group. In an experiment, the control group is the one that doesn't get the variable you're testing.
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what is the medical term for the presence of benign cysts in the breasts of women ages 20–50, which create a lumpy or rope-like texture?
The medical term for the presence of benign cysts in the breasts of women ages 20–50, which create a lumpy or rope-like texture is fibrocystic breast disease.
Fibrocystic breast disease is a condition in which benign cysts form in the breasts, leading to a lumpy or rope-like texture. The cause of the condition is not known, but it is believed to be linked to hormones. Symptoms of fibrocystic breast disease include breast tenderness, lumpiness, and pain. Treatment is typically not required, but medications can be used to reduce the symptoms.
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The medical term for the presence of benign cysts in the breasts of women ages 20–50, which create a lumpy or rope-like texture is fibrocystic breast disease.
Fibrocystic breast disease is a condition in which benign cysts form in the breasts, leading to a lumpy or rope-like texture. The cause of the condition is not known, but it is believed to be linked to hormones. Symptoms of fibrocystic breast disease include breast tenderness, lumpiness, and pain. Treatment is typically not required, but medications can be used to reduce the symptoms.
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why is epinephrine not used in areas such as the fingers toes and nose
Epinephrine is not used in areas such as the fingers, toes, and nose because of the risk of tissue damage and decreased blood supply to these areas.
The fingers, toes, and nose are highly sensitive areas with delicate blood vessels that can easily be damaged by vasoconstriction caused by epinephrine. This can result in tissue death, pain, and long-term complications. Additionally, epinephrine can cause vasoconstriction which may lead to tissue death in these small areas.
Furthermore, the use of epinephrine in these areas can also cause prolonged and painful ischemia, a condition where the blood supply to tissues is reduced, leading to tissue damage and necrosis. As a result, other medications, such as lidocaine, are preferred in these areas due to their localized anesthetic properties without causing significant vasoconstriction.
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____ is used on instruments and equipment that come in contact with intact mucous membranes or other surfaces not considered sterile
Instruments and equipment that come into contact with intact mucous membranes or other non-sterile surfaces are disinfected.
What device is typically used to evaluate a patient's hearing?Audiologists most frequently use an audiometer to conduct hearing tests, which evaluate a person's sense of hearing's sensitivity. To ascertain a person's hearing sensitivity at various frequencies, an audiometer is utilized.
What is the name of the instrument gadget that we employ to sanitize the answer options in the media group?An autoclave is a machine that uses steam under pressure to sterilize materials that are placed inside a pressure vessel of any harmful bacteria, viruses, fungi, or spores.
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The energy value of dietary carbohydrates is _____ kcal per gram.
Answer:Carbohydrates provide 4 calories per gram, protein provides 4 calories per gram, and fat provides 9 calories
Explanation:
What questions should the nurse ask when evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions?
A. Did the patient meet the goals established during the planning phase? B. Should the plan of care be discontinued? C. Does the care plan need to be modified in response to patient changes? D. All of the above
All of the above should the nurse ask when evaluating the effectiveness of nursing interventions. The correct option is D.
What are primary nursing interventions?Simple nursing techniques called physiological fundamental nursing interventions help patients maintain their physical wellbeing and well-being. These actions are necessary for the fundamental well-being of patients, including helping them to maintain their cleanliness.
What nurse intervention example would you most want to see?The administration of intravenous fluids to a patient who is dehydrated is an illustration of a biological nursing intervention. Actions that uphold a patient's safety and avoid harm are included in safety nursing interventions. These procedures might be as straightforward as changing the participant's bed and sleeping position or as complex as crisis counselling and psychotherapy.
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The nurse understands which medication taken by a pregnant woman may show a delayed teratogenic effect in the offspring?
A. Aspirin
B. Heparin
C. Ethyl alcohol
D. Diethylstilbestrol
The medication that may show a delayed teratogenic effect in the offspring of a pregnant woman is Diethylstilbestrol (DES). The correct Answer is Option: D. Diethylstilbestrol.
This medication was given to pregnant women between the 1940s and 1970s to prevent miscarriages and premature labor. However, it was later found to cause abnormalities in the reproductive system of male and female offspring, including an increased risk of vaginal cancer in female offspring. These effects can occur many years after exposure, making it a delayed teratogenic effect. Aspirin and heparin are anticoagulants used during pregnancy, and ethyl alcohol is a teratogen that can cause immediate harm to the developing fetus.
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What action by the nurse is most helpful when responding to a bomb threat phone call?
1. Ask where and when the bomb is going to explode.
2. Quickly terminate the conversation and call in the bomb threat.
3. Document on the hospital Bomb Threat Checklist.
4. Immediately seek cover and warn others
The nurse should talk to the caller and try to get information while listening out for voice patterns and background noises. The nurse should signal to some other employee to report the bomb threat.
Correct option is, 2.
How would you settle a dispute between a nurse and an aggressive person?Managing an aggressive patient requires caution, wisdom, and self-control. Keep your cool, pay attention to what they have to say, and ask open-ended questions. Boost their confidence and take note of their complaints. Give them a chance to share the reasons for their irrational behaviour.
What part does the nurse play when a patient is violent?Nurses are essential in the prevention, detection, and treatment of violent behaviour as well as in changing the public's perception that mental illness and violence are inextricably linked. The authors attest that they have all necessary patient permission paperwork on file.
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What is the ICD-10 code for history of pulmonary embolism?
ICD-10 code Z86. 711 for Personal history of pulmonary embolism is a medical classification as listed by WHO under the range.
What is full scope Medi-Cal?Full scope Medi-Cal covers more than just care when you have an emergency. It provides medical, dental, mental health, and vision (eye) care. It also covers alcohol and drug use treatment, drugs your doctor orders, and more. You can learn more about Medi-Cal at www.dhcs.ca.gov. How will I get full scope Medi-Cal.
What is in medical terminology?Medical terminology refers to the words and language used specifically in the medical and health fields. The proper definition describes medical terminology as language used to describe anatomical structures, procedures, conditions, processes and treatments in the medical field.
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a nurse, who is caring for a client admitted to the patient care unit with acute abdominal pain, formulates the care plan for the client. which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
A nurse, who is caring for a client admitted to the patient care unit with acute abdominal pain, formulates the care plan for the client. The nursing diagnosis which is the priority for this client is impaired comfort. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Impaired comfort?Diagnosis is the process of identifying a disease, condition, or an injury from the signs and symptoms. A health history, physical examination, and tests, such as the blood tests, imaging tests, and biopsies, that may be used to help in diagnosis.
Impaired comfort is a multidimensional diagnosis which is used to describe the physical, emotional, social, cultural, and spiritual challenges which are encountered in a patient. Comfort levels vary between the different patients and age groups and are dynamic.
The Impaired comfort diagnosis can be defined as the perception of lack of comfort, relief and the transcendence in physical, environmental, cultural and the social dimensions.
Therefore, the correct option is C.
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Your question is incomplete, most probably the complete question is:
A nurse who is caring for a client admitted to the nursing unit with acute abdominal pain formulates the care plan for the client. Which nursing diagnosis is the priority for this client?
a. Disturbed sleep pattern
b. Disturbed body image
c. Impaired comfort
d. Activity intolerance
a client reports light-headedness, chest pain, and shortness of breath. they physician orders tests to ascertain what is causing the client’s problems. which test is used to identify cardiac rhythms? A) electrocardiogram, B) electroencephalogram, C) echocardiogram, D) electrocautery
The test used to identify cardiac rhythms is an electrocardiogram (ECG or EKG).
What is electrocardiogram?An electrocardiogram is a non-invasive diagnostic test that records the electrical activity of the heart through electrodes placed on the skin. It provides information about the heart's rhythm, rate, and electrical conduction, which can help diagnose various cardiac conditions, such as arrhythmias or heart attacks.
In the case of the client reporting light-headedness, chest pain, and shortness of breath, an ECG would be an important diagnostic tool to evaluate the heart's electrical activity and identify any abnormal rhythms that may be causing these symptoms. Once the ECG results are analyzed, the physician can determine the best course of treatment for the client.
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Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial vaccines contain _____.
A. Fully active bacteria.
B. Synthetic bacteria.
C. Dead bacteria.
D. Bacterial toxins.
When given, vaccines induce the formation of antibodies or cellular immunity against the pathogen without actually causing disease.
Vaccines are biological preparations of pathogens that are weak or dead.
What kind of general process is used to make bacterial vaccines?For bacterial vaccines, either an attenuated bacterium (BCG) is utilized, or a pathogen bacterial strain is cultivated to produce pure, inactivated toxins or virulence factors (Clostridium tetani, Corynebacterium, etc.).
Exist vaccinations that protect against bacterial infections?The four primary types of vaccinations used to prevent bacterial infections are toxoid and subunit vaccines, live attenuated bacterial vaccines (LAV), inactivated bacterial pathogens (whole cell antigen, or WCA), and polysaccharide conjugate vaccines.
What are immunizations against live bacteria?Living vaccinations make use of a disease-causing bacterium that has been weakened (or attenuated). These vaccines produce a potent and robust immune response because they closely resemble the natural infection that they help avoid.learn more about bacterial vaccines here
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What are the steps of signal transduction?
There are three main phases in the signal transduction pathway: Reception: The method through which a cell picks up a signal from its surroundings. Transduction.
What comes first in the signal transduction process?Reception: An outside signaling molecule is picked up by a cell. A signal is recognized when a ligand, a chemical signal, interacts to a signaling molecule either within or on surface of a cell.
What are the fundamental components of signal transduction?Protein kinases and protein phosphatases are essential enzymes in the signal transduction process because they catalyze changes in protein structure and, as a result, activity. Every internal or external input that prompts a cell or species to create one or maybe more responses is referred to as a signal.
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True or False. because the eleventh and twelfth pairs of ribs do not attach anteriorly, they are called floating ribs.
The eleventh and twelfth are anteriorly free and unarticulated. They are only posteriorly linked to the twelfth and eleventh ribs of the thorax.
What do you call the rib that is floating?Floating ribs are also referred to as "vertebral ribs." They do not attach ventrally to the sternum; they are only connected to the vertebral column.
How does a floating rib manage to stay up there?The ribs may move a little bit more than usual and cause discomfort as a result of the relative ligament weakness. The following elements could contribute to the condition: chest damage while playing contact sports, such as rugby, football, ice hockey, and wrestling. a direct injury to the chest, such as from falling.
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A nurse-manager is discussing a proposed change in practice the interdisciplinary team. What question by the manager best reflects a utilitarian perspective? a. ""Have we asked clients and families what they think?"" b. ""Does our code of ethics address this?"" c. ""Are the benefits greater than the risks?"" d. ""How many people will this benefit?""
The correct option is d. "How many people will this benefit?", is the manager's query, which most accurately expresses a utilitarian viewpoint.
Explain about the utilitarian perspective?An ethical theory known as utilitarianism establishes correct from incorrect by emphasizing results.
It embodies consequentialism in some way. According to utilitarianism, the decision that should produce the most good for the largest number of people is the most morally right one. According to utilitarianism, it is a morality to make one's things better by enhancing the positive aspects of society while reducing the negative ones. In other words, avoidance of suffering or sadness while pursuing pleasure and happiness.An multidisciplinary team is debating a suggested change in practice with a nurse manager.
Thus, the manager's query, which most accurately expresses a utilitarian viewpoint, is -
"How many people will this benefit?"
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An outbreak of illness has occurred in a community and is suspected to be related to food ingestion. A community health nurse places priority on which intervention?
1. Determining what common food item was ingested by those affected
2. Reviewing the signs and symptoms related to the Salmonellabacteria
3. Notifying the U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC)
4. Teaching the basic methods for preventing food contamination to those affected
The correct answer is 1) Determining what common food item was ingested by those affected. Determining what common food item was ingested by those affected is the priority intervention, as it can help identify the outbreak's source and prevent the further spread of illness.
How is an outbreak of illness related to food ingestion?Outbreaks of illness related to food ingestion can occur when people consume contaminated food or beverages. Contamination can occur at any point during food production, including growth, harvesting, processing, distribution, or preparation.
How can one prevent foodborne illness?Preventing foodborne illness requires a combination of measures, including proper food handling, storage, and preparation. This includes washing hands and surfaces often, separating raw and cooked foods, cooking food to appropriate temperatures, and refrigerating perishable foods promptly. Food safety regulations and inspections also play a crucial role in preventing foodborne illness outbreaks.
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When a nurse is inserting an intravenous (IV) device into an older adult, the special precaution would the nurse take is _____
"Resist from inserting a IV catheter in the hands" when a nurse is placing an intravenous (IV) device through an older adult. This is an unique precaution the nurse would take.
Explain about the precautions using intravenous (IV) device?The most popular intravenous devices used in pediatric hospital patients are peripheral intravenous catheters (PIVCs). They are mostly employed for medical treatments, such as the delivery of drugs, fluids, even blood products.
Medicines delivered by PIVC could include -
diluted and placed in an IV fluid bag.added to the infusion set's burette.ready to be given using a volumetric infusion pump.used with a syringe driver in a syringe.directly given as a bolus and push.Prevention of Infection:
While administering an IV, wash your hands, put on gloves, and utilize aseptic procedure.Before inserting an IV, clean the area with an approved skin antiseptic.Before making any touch with the patient or the infusion system, make sure to wash your hands thoroughly.Thus, resist from inserting a IV catheter in the hands when a nurse is placing an intravenous (IV) device through an older adult. This is an unique precaution the nurse would take.
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Which intervention is indicated for a patient with an avulsed tooth?
A. Handle the side of the tooth when rinsing it.
B. Place the tooth back into the socket.
C. Apply ice to the affected area.
D. Place the tooth in soda, such as cola.
Intervention to (B) restore the tooth to the socket is advised for a patient whose tooth has become loose.
What is an avulsed tooth?When a tooth is fully removed from its socket, it becomes an avulsed tooth. Dental emergencies like avulsed teeth call for prompt care.
Try reinserting your tooth as soon as possible to save it.
The best success rates are achieved when teeth are treated within 30 to 60 minutes.
For a patient with an avulsed tooth, intervention to place the tooth back into the socket is recommended.
Clean the tooth that has fallen out gently with milk, salt water, or saliva, taking care not to contact the root with your fingers.
Replacing an avulsed tooth is preferable.
Place the tooth in a physiologic storage media (milk, Hank's Balanced Salt Solution [HBSS], saliva, or saline) if you are unable to replant it. Seek out dental care right now.
Therefore, intervention to (B) restore the tooth to the socket is advised for a patient whose tooth has become loose.
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which is not an example of a bloodborne pathogen engineering control?
Disposable (single use) gloves
An autoclave
Self-sheathing needles
Splash guards
Splash guards. Engineering controls are used to physically separate the worker from the hazard, and to remove the hazard from the workplace.
What is Splash guard?A splash guard is a device designed to protect against splashes from liquid or debris. Splash guards are often found in kitchens, bathrooms, and other areas where water or other liquids may be present. Splash guards are typically made of plastic or metal, and come in a variety of shapes and sizes. They can be used to keep water from getting onto walls, countertops, and floors, and can also prevent spills from entering drains or other areas.
Examples of engineering controls include physical barriers, such as a biological safety cabinet, and using tools, such as self-sheathing needles, disposable gloves, and autoclave. Splash guards are a type of administrative control, which are procedures put in place to minimize worker exposures.
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Proteins can be denatured by all of the following EXCEPT _____.a. mercury. b. stomach acid. c. heat. d. freezing. e. radiation
d. freezing. Alkaline or acidic, oxidising or reducing substances, as well as some organic solvents, can all denature proteins.
Protein denaturation can be brought on by a wide range of substances and circumstances, including heat, chemical molecules, pH changes, and heavy metal ions. The gastric secretions produced by the stomach contain hydrochloric acid and the enzyme pepsin, which start the chemical breakdown of proteins. Protein denaturation, which results in the loss of a protein's function, starts the digestion of proteins in the stomach's hydrochloric acid (HCl). When a protein is subjected to unusual environmental circumstances, it undergoes denaturation, which is a physical change. Proteins can be denatured by heat, acid, strong acids, alcohol, mechanical agitation, and high salt concentrations.
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what is a mydriatic drug used for?
A class of medication known as mydriatics causes the pupil of the eye to enlarge. The focusing muscles of the eye are similarly prone to relaxation when taking mydriatics, therefore blurred vision is a typical side effect.
During an eye exam, topical mydriatics are used to enable viewing of the retina and other deep-seated components of the eye. Mydriatics can also be used to lessen cycloplegia and treat inflammatory eye disorders like iritis and cyclitis.
The iris sphincter, which is innervated by the parasympathetic nervous system, is relaxed by mydriatics like tropicamide. Some mydriatics, including phenylephrine, cause the sympathetic nervous system's alpha adrenoreceptors to be stimulated, which causes the iris to enlarge.
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What is the medical term for uterine cramping during menstruation?
Answer:Menstrual cramps (dysmenorrhea) are throbbing or cramping pains in the lower abdomen. Many women have menstrual cramps just before and during their menstrual period
Explanation:
using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (hcg hormone), they are considered to be about __ week(s) pregnant. A. 4 B. 5 C. 6
using gestational age, when people take pregnancy tests as soon as they are able to detect pregnancy (HCG hormone), they are considered to be about 4 week(s) pregnant. The correct option is A.
How accurate is gestational age?When the baby is delivered, there are a number of qualities that may be used to estimate the gestational age. The gestational age might be incorrect by up to two weeks even with a precise LMP date backed by further testing.
What role does gestational age perform?In order to offer the best medical care in both mother and baby, a gestational age must be determined for each pregnancy. To determine the weeks of gestation more precisely, a combination of the history, physical examination, early mammography in the first quarter, and prenatal exams are necessary.
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what step does dr. david ansell say is critical to address racism?
According to Dr. David Ansell, since racism is a health issue, it is critical to address it.
What is racism?Racism is the idea that certain human populations have distinct behavioral features related to genetic characteristics and can be classified according to the superiority of one race over another.
It may also refer to hostility, prejudice, or discrimination against others who are of a different race or ethnicity.
Racism nowadays frequently takes its roots in social conceptions of biological variances among populations.
As a result of presumptive shared inheritable features, talents, or attributes, various races may be regarded as essentially superior or inferior to one another in social acts, practices, beliefs, or political systems.
Dr. David Ansell claims that it is imperative to address racism since it is a health problem.
Therefore, according to Dr. David Ansell, since racism is a health issue, it is critical to address it.
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Which strategy of the nurse leader regarding the quality improvement (QI) process requires revising?
a Focus is on correcting errors.
b The task includes staff development.
c The leader involves the interprofessional team.
d Outcomes are set with input from clients and staff.
The strategy of the nurse leader regarding the quality improvement (QI) process which requires revising is: (a) Focus is on correcting errors.
Quality improvement in healthcare is a framework of procedures whose focus lies on the betterment of provision of care and treatment to the patients. The procedure should focus on preventing any form of errors instead of correcting them.
A nurse leader is a person who stands at a higher position and leads as well as manages a team of nurses at lower positions. The role of nurse leaders is to maintain a positive and professional environment in the hospital beneficial for the patients as well as the staff.
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When viewing the past medical history, the nurse identifies which cardiac risk factors specific to Carl Shapiro?
Carl Shapiro's cardiac risk factors include hyperlipidemia, hypertension, diabetes, and a family history of premature coronary artery disease.
What is disease?Disease is an abnormal condition affecting the body of an organism. It is often caused by factors such as pathogens, environmental stressors, genetic predisposition, or a combination of these. Common diseases include infections, cancer, diabetes, heart disease, and respiratory illnesses. Symptoms may include fever, fatigue, muscle aches, nausea, vomiting, and other signs of physical distress. Treatment of a disease often involves medications, lifestyle changes, and surgery.
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