Parasympathetic ganglia that are located within the walls of the innervated organs are calledA) dorsal root ganglia. B) collateral ganglia.C) paravertebral ganglia. D) intramural ganglia.
Parasympathetic ganglia that are located within the walls of the innervated organs are called is D) intramural ganglia.
Intramural ganglia, also known as terminal ganglia, are an essential component of the parasympathetic nervous system. They are situated near or within the target organs, allowing for efficient and localized control of the organ's functions. These ganglia contain the cell bodies of postganglionic neurons, which send axons to innervate nearby tissues and regulate their activities. This is in contrast to other types of ganglia, such as dorsal root ganglia (associated with sensory neurons), collateral ganglia (associated with the sympathetic nervous system), and paravertebral ganglia (found in sympathetic trunk).
The parasympathetic nervous system plays a crucial role in maintaining homeostasis and promoting relaxation, digestion, and tissue repair. Intramural ganglia are vital for achieving these functions by facilitating precise control of organ function. Parasympathetic ganglia that are located within the walls of the innervated organs are called is D) intramural ganglia.
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How should products be dispersed and applied to a client's face when performing a facial?
A.from the top of the face down, and from the sides of the face inwards
B.from the bottom of the face up, and from the center of the face out
C.from the bottom of the face up, and from the sides of the face inwards
D.from the top of the face down, and from the center of the face out
Answer: I feel like it should be A
but don't get mad at me if it's not.
Explanation:
Describe how this polypeptide is then processed to make AFGP (4)
These specialized beta cells develop from polypeptide stem cells:
Chemical indicators.Some genes create mRNA, which is then utilised by the active gene to produce protein.The beta cells' cell structure is determined by this.These amino acids are arranged in a long chain and joined to one another by covalent peptide bonds to form proteins. Polypeptides are another name for proteins. Polypeptides. Proteins are created by joining several amino acids together to form polypeptides.
The bonding of two or more polypeptides results in the formation of proteins, which are then folded into the appropriate shape. a compound that is high in amino acids (the molecules that join together to form proteins).
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14) The measurable strength of the binding of an antibody to antigen is calledA) binding affinity.B) epitope.C) tolerance.D) virulence.
The measurable strength of the binding of an antibody to antigen is called binding affinity (option A).
This refers to the degree to which an antibody binds to its target antigen, and is determined by the shape and chemical properties of both the antibody and antigen. Epitope (option B) refers to the specific region on an antigen that is recognized and bound by an antibody. Tolerance (option C) refers to the ability of the immune system to recognize and not attack the body's own tissues. Virulence (option D) refers to the ability of a pathogen to cause disease. The correct option is thus A) binding affinity.
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Explain what is meant by nondisjunction and how it occurs and its results.
Nondisjunction is a type of chromosomal abnormality that occurs during cell division when chromosomes fail to separate properly. This can result in an abnormal number of chromosomes in the daughter cells, which can lead to genetic disorders.
Meiosis, the process by which cells divide to generate gametes (sperm or egg cells), can result in nondisjunction. Homologous chromosomes couple up and separate into two cells in normal meiosis, with each cell obtaining one copy of each chromosome.
The sister chromatids separate during the second round of division, resulting in four cells with one copy of each chromosome.
Nondisjunction, on the other hand, occurs when the chromosomes fail to split properly during meiosis, resulting in cells with an aberrant number of chromosomes.
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Which piece of evidence BEST supports the "out of Africa" model of the evolution of modern humans?
A) African Homo ergaster/erectus appear almost simultaneously with Asian Homo erectus, 1.6 to 1.9 million years ago.
B) In most regions, there does not seem to be a rapid replacement of earlier hominins by Homo sapiens.
C) African populations of humans display higher genetic diversity than all non-African populations combined. For example they show the greatest diversity in numbers at a short tandem repeat (STR) locus on chromosome 12.
D) Both Indonesian fossil Homo erectus and modern Australian aboriginal populations (which probably reached Australia by way of Indonesia) have unusually prominent and straight brow ridges.
Question 64
According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, the minimum number of water samples which must be submitted for bacteriological analysis for a public water supply depends upon the:
a. Daily population served
b. Population served
c. Area of the raw water supply
d. Amount of water treated
According to the Safe Drinking Water Act, the minimum number of water samples for bacteriological analysis for a public water supply depends upon the population served.
B is the correct answer.
The process of obtaining water samples and analyzing them to determine the amount of bacteria present is known as bacteriological water testing. This note explains the rationale behind evaluating water samples for the presence of pathogenic bacteria, namely faecal coliforms.
Three 100mL bottles of each sort of water should be collected for beverage or drinking water that has been packaged, as well as for drinking and washing purposes. It is necessary to transport collected water samples to the lab within 6-7 hours while keeping them cool and dark, preferably at 4-10 0C.
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The contraction of the heart is referred to as __________, and the relaxation between contractions is __________, respectively.
The contraction of the heart is referred to as cardiac cycle, and the relaxation between contractions is systole, respectively.
The heart is an incredible organ that is composed of four chambers, blood vessels, and valves. In order to maintain a healthy blood flow, the heart must contract and relax in a regular rhythm. This process is known as the cardiac cycle, and it is essential for life.
The contraction of the heart is referred to as systole. It is the phase of the cardiac cycle in which the ventricles contract and eject blood into the aorta and pulmonary artery. During systole, the atria relax and fill with blood from the vena cava and pulmonary veins. The relaxation between contractions is diastole.
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Describe the structure of a nucleosome, the basic unit of DNA packing in eukaryotic cells.
The structure of a nucleosome can be described as one that had DNA wrapped around proteins termed as histones.
A nucleosome is the basic repeating unit of DNA packaging in eukaryotic cells, consisting of DNA wrapped around a core of histone proteins. The structure of a nucleosome is often described as a "beads-on-a-string" arrangement, with the DNA wrapped around the histone core resembling the beads and the linker DNA between the nucleosomes resembling the string.
The core of the nucleosome is made up of an octamer of histone proteins, consisting of two copies each of histones H2A, H2B, H3, and H4. The histones have a globular domain that forms the core of the nucleosome and a flexible N-terminal "tail" that extends outward from the core. The histone tails can be modified by various chemical groups, including acetyl, methyl, and phosphate groups, which can affect gene expression and chromatin structure.
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A nucleosome, the basic unit of DNA packing in eukaryotic cells, consists of a segment of DNA wound around a core of histone proteins.
The nucleosome structure plays a crucial role in DNA compaction, organization, and regulation. The core of a nucleosome comprises eight histone proteins, including two copies of each histone H2A, H2B, H3, and H4, which together form an octameric complex. These proteins have a characteristic globular domain and a flexible N-terminal tail that extends outwards. Approximately 147 base pairs of DNA wrap around the histone core in about 1.65 turns of a left-handed superhelix, this DNA-histone interaction is facilitated by the positive charge of histone proteins, which attract the negatively charged phosphate groups in the DNA backbone.
Additionally, a fifth histone protein, H1, binds to the linker DNA near the nucleosome entry and exit sites, further stabilizing the nucleosome and promoting chromatin compaction. In conclusion, nucleosomes serve as the fundamental unit for packaging and organizing DNA in eukaryotic cells, enabling efficient storage and regulation of genetic information. A nucleosome, the basic unit of DNA packing in eukaryotic cells, consists of a segment of DNA wound around a core of histone proteins.
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What is the final event leading up to the formation of a solar system?
Answer: The final event leading up to the formation of a solar system was the " clean up of the small bodies".
Explanation:
The formation of a solar system happened a long time ago. It happened about 4.5 billion years ago. The last step was the longest event. The big bang theory explains the formation of planets.
What dye do you use to stain potato cell?
Answer:
Methylene Blue
Explanation:
What is an important role of photosystem II?
1. It absorbs light energy to generate high energy electrons for the electron transport chain.
2. It uses light energy to pull electrons off of oxygen.
3. It absorbs light using chlorophyll then uses the energy to power the flow of electrons through ATP synthase
4. It receives electrons from photosystem I then pass them to the electron transport chain
The important role of the photosystem II is it absorbs the light energy to generate the high energy electrons to the electron transport chain. The correct option is 1.
The Photosystem II is the very important protein complex present in the chloroplast. The photosystem is very important to the complete photosynthesis in the plant cells.
The Photosystem is defined the membrane protein from the super complex and this will executes the initial reaction for photosynthesis in the plants. This will captures the light from the sun and will catalyze the transmembrane charge separation. The Photosystems is the functional units of the photosynthesis. The option 1 correct.
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32) Which structure of the amniotic egg most closely surrounds the embryo?A) the chorionB) the yolk sacC) the allantoisD) the amnion
The answer is D) the amnion. The amnion is a thin, membrane-like structure that encloses the embryo and contains a fluid called amniotic fluid. The amniotic fluid helps to protect the developing embryo from physical shocks, temperature changes, and dehydration.
The amnion also helps to regulate the temperature of the embryo, and allows for the exchange of gases such as oxygen and carbon dioxide. The chorion is a membrane that surrounds the entire amniotic egg and helps to facilitate the exchange of gases between the embryo and the outside environment. The yolk sac is a structure that provides nutrients to the developing embryo, and the allantois is a sac-like structure that stores waste products and helps with respiration. While these structures are all important components of the amniotic egg, it is the amnion that directly surrounds and protects the developing embryo.
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A school-aged child is receiving 45 units of intermediate-acting insulin at 7:00 AM and 7:00 PM. What will the nurse tell the parents regarding a bedtime snack?
The nurse will likely advise the parents to provide a bedtime snack for their child to prevent hypoglycemia overnight.
Changes in blood sugar levels:
Since intermediate-acting insulin peaks around 4-12 hours after administration, there is a risk that the child's blood sugar levels could drop during the night. The snack should be a complex carbohydrate and protein combination, such as a small apple with peanut butter, to provide sustained energy throughout the night. The nurse may also recommend monitoring the child's blood sugar levels before bed and throughout the night to ensure they remain within a safe range.
Bedtime snack advised by the nurse:
The nurse will advise the parents that it's important for the child to have a bedtime snack. This is because the intermediate-acting insulin, which helps regulate blood sugar levels, can cause low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) during the night if the child doesn't have a snack before bedtime. The snack should contain a balance of carbohydrates and proteins to maintain stable blood sugar levels throughout the night. Examples of such snacks include whole-grain crackers with cheese, apple slices with peanut butter, or yogurt with berries. The parents should also monitor their child's blood sugar levels regularly to ensure they remain within a safe range.
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The nurse will advise the parents to provide their child with a bedtime snack to prevent hypoglycemia during the night. The snack should contain both carbohydrates and protein, such as a small piece of fruit and a cheese stick or a small serving of whole-grain crackers with peanut butter. The child should also have their blood glucose levels checked regularly to ensure they are within the target range. It is important for the parents to follow the healthcare provider's instructions and adjust the insulin dosage and snack accordingly.
A nurse would likely advise the parents of a school-aged child receiving 45 units of intermediate-acting insulin at 7:00 AM and 7:00 PM to provide a bedtime snack. This snack should contain complex carbohydrates and protein to help maintain stable blood glucose levels throughout the night, preventing hypoglycemia. It is important for the parents to monitor their child's blood sugar levels and consult with their healthcare provider for specific recommendations tailored to their child's needs.
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In PROKARYOTES, where does glycolysis, fermentation, and the citric acid cycle occur?
It takes place in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes. Pyruvate is metabolized in the mitochondrial matrix of eukaryotes. Oxidation happens in the cytoplasm of prokaryotes.
An enormous molecule with more than 60 subunits termed pyruvate dehydrogenase complex, an enzyme, is responsible for carrying out the oxidation reaction. Overall, pyruvate oxidation transforms the three-carbon molecule into the two-carbon molecule acetyl CoAstart text, C, o, A, end text, which is connected to Coenzyme A.
This results in a NADHstart text, N, A, D, H, end text and the release of one carbon dioxide molecule. The TCA cycle takes place inside the matrix of the mitochondria, whereas glycolysis happens in the cytoplasm. The citric-acid cycle happens in the cytoplasm of prokaryotic cells.
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Why does a muscle perform better when it is warmed up?
A muscle performs better when it is warmed up because warm muscles have increased blood flow and oxygen supply, allowing for improved energy production and delivery to the muscle cells.
Additionally, warm muscles have increased flexibility and range of motion, reducing the risk of injury and improving overall performance. This is due to the fact that warm muscles have a higher metabolic rate, allowing for faster and more efficient muscle contractions. Overall, warming up before exercise is an important part of any workout routine to optimize muscle performance and reduce the risk of injury. A muscle performs better when it is warmed up because warm muscles have increased blood flow and oxygen supply, allowing for improved energy production and delivery to the muscle cells.
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Does NAD+ or NADH have more energy?
NADH has more amount of energy as compared to NAD+ as it contains more number of bonds as well as electrons.
NADH basically has more amount of energy as compared to the NAD+ because it carries two extra electrons as well as one extra hydrogen ion. These extra electrons and the hydrogen ions are highly energetic and can be used to produce ATP which is basically the primary energy currency of the cell.
In the process of cellular respiration, NADH donates its electrons and hydrogen ions to the ETC or the electron transport chain, which produces ATP through a process called oxidative phosphorylation.
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Question 66
The implementation of a biosafety program begins with
a. an assessment of risk
b. the development of a biosafety manual
c. training the laboratory personner
d. consultation with CDC and NIH
a. an assessment of risk. The implementation of a biosafety program begins with an assessment of risk. Before any other steps are taken, it is important to understand the potential hazards and risks associated with the work being done in the laboratory.
This assessment will inform the development of a biosafety manual, which outlines the policies and procedures for safe work practices. Training for laboratory personnel can then be developed based on the biosafety manual, ensuring that all staff are aware of the potential hazards and know how to work safely. While consultation with CDC and NIH may be helpful in developing a biosafety program, it is not the first step in the process. The focus should be on identifying and assessing the risks associated with the work being done, and developing policies and procedures to mitigate those risks. Ultimately, the goal of a biosafety program is to protect the health and safety of laboratory personnel, as well as the general public.
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Describe how the results of the experiment would change if the temperature of the tanks was decreased.
The effect of decreasing the temperature of the tanks in an experiment would depend on the type of experiment being conducted.
However, in general, decreasing the temperature would likely result in slower chemical reactions and lower rates of biological activity. This could impact variables such as growth rates, metabolic rates, and enzyme activity, potentially leading to altered results.
Additionally, certain organisms or species may be more sensitive to changes in temperature, which could lead to shifts in community composition or changes in behavior. Ultimately, the specific impacts of decreasing the temperature would need to be considered in the context of the particular experiment and the organisms or systems being studied.
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Procedure for Protein electrophoresis where create standard curve
Protein electrophoresis is a laboratory technique used to separate and analyze proteins based on their charge, size, and shape.Overall, protein electrophoresis is a powerful tool in the study of protein structure and function, as well as in the diagnosis of various diseases.
Sample preparation: The protein sample is extracted and purified from the biological material of interest.
Gel preparation: A gel matrix is prepared, usually made of polyacrylamide, and is poured into a mold. The gel is then allowed to polymerize.
Loading the sample: The protein sample is mixed with a buffer solution and then loaded onto the gel.
Electrophoresis: The gel is placed in an electrophoresis chamber filled with a buffer solution. An electric field is applied, which causes the proteins to move through the gel based on their charge and size.
Staining: After electrophoresis, the gel is stained with a dye to visualize the separated proteins.
Analysis: The separated proteins can be analyzed using various methods, such as densitometry or Western blotting, to determine their quantity and identity.
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The gene that encodes small-subunit ribosomal RNA is useful for reconstructing the
phylogeny of all organisms, because ________.
A) the gene is subject to strong stabilizing selection
B) the gene's function has stayed unchanged in all organisms
C) all organisms have ribosomes with similar composition and structure
D) all organisms have the gene
E) All of the above.
The gene that encodes small-subunit ribosomal RNA is useful for reconstructing the phylogeny of all organisms because of all the reasons mentioned in options A, B, C, and D (E) All of the above.
A) The gene is subject to strong stabilizing selection, which means that changes in the sequence are minimal, and any variation is selected against. This allows the gene to be conserved across different organisms and thus, useful for phylogenetic studies.
B) The gene's function has stayed unchanged in all organisms, ensuring that the small-subunit ribosomal RNA has a consistent role in the process of protein synthesis across different species. This makes it an excellent marker for comparing evolutionary relationships.
C) All organisms have ribosomes with similar composition and structure. Since ribosomes are essential cellular components for protein synthesis, they are present in all living organisms, making the gene encoding for small-subunit ribosomal RNA universally applicable for phylogenetic reconstruction.
D) All organisms have the gene, which means that it is ubiquitous across life forms. This universal presence makes it an ideal candidate for phylogenetic studies, as it can be used to compare organisms from different domains of life, such as bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes.
In summary, the gene that encodes small-subunit ribosomal RNA is useful for reconstructing the phylogeny of all organisms due to its strong stabilizing selection, unchanged function, similar composition and structure of ribosomes, and presence in all organisms.
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What were Mendel's conclusions that led to the Law of Segregation?
Mendel's conclusions that led to the Law of Segregation were based on his experiments with pea plants.
He observed that certain traits were inherited in a predictable pattern and did not blend together in offspring. From this, he concluded that there were discrete units of inheritance that were passed from parent to offspring, which he called "factors" (later known as genes).
Mendel also discovered that these factors come in pairs, with one inherited from each parent, and that they segregate (separate) during gamete formation. This led to the Law of Segregation, which states that the two alleles (alternate forms of a gene) for a trait segregate during gamete formation, such that each gamete carries only one allele for each trait.
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Suppose X-rays caused a sequence change in the TATA box of a particular gene's promoter. How would that affect transcription of the gene?
Suppose X-rays caused a sequence change in the TATA box of a particular gene's promoter. The transcription of the gene could resulting in the upregulation or misregulation of gene expression
The TATA box is a crucial component of the promoter region, playing a significant role in initiating transcription by serving as a binding site for transcription factors and RNA polymerase. A sequence change in the TATA box could disrupt the binding of these essential components, leading to a decrease in transcription efficiency or even the complete cessation of transcription for the affected gene.
Alternatively, the sequence change might create a novel binding site for other transcription factors, potentially resulting in the upregulation or misregulation of gene expression, this could lead to an imbalance in the cellular processes controlled by the affected gene, potentially causing negative consequences for the organism. Overall, a sequence change in the TATA box due to X-ray exposure could significantly impact the transcription of the gene, with potential downstream effects on cellular function and organismal health. Suppose X-rays caused a sequence change in the TATA box of a particular gene's promoter. The transcription of the gene could resulting in the upregulation or misregulation of gene expression.
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Which structure is directly correlated with the production of genetic variability in the daughter cells produced during meiosis?ChiasmaSynapsisCentromereTetrad
The structure that is directly correlated with the production of genetic variability in the daughter cells produced during meiosis is the chiasma.
Chiasma is a physical connection or exchange of genetic material that occurs between non-sister chromatids during the process of meiosis. During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange segments of genetic material through a process called synapsis. The resulting structure is called a tetrad, which contains four chromatids.
The chiasma occurs at the point where the non-sister chromatids cross over and exchange genetic material, leading to a shuffling of genetic material and the production of genetically diverse daughter cells. The centromere, on the other hand, is a specialized structure that holds the sister chromatids together during cell division and plays no role in the production of genetic variability. Therefore, the chiasma is the structure that directly contributes to genetic variability during meiosis.
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Golden jackals, which are wolf-like canines, will trail tigers and eat their leftovers. I What kind of relationship exists between these organisms?
A. Commensalism
B. Mutualism
C. Competition
D. Predation
The correct option is A. Commensalism, the relationship that exists between golden jackals and tigers, where the jackals trail species and eat their leftovers, is an example of commensalism.
What does the relationship between a tiger and a golden jackal look like?Commensalism also exists in the connection between tigers and golden jackals. The jackal warns the tiger of a slaughter and eats on the tiger's leftover prey. As the tiger does not provide anything to the jackal, this is not a mutualistic connection.
What does symbiotic mutualism in animals mean?They can appear in a variety of forms, such as commensalism and parasitism (when one species benefits while the other suffers) (where one species benefits and the other is neither harmed nor helped).
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What are five natural factors that reduce outdoor air pollution?
There are many natural factors that can help reduce outdoor air pollution. Here are five examples: rain, Wind, Vegetation, Sunlight and Topography.
There are numerous natural variables that can aid in the reduction of outdoor air pollution. Here are five illustrations:
Rain: Rain can assist wash pollutants from the air and deposit them on the ground, lowering air pollution levels. Wind can assist disperse pollutants and carry them away from inhabited regions, lowering air pollution levels in certain locations. Trees, plants, and other vegetation can absorb toxins from the air via their leaves and other parts, so helping to reduce air pollution levels. Sunlight can assist reduce air pollution by breaking down some contaminants in the air, such as nitrogen oxides. Topography: A region's physical features, such as mountains or valleys, can influence air circulation patterns.For such more question on air pollution:
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3. The % of "G" in a DNA sample is G = 36%. Calculate the % of C, A, and T.
Since G = C, the G portion is 36 percent, making the G content and the C content both 36 percent. AT has a composition of 28 percent (100 divided by 72).
How many of the 5386 bases in DNA are there?Findings from a DNA examination of a creature with 5386 nucleotides show that A = 29%, G = 17%, C = 32%, and T = 17%. A = 29%, G = 17%, C = 32%, and T = 17% can be found when the DNA of a creature with 5386 nucleotides is analysed, according to Chargaff's rule. It can be inferred from the Chargaff's rule.
What's a nucleotide's structure?A sugar molecule, presumably ribose with RNA or deoxyribose, makes up a nucleotide linked to a base containing nitrogen and a phosphate group (as in DNA). Adenine (A), a base called (C), guanine ( G ), (T) are the elements that are used in DNA. Thymine is replaced by the nucleotide uracil (U) in RNA.
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Cells acquire low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by
A. phagocytosis.
B. pinocytosis.
C. receptor-mediated endocytosis.
D. diffusion.
C. Cells acquire low-density lipoproteins (LDLs) by receptor-mediated endocytosis.
LDLs are important carriers of cholesterol in the blood, and cells acquire them by binding to specific receptors on the cell surface. This triggers the process of receptor-mediated endocytosis, whereby the LDL-receptor complex is internalized into the cell by the formation of clathrin-coated vesicles.
Once inside the cell, the LDL is degraded, and the cholesterol is released for use by the cell. Phagocytosis is a process by which cells engulf large particles, such as bacteria, whereas pinocytosis is a process by which cells take up fluid and small molecules from the extracellular environment.
Diffusion is a process by which molecules move from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration, but it does not involve receptor binding or active transport.
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Elongation of the polypeptide continues as long as a new tRNA molecule situates in the: M site of the ribosome. P site of the ribosome. E site of the ribosome. A site of the ribosome.
The correct answer is the A site of the ribosome. During translation, the ribosome reads the mRNA and assembles the polypeptide chain by adding amino acids one by one.
The tRNA molecules carry the amino acids and bind to the codons on the mRNA in the A site of the ribosome. Once the correct codon is recognized, the amino acid is added to the growing polypeptide chain in the P site of the ribosome. The tRNA molecule then moves to the E site of the ribosome and is released, allowing the next tRNA molecule to bind to the A site and continue elongation of the polypeptide chain. The correct answer is the A site of the ribosome. During translation, the ribosome reads the mRNA and assembles the polypeptide chain by adding amino acids one by one.
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One of the ways chromatin remodeling occurs to allow gene expression is _____ residues of histones