Start by applying light pressure. Lymph nodes are tiny and simple to miss, therefore it's crucial to apply little pressure when palpating them.
How should palpable normal lymph nodes feel?Normal lymph nodes are tiny, measuring 3 to 7 mm, often spool-shaped, smooth, finely edged, elastic in substance, and not fused with the skin or underlying tissues. They are also painless to the touch. In the neck, a typical lymph node is scarcely noticeable.What does having palpable lymph nodes mean?While a hard, swollen, non-sensitive lymph node palpable in a female patient's axilla may be an indication of breast cancer, a soft, tender lymph node palpable close to the angle of the jaw may indicate an infected tonsil.
Do lymph nodes need to be palpable?There are about 600 lymph nodes in the body, but only those in the submandibular, axillary, or inguinal regions can typically be felt by healthy individuals. Nodes that are aberrant in their size, consistency, or number are referred to as lymphadenopathy.learn more about palpating lymph nodes here
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The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient
A. takes very large doses of vitamin D to supplement during chemotherapy for breast cancer
B. has fatty stools from taking an OTC weight loss product that decreases absorption of fat
C. has chronic heart failure that is treated with diuretics
D. experiences anorexia and chronic oliguric renal failure
Hi !
The nurse provides teaching regarding dietary intake of potassium to avoid an electrolyte imbalance when a patient.
D. experiences anorexia and chronic oliguric renal failure
a sedentary man who weighs 95 kg would need to eat how many grams of protein per day, based on the rda?
A sedentary man who weighs 95 kg would need to eat 76 grams of protein per day, based on the RDA.
The Recommended Dietary Allowance (RDA) for protein is 0.8 grams per kilogram of body weight. This means that for a sedentary man who weighs 95 kg, the recommended amount of protein per day would be:
0.8 grams/kg × 95 kg = 76 grams of protein per day
It is important to note that the RDA is a minimum recommendation and that individual protein needs may vary based on age, activity level, and other factors. However, for a sedentary man who weighs 95 kg, 76 grams of protein per day would be a good starting point.
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the nurse would implement which actions in the care of a child who is having a seizure? select all that apply.
1.Time the seizure.
2.Restrain the child.
3.Stay with the child.
4.Insert an oral airway.
5.Loosen clothing around the child's neck.
6.Place the child in a lateral side-lying position.
1, 3, 5
Justification: A seizure is a disease caused by excessive and disorganised brain neuronal discharges that activate the corresponding motor & sensory organs.
The youngster is positioned seated on her side inside a lateral view during a seizure. Aspiration is avoided by positioning the infant on the side since saliva drains out of the mouth's corner. Because doing so could harm the child, the child is not restrained. A seizure is a disease caused by excessive and disorganised brain neuronal discharges that activate the corresponding motor & sensory organs. To guarantee a clear airway, the nurse would remove any clothes that was around the child's neck. When a child is having a seizure, nothing should be put in their mouth because doing so could harm their teeth, gums, or mouth. To lower the likelihood of damage, the nurse would remain with the kid.
(The nurse is creating a plan of care for a child who is at risk for seizures. Which interventions apply if the child has a seizure? Select all that apply.
1. Time the seizure.
2. Restrain the child.
3. Stay with the child.
4. Place the child in a prone position.
5. Move furniture away from the child.
6. Insert a padded tongue blade in the child's mouth.)
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at a group therapy session, a member, in a teasing manner, makes several negative remarks about the nurse's appearance and behavior. which response is best?
customer service A nurse's main responsibility is to take care of patients by attending to their physical requirements, avoiding illness, and treating medical disorders.
What should you do if someone trivializes your emotions?Be humorous. Use comedy to deflect insulting conduct. Make light of the insulting remark or exaggerate it to create a joke. If someone does this, it may help them recognize how ridiculous their statement is when it is not supported by reliable information or proof.
Which nurse's words might minimize a patient's worries and minimize their feelings?"You are making assumptions too quickly." One example of a nontherapeutic communication block that minimizes feelings is this nurse statement. When the nurse incorrectly assesses the severity .
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a mother nurses her newborn boy with breast milk because he needs nutrients. this is an example of a ________ to explain why a mother nurses.
It is an example of a teleological approach.
What are the four medical ethics theories?In the fields of medicine and the biomedical sciences, principlism is a popular ethical philosophy. The focus is placed on the four core ethical principles of autonomy, beneficence, non-maleficence, and justice—principles that are held by the majority of ethical theories—and these are combined with virtues and sound judgment.What is the teleological model's primary goal?According to Mises, a person's behavior is teleological since it is determined by the reality of their chosen aims. In other words, people choose what they think is the best way to get a desired outcome or end.What makes anything teleological?Greek terms telos and logos are the source of the word "teleological."
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The results of which of the folloing crosses allowed T.H. Morgan to conclude that the hite eye trait in Drosophila was not autosomal recessive?
Answer Choices
A) Crosses between true-breeding red eyed females and white eyes males
B) Crosses between true-breeding white-eyed females and white-eyes males
C) Crosses between true-breeding white-eyed females and red-eyed males
D) Crosses between true-breeding red-eyed females and red-eyed males
E) None of the crosses would give a different result than what would be expected if the white-eye trait was autosomal recessive.
C) T.H. Morgan came to the conclusion that the hite eye characteristic in Drosophila was not autosomal recessive based on the outcomes of crosses between true-breeding white-eyed females and red-eyed males.
Describe Drosophila.Drosophila is a genus of flies that is part of the Drosophilidae family. Its members are frequently referred to as "little fruit flies" or (less frequently) pomace flies, vinegar flies, or wine flies since several species are known to loiter around rotting or overripe fruit.
These should not be mistaken with the allied family of tephritids, generally known as fruit flies (or "real fruit flies"); tephritids feed predominantly on ripe or unripe fruit, and many species, particularly the Mediterranean fruit fly, are considered harmful agricultural pests. Drosophila melanogaster, a particular species, has been extensively utilised in genetics research and is a typical model organism in developmental biology.
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Temperature is an example of a variable that uses (select one):1. the ordinal scale2. the interval scale3. either ordinal or ratio scale4. the ratio scale
2. The interval scale. Since 0 is not the lowest conceivable temperature, temperatures are expressed on an interval scale, whether in Celsius or Fahrenheit.
A scale with an interval has order and a meaningful difference between two values. Temperature (Farenheit), temperature (Celcius), pH, SAT score (200-800), and credit score are a few examples of interval variables (300-850). As a result, temperature can be stated in a set of ordered terms, such as extremely hot, very hot, hot, moderately hot, slightly hot, and so on. For instance, a temperature of 20 to 30 degrees Celsius can be regarded as hot. Since the spaces between the numbers represent actual spaces, they are known as interval variables.
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he walls of arteries and veins have three layers called
A. tunica intima, tunica media, tunica adventitia
B. tunica interna, tunica intima, tunica externa
C. tunica adventitia, tunica intima, tunica externa
D. tunica intima, tunica propria, tunica externa
The walls of arteries and veins have three layers known as tunics, and the correct answer is A. The innermost layer, tunica intima, consists of a thin layer of endothelial cells that forms the inner lining of the blood vessels.
As per the question given,
The tunica media is the middle layer and is composed of smooth muscle cells and elastic fibres. The tunica media is thicker in arteries than in veins and helps to regulate blood pressure and blood flow. The outermost layer, tunica adventitia, is composed of connective tissue and contains nerves and blood vessels that supply the vessel wall. The tunica adventitia is thicker in veins than in arteries and helps to anchor the vessels to surrounding tissues.
Understanding the structure of blood vessels and the functions of their various layers is important for understanding how blood flows through the circulatory system and how diseases such as atherosclerosis can affect blood vessel health.
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The combining forms or terms that literally mean "rib" are:
The general terminology that is used to represent "rib" are: Cost/o and pleur/o.
The ribs are involved in the formation of rib cage that encompasses the thoracic cavity. The ribs are involved in the process of breathing involved in the contraction and expansion of the thoracic cavity. Twelve pairs of ribs are present. The costovertebral joint connects each rib posteriorly to two thoracic vertebrae. The first rib only articulates with the first thoracic vertebra, which is an exception to this norm. The ribs are divided into three groups based on how they adhere to the sternum: true, false, and floating ribs.
The costal cartilages of ribs 1 through 7, which immediately articulate with the sternum, are considered to be the genuine ribs. The sternocostal joints serve as their points of contact with the sternum.
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what is a drug known as during the first three phases of clinical trials?
The drug is known as an Investigational new drug.
What exactly does "Investigational Novel Drug" mean?a substance that has undergone laboratory testing and has been given the U.S. Food and Drug Administration's (FDA) approval to be tested on humans. Clinical trials are used to examine the efficacy and safety of novel medications under development.What is a formulation for an experimental novel drug?A medicine or biological product that has not received general approval from the Food and Drug Administration is known as an investigational new drug (IND) (FDA). It is tested for safety and effectiveness in a clinical trial. The phrase also refers to biological items utilized in vitro for diagnostic purposes.learn more about Investigational drug here
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A pregnant​ 22-year-old female patient is unsure of her due date. The fundus is felt at the xiphoid process. What is the estimated gestational​ age?
A. 26 weeks
B. 32 weeks
C. 20 weeks
D. 38 weeks
Option c is the correct answer. The estimated gestational age is around 20 weeks based on feeling the fundus at the xiphoid process.
In light of the area of the fundus, which is felt at the xiphoid cycle, the assessed gestational age is about 20 weeks. The fundus commonly arrives at the level of the umbilicus at something like 20 weeks of incubation and afterward rises around one centimeter each week. Consequently, in the event that the fundus is felt over the umbilicus, it would propose a gestational age more noteworthy than 20 weeks, and on the off chance that it is felt beneath the umbilicus, it would recommend a gestational age under 20 weeks.
The fundus of the uterus commonly arrives at the level of the umbilicus at about 20 weeks of development and rises around one centimeter each week. Feeling the fundus at the xiphoid cycle proposes a gestational time of something like 20 weeks.
Thus, the right response is C. 20 weeks.
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Which is not a common syringe size? a 2 cc, b 3 cc, c 12 cc, d 30 cc
All of the syringe sizes listed (2 cc, 3 cc, 12 cc, 30 cc) are common and widely used in medical settings for various purposes such as administering medications, vaccines, and drawing blood. Therefore, there is no syringe size listed that is not common.
For example, a 2 cc (cubic centimeter) syringe is commonly used for administering small doses of medication, while a 3 cc syringe is commonly used for administering vaccines or drawing blood samples. A 12 cc syringe may be used for larger doses of medication or for draining fluids from the body, while a 30 cc syringe may be used for irrigation or for larger fluid removal procedures. So, there is no syringe size listed that is not common in medical practice.
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What does specific gravity in urine indicate?
In a laboratory test, a test called urine specific gravity can be used to determine the concentration among all chemical particles there in urine.
What sort of laboratory experiment would that be?Exams for screening (Examples: complete blood count, pap smear, urinalysis) viral disease tests (Examples: flu, strep throat, mononucleosis) testing for STDs (Examples: chlamydia, gonorrhea, HIV) markers for tumors and cancer (Examples: CA 125, PSA, AFP, CEA).
What the Meaning of a laboratory test?a process by which a sample of the person's blood, feces, or other bodily fluid is examined by a doctor. The results of laboratory tests can be used to make diagnoses, design treatments, evaluate the efficacy of those treatments, or track the progression of a disease.
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1 in ___ kids become addicted to marijuana and this number is even higher for nicotine.
10 year old. For both boys and females, the peak risk of adult nicotine dependency is associated with the start of regular use at around the age of 10, with an enhanced risk continuing until the age of 20.
When frequent use begins between the ages of 9 and 18, females are at a noticeably higher risk of becoming dependent than boys are. According to a UN official on Thursday, 13% of drug and substance abusers in India are under the age of 20, which necessitates scaling up community intervention and preventive methods aimed at teenagers. Between April 2020 and March 2021, 11,013 young people contacted alcohol and drug services.
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Using a transvaginal approach, the first structure visualized within a gestational sac is which one of the following structures?
a. primary yolk sac
b. secondary yolk sac
c. amnion
d. embryo
A. Primary yolk sac is the first structure visualized within a gestational sac using a transvaginal approach.
The gestational sac is the first structure that may be seen on ultrasound during early pregnancy. The major yolk sac is usually the first component visible inside the gestational sac. During the second week of pregnancy, the major yolk sac develops and is crucial for the embryo's early growth. Until the placenta is fully developed and takes over, it supplies nutrition to the growing embryo.
Other components within the gestational sac, such as the secondary yolk sac, amnion, and embryo, will become evident as the pregnancy goes on. The development of the digestive system is aided by the formation of the secondary yolk sac, which happens around the fourth week of pregnancy.
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A nurse is reviewing the medical record of a client with bipolar disorder. The nurse would most likely expect to find a history of which of the following? A. Panic disorder B. Night sweats C. Anxiety
When reading a patient's medical file who has bipolar disorder, a nurse would most likely anticipate discovering a history of (C) anxiety among the following.
What does bipolar disorder mean?A mental health condition called manic depression, formerly known as bipolar disorder, causes abrupt mood changes, including emotional highs (mania or hypomania), and lows (depression). When you have depression, you might feel gloomy or hopeless and lose interest in or enjoyment of most activities. Bipolar disorder is a type of mood disorder that can cause extreme mood swings: The rare severe "up," exhilaration, impatience, or energy may occur. You may occasionally feel "down," miserable, callous, or helpless. This is referred to as a depressive episode.
What age does bipolar start?Bipolar disorder can occur at any age, but it tends to happen most frequently between the ages of 15 and 19 and much less frequently after the age of 40. Men and women of all backgrounds are equally prone to suffer from bipolar disorder. Patients with bipolar disorder have a wide range of mood swing patterns. Bipolar disorder is a mental illness that causes uncharacteristic swings in mood, energy, level of activity, focus, and ability to complete daily tasks. Manic depression or manic-depressive illness were its initial names.
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what does msd stand for?
Exposure to physical and/or psychosocial hazards at work increases the likelihood of musculoskeletal disorders.
How do MSD risks work?
Fundamental MSD dangers:
Awkward stances employees applying strong forces. high repetition, fixed positions (and other time-related issues) Vibration. localized contact strain.
What is an MSD evaluation?
The most recent tool offered by the HSE is the MSD assessment tool. It creates an all-in-one digital solution by combining the well-known MSD assessment guides MAC, ART, and RAPP. The MSD tool makes it simple for employers and safety advocates to evaluate the hazards associated with physically demanding activities.
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what is med-surg nursing
Which patient should be evaluted for potential toxic effects of antiepileptic therapy?
A. The patient with a primidone level of 10 mcg/mL
B. The patient with a phenobarbital level of 8 mcg/mL
C. The patient with a valproic acid level of 50 mcg/mL
D. The patient with a carbemazepine level of 15 mcg/mL
The patient with a carbemazepine level of 15 mcg/mL should be evaluted for potential toxic effects of antiepileptic therapy.
The carbemazepine value, which has a therapeutic range of 4 to 12 mcg/mL, is the only one given that is over therapeutic plasma levels. The term "toxicology" refers to the study of toxicology. The other patients had therapeutic ranges that are within (valproic acid, primidone) or below (phenobarbital).
A medication that controls aberrant electrical activity in the brain to prevent or cure seizures or convulsions. Antiepileptic medications are prescribed to treat epilepsy and other seizure disorders. Antiepileptic medicines are given to people who have epilepsy in order to reduce the number, intensity, and/or length of seizures. While seizure-free living is the optimum treatment outcome, seizures can still occur even on antiepileptic medication.
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tthe typical american diet today differs from that of 1970. determine whether americans generally eat more or less of the item in the left-hand column now than they did in 1970.
The sequence and pattern of diet may gradually change with respect to time. Americans also express these types of changes in their diet chart.
Consumption is less now compared to 1970: Red meat, Milk, and, Eggs.Consumption is more now compared to 1970: Refined grains, poultry, cereals, added sugar and fat, total calories, cheese, fish, etc. What do you mean by Diet?Diet may be defined as the overall collection of food items that are consumed by individuals in order to maintain all life processes in a normal and well-regulated way.
According to the context of this question, Americans generally consume 29% more refined grains and cereals, mostly in the form of bread, pastries, and other baked goods, than they did in 1970 the equivalent of 122.1 pounds a year.
Therefore, the sequence and pattern of diet may gradually change with respect to time. Americans also express these types of changes in their diet chart.
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based on the client’s history and the nursing assessment, what vitamin and minerals levels might be expected?
"Low concentrations of vitamin D, B, as well as magnesium" may be anticipated based on the Britney Cooper's medical history as well as the nursing assessment.
Explain the role of vitamin D, B and magnesium?Magnesium aids in vitamin D activation, which controls calcium phosphate homeostasis to affect bone formation and maintenance.
Magnesium, which serves as a cofactor in different enzymes in the liver and the kidneys, appears to be necessary for all of the enzymes which metabolize vitamin D.
The stated question is-
Leggings but also an oversized t-shirt are what Britney is sporting. Her mother claims she had to help her with the shower because her hair was still wet. Britney's mother claims that her daughter washes her hands frequently, but the nurse notices that her hands were red and chapped. As she rests her head on her mother's shoulder, Britney starts sobbing. While she answers the psychiatrist's queries, her speech is hurried, and she makes terrible eye contact.Thus, "Low concentrations of vitamin D, B, as well as magnesium" may be anticipated based on the Britney Cooper's medical history as well as the nursing assessment.
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The complete question is-
Britney Cooper is a 22-year-old white, single female who is accompanied to a mental health assessment center for evaluation by her parents. Britney is wearing leggings and an oversized t-shirt. Her hair is still damp from a shower with which her mother says she had to assist her. The nurse notes that Britney's hands are red and chapped, and Britney's mother states that Britney washes her hands repeatedly. Britney is crying as she leans on her mother's shoulder. Her speech is pressured as she responds to the psychiatrist's questions, and eye contact is poor. Britney denies any history of substance abuse, and her parents corroborate this stating Britney rarely leaves the house. When asked what her biggest concern is, Britney responds "I just can't take it anymore. My mind won't stop torturing me." The psychiatrist recommends hospitalization and Britney agrees to the admission.
Based on the client's history and the nursing assessment, what vitamin and minerals levels might be expected?
What characteristics would a nurse list when defining mental health as a state of well-being? Select all that apply.
A. Expressing happiness and hope
B. Possesses healthy coping strategies
C. Being free of mental and emotional stressors
D. Demonstrating average or above average intelligence
E. Performing within one's abilities and recovering from minor failures
If your mental health is in good shape, you may experience positive emotions like happiness, love, joy, and compassion, as well as a general sense of contentment with your life. Also, you are probably going to feel that you are contributing to society and that you are a part of a community.
What are the top five factors influencing mental health?Feeling as though your life has value and purpose. a feeling of accomplishment: completing tasks that make you feel competent or successful. Emotional control and calmness are indicators of emotional stability. Resilience is the capacity to handle life's hardships.
What essential quality of mental health?Feeling well and performing well go hand in hand to make up positive mental health and well-being. Key elements include feeling happy, joyful, and other positive emotions.
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Which feedback given by the registered nurse to the delegatee is constructive? Select all that apply.
1. "Well done. Nice job."
2. "I expected you to do better."
3. "You can do better when you concentrate."
4. "You performed that procedure safely and professionally."
5. "Let me demonstrate a more effective way to perform the task."
You performed that procedure safely and professionally is the feedback given by registered nurse to the delegatee is constructive. Thus, option 4 is correct.
What is constructive feedback?Constructive feedback is a supportive way to improve an area of opportunity. It is combination of positive criticism with coaching skills.
By giving constructive feedback, one can establish trust, balance positive and negative, be specific and can talk without making things personal.
Key features of constructive feedback:
1. It is individualized and relevant
2. Goal-directed
3. Well timed and expected
4. It is behavior focused
Constructive feedback is balanced perspective whether feedback is ultimately positive or negative.
Therefore, option 4 is correct.
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A client in shock develops a central venous pressure (CVP) of 2 mm Hg. Which prescribed intervention should the nurse implement first?
1. Increase the rate of O2 flow
2. Obtain arterial blood gas results
3. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
4. Increase the rate of intravenous (IV) fluids
In this scenario, the client in shock has a low CVP of 2 mm Hg, which indicates Hypovolemia. The priority intervention in this situation is to increase the intravenous (IV) fluids rate to help restore intravascular volume and improve perfusion. Therefore, the correct answer is 4) Increase the rate of intravenous (IV) fluids.
What is Hypovolemia?Hypovolemia is a medical condition characterized by a decreased blood volume in the body. It occurs when fluids and electrolytes are lost from the extracellular fluid compartment, leading to a decrease in intravascular volume.
What are the symptoms and treatment of Hypovolemia?Symptoms of Hypovolemia include dizziness, lightheadedness, fainting, low blood pressure, tachycardia, dry mouth, thirst, and decreased urine output. Treatment involves fluid replacement therapy with oral or intravenous fluids to restore intravascular volume and correct the electrolyte imbalances.
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Which information would the nurse include when teaching a patient who will be traveling internationally about trade name drugs and prescriptions?
Select all that apply.
a Trade names of drugs are the same in all countries.
b Language barriers may prevent obtaining the correct drug.
c Trade names for the same drug can differ between countries.
d Drugs with the same trade name may have different active ingredients in different countries.
e It is safe to have prescriptions written in one country and filled in any other country.
B. Language barriers may prevent obtaining the correct drug. C Trade names for the same drug can differ between countries. d. Drugs with the same trade name may have different active ingredients are correct.
A medication's brand name is the name given by the business that manufactures the drug and is ordinarily simple to use for sales and advertising purposes.
The brand name is also known as the trade name. The FDA's guidelines refer to the brand name as the proprietary name. A drug product's brand name is its proprietary name.
A generic drug is one that contains the same active component also as a brand-name drug, is administered in the same manner, and has the same effect. They do not have to have the same excipients as the name-brand product, and individuals can only be sold after the patent on the brand-name drug expires.
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i am a neurosurgeon. I was the first surgeon to successfully separate conjoined twins who were joined at the head. In 2008, I was awarded the Presidential Medal of Freedom by President George W. bushes. Who is him?
9.In which stage of shock is a patient who has lost 1200 mL of blood, who has normal bloodpressure when supine, but who experiences orthostatic hypotension upon standing?a.Class I, Initial Stageb.Class II, Compensated Stagec.Class III, Progressive Staged.Class IV, Refractory StageANS: BIn compensated stage hemorrhage (Class II), the blood loss is between 750 and 1500 mL.Blood pressure remains normal when the patient is supine but decreases upon standing. Ininitial stage hemorrhage (Class I) blood loss is up to 750 mL, and the patient’svital signsremain normal. Class III hemorrhage (progressive stage) is blood loss of 1500 and 2000 mL.Vital signs are changing. Severe Class IV hemorrhage (refractory stage) occurs when morethan 2000 mL is lost. The patient is lethargic, with severe hypotension.Pathophysiology 6th Edition Banasik Test Bank
Answer:
Explanation:
Based on the information given, the patient is in Class II, the compensated stage of hemorrhagic shock. In this stage, the patient has lost between 750 and 1500 mL of blood and experiences orthostatic hypotension, which means that their blood pressure drops when standing up. However, when the patient is supine, their blood pressure is still normal.
In Class I, the initial stage of hemorrhagic shock, the patient has lost up to 750 mL of blood, but their vital signs are still within normal range. In Class III, the progressive stage, the patient has lost between 1500 and 2000 mL of blood, and their vital signs are changing. In Class IV, the refractory stage, the patient has lost more than 2000 mL of blood, and they may experience lethargy and severe hypotension.
Which one of the following statements best reflects the 2012 U.S. Preventive Services Task Force (USPSTF) recommendations regarding cervical cancer screening to prevent invasive cervical cancer?
A. Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 21 with cytology (Pap smear) and continue through age 65
B. Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 15 with cytology (Pap smear) and continue through age 50
C. Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 30 with cytology (Pap smear) and continue through age 50
D. Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 35 with cytology (Pap smear) and continue through age 70
Routine cervical screening should be performed starting at age 30 with cytology (Pap smear) and continue through age 65. This might be due to the fact that they are expecting, are nursing, had a hysterectomy, or underwent pelvic radiation.
What are the US recommendations for cervical cancer screening from 2012?National organizations released guidelines in 2012 that support later ages for screening and longer screening intervals (10, 11). For women between the ages of 30 and 64, co-testing with cytology and HPV testing at 5-year intervals is now the recommended or acceptable technique for cervical cancer screening (10, 11).
What are the most recent guidelines for screening for cervical cancer?Every five years, for all women with cervixes between the ages of 25 and 65, the American Cancer Society advises cervical cancer screening with an HPV test alone. An HPV/Pap co-test can be used to screen people every five years if HPV testing alone is not accessible.
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The nurse is providing care to a patient with gross ascites who is maintaining a position of comfort in the high semi-Fowler's position. What is the nurse's priority assessment of this patient?
a) Urinary output related to increased sodium retention
b) Peripheral vascular assessment related to immobility
c) Skin assessment related to increase in bile salts
d) Respiratory assessment related to increased thoracic pressure
The respiratory evaluation of the patient with gross ascites in relation to increasing thoracic pressure is the nurse's top priority, the correct option is (d).
A patient with severe ascites who is comfortably positioned in the high semi-position Fowler's is receiving care from the nurse. Nursing interventions include evaluation and documentation of intake and output, belly circumference, and daily weight to check fluid status if a patient with ascites due to liver disease is hospitalized.
Because high amounts of ascites might compress the thoracic cavity and prevent appropriate lung expansion, the nurse also carefully examines the patient's respiratory condition. To evaluate electrolyte balance, therapeutic response, and encephalopathy signs, the nurse checks serum levels of ammonia, creatinine, and electrolytes.
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What is the ICD-10 code for rheumatoid arthritis multiple sites?
The ICD-10 code for rheumatoid arthritis at multiple sites is: M05. 79.
ICD stands for International Classification of Diseases. It is a worldwide diagnostic tool used for epidemiology, health management and clinical purposes. ICD-10 is the tenth version of the system of ICD where they establish codes that signifies for a particular diagnoses, symptom or trait.
Rheumatoid arthritis is an autoimmune disease. It is a chronic disease which affects the joints of the body, particularly of the hands and feet. The symptoms of the rheumatoid arthritis are: tender, warm, swollen joints, joint stiffness, fever, fatigue, loss of appetite, etc.
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