Which statement correctly identifies the cell type and explains why?
A. This is a plant cell; the evidence is the cell wall.
B. This is a plant cell; the evidence is the nucleus.
C. This is an animal cell; the evidence is the mitochondria.
D. This is an animal cell; the evidence is the cell membrane.

Answers

Answer 1
The correct statement is D. This is an animal cell; the evidence is the cell membrane.

The cell membrane is a defining feature of animal cells, as it is the outermost layer that encloses the cell and separates it from the external environment. The cell membrane is selectively permeable, meaning it allows certain substances to pass through while preventing others from entering or leaving the cell. Animal cells also have other organelles, such as mitochondria, but these are not unique to animal cells and can also be found in plant cells. The presence of the cell wall, as in statement A, is actually a defining feature of plant cells, not animal cells.

Related Questions

A neuron consists of _____.-a cell body only-dendrites only-axons only-dendrites, a cell body, and axons-striations

Answers

A neuron consists of dendrites, a cell body, and axons. Therefore the correct option is option A.

Dendrites are branch-like structures that extend from a neuron's cell body and receive signals from other neurons. The cell body, or soma, houses the nucleus and other organelles required for neuron function. The axon is a long, slender projection of the cell body that sends impulses to neighbouring neurons, muscles, or glands.

Striations such as those stated in the choices are not often connected with neurons. Striations are the alternating bright and dark bands seen in muscle fibres as a result of actin and myosin filament organisation. Therefore the correct option is option A.

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22b. Describe how the structures if the PGA and PGAL are different?

Answers

Both the intermediate molecules PGA and PGAL are used in the photosynthesis process. PGA is composed of a phosphate group at one end and a carboxyl group at the other.

A three-carbon molecule known as PGA is created during carbon fixation, one of photosynthesis's light-independent processes. The molecule is optically active due to its linear structure and two chiral centers.

PGA can provide a proton (H+) to a solution since it is an acidic molecule with a pKa of about 2.5. The three-carbon PGAL molecule, on the other hand, is also created during photosynthesis, specifically during the Calvin cycle.

While both PGA and PGAL are three-carbon molecules engaged in photosynthesis, PGA is linear and has two chiral centers; PGAL is branching and has one stereocenter; and both are acidic. PGA is also more stable as an energy carrier.

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Question 57
Which animal is the primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus
a. cats
b. dogs
c. parrots
d. deer mice

Answers

The correct answer is d. Deer mice are the primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus. Cats and dogs are not typically involved in the transmission of this virus.
The primary reservoir for the newly discovered Hantavirus is:
d. deer mice

As an AI language model, my training was cut off in September 2021 and I don't have information about any newly discovered Hantavirus after that period. However, as of my knowledge cut off date, the primary reservoir for most Hantaviruses is rodents, such as mice and rats. Different species of rodents can carry different strains of Hantaviruses. When humans come into contact with rodent urine, droppings, or saliva that contains the virus, they can become infected. Hantavirus infections can cause serious and potentially fatal respiratory illnesses such as Hantavirus Pulmonary Syndrome (HPS) and Hemorrhagic Fever with Renal Syndrome (HFRS). It is important to take precautions to prevent exposure to rodents and their droppings, especially in areas where they may be present, such as rural areas and camping sites.

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in addition to carbon dioxide and water state two other conditions necessary for photosynthesis?​

Answers

Answer:

sunlight and chlorophyll

Explanation:

these two conditions must be present along with the carbon dioxide and water for the process of photosynthesis to take place in plants.

Answer:

Sunlight and chlorophyll must be present along with the carbon dioxide and water for the process of photosynthesis to take place in plants.

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When the head is moved from side to side, the first vertebra pivots around the _________ of the second vertebra

Answers

When the head is moved from side to side, the first vertebra (the atlas) pivots around the dens or odontoid process of the second vertebra (the axis).

The atlas (C1) is the first cervical vertebra and sits directly under the skull. The axis (C2) is the second cervical vertebra and has a bony protuberance called the dens or odontoid process that protrudes upward from its body. The atlas pivots around the dens of the axis to allow for rotational movement of the head, such as when shaking the head "no." This joint is known as the atlantoaxial joint.

another term for pastoral nomadism is
a. extensive subsistence agriculture
b. nomadic herding
c. livestock ranching
d. grain agriculture
e. a and b only

Answers

B. Nomadic herding. Another term for pastoral nomadism is nomadic herding, which refers to a traditional way of life in which people move from place to place with their livestock in search of food and water.

This practice is common in arid and semi-arid regions where agriculture is not sustainable due to the lack of rainfall and fertile soil. Pastoral nomads rely on their livestock for food, clothing, and transportation. They herd animals such as cattle, sheep, goats, camels, and yaks, and move them from one grazing area to another according to the season and availability of resources. They often live in tents or portable dwellings, and their lifestyle is closely tied to the natural environment. While the terms extensive subsistence agriculture and livestock ranching may involve raising and herding animals, they do not necessarily imply a nomadic way of life. Extensive subsistence agriculture refers to a form of agriculture that relies on low inputs of labor, capital, and technology, and involves cultivating small plots of land to produce food for subsistence. Livestock ranching refers to a form of animal agriculture that involves raising and breeding animals on a large scale for commercial purposes.

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A POSITIVE bacteriological sample means?
a)Absence of bacteriological contamination
b) Presence of bacteriological contamination
c) Presence of nitrates
d) Positive chlorine residual

Answers

Biological contamination is indicated by a positive bacteriological sample. Option b is Correct.

The microbiological contamination of water is frequently of a fecal origin and is caused by domesticated animals owned by people (manure spreading, overflowing pit stock), or by wildlife. To determine if you have a bacterial infection, a bacterium culture is a test. In addition to determining the type of bacteria that caused the infection, the test can also aid with treatment planning.

A medical professional collects a sample of spinal fluid, blood, feces, urine, mucus, or skin for a bacteria culture test. The process of obtaining water samples and analyzing them to determine the number of bacteria present is known as bacteriological water testing. The background of analyzing water samples for disease-causing bacteria, in particular fecal coliforms, is provided in this note. Option b is Correct.

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Question 35
What size particles can reach the lowest parts of the lung?
a. 15 microns
b. 50 microns
c. 3 microns
d. Any size particle

Answers

Particles with a size of 3 microns or smaller can reach the lowest parts of the lung, known as the alveoli. Therefore the correct option is option C.

Particles of a diameter of 3 microns or less can enter the alveoli, the lowest portions of the lung.

These microscopic particles are small enough to get past the body's natural defences in the upper respiratory system and into the lungs, where they can cause damage and inflammation.

Larger particles, on the other hand, tend to become caught in the upper respiratory system, such as the nose and throat, and are eliminated by mechanisms such as coughing and sneezing before reaching the alveoli. Therefore the correct option is option C.

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What is the difference between a light microscope and an electron microscope?(what are they best used for)

Answers

The difference between the light microscope and an electron microscope lies in the type of radiation they use to visualize objects and the level of magnification and resolution they can achieve.

A light microscope, also known as an optical microscope, uses visible light as its source of radiation to illuminate and magnify samples. It typically uses lenses to focus and magnify the light, allowing for the visualization of objects such as cells, tissues, and small organisms.

Light microscopes are commonly used in biological research, medicine, and education, as they are suitable for observing live specimens and can provide detailed information about cellular structures and biological processes.

An electron microscope, on the other hand, uses a beam of electrons as its source of radiation to visualize objects. Electrons have much shorter wavelengths than visible light, allowing for much higher magnification and resolution.

Electron microscopes can visualize objects at a much smaller scale, such as individual cells, subcellular structures, and nanomaterials, with resolutions down to the atomic level.

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8. What type of cell has membrane-bound organelles?
A. eukaryotic cells
B. prokaryotic cells
C. both prokaryotic and eukaryotic
D. neither prokaryotic and eukaryotic

Answers

Answer:

A. eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles.

Eukaryotic cells are characterized by the presence of a true nucleus, which contains the cell's genetic material, and various membrane-bound organelles, such as mitochondria, chloroplasts, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and peroxisomes. These organelles perform specific functions within the cell and are enclosed within their own membranes, separate from the rest of the cell.

In contrast, prokaryotic cells, such as bacteria, do not have a true nucleus or membrane-bound organelles. Instead, their genetic material is contained within a single, circular chromosome, and the cell's metabolic processes occur within the cytoplasm.

Eukaryotic cells have membrane-bound organelles. Thus, the correct option is (a).

The eukaryotic cell is fully developed and is much larger and more complex than the prokaryotic one. They require a variety of specialized internal membrane-bound organelles because of their larger size. These organelles help in carrying out metabolism and provide energy.

A multicellular organism is made up of eukaryotic cells and they contain cell organelles. Multicellular organisms perform different life processes in different cells because they have specific cells for specific functions.

Amoeba is a unicellular organism in which all the activities related to life are carried out in a single cell. An example of a multicellular organism is a human being. Animals as well as plants also come in the category of multicellular organisms.

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Structures known as microvilli are associated with:A. increased surface area for gas exchange.B. adhesion to the extracellular matrix.C. increased surface area for nutrient absorption.D. communication between cells.

Answers

Option C is true. Structures known as microvilli are associated with increased surface area for nutrient absorption.

They contribute to the absorption of nutrients from the digestive system into the bloodstream and enhance the surface area of the cell membrane. The small intestine, where the majority of nutrient absorption occurs, places a special emphasis on microvilli.

Intestinal cells' surface area that can be absorbed is significantly increased by the presence of microvilli, enabling the efficient absorption of nutrients like carbohydrates, amino acids, and fatty acids.

Although microvilli are not directly involved in gas exchange, adherence to the extracellular matrix, or cell-to-cell communication, they are essential for the digestive system's ability to absorb nutrients.

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12. The prefix poly- means "many," and the term genic means "related to genes." How do these word parts combine to give the meaning of polygenic?

Answers

The meaning of the word "polygenic" can be derived from the mix of these word parts. Polygenic traits are characteristics produced by two or more genes.

Because poly means "many" and genic means "produced by many genes," the meanings of the terms "polygenic trait" and "parts poly- and genic" are related. As a result, a polygenic trait is the result of a lot of genes.

A polygenic trait is a trait that is influenced by two or more genes, like height or skin color. Since different qualities are involved, polygenic attributes don't follow the examples of the Mendelian legacy. Numerous polygenic characteristics are additionally impacted by the climate and are called multifactorial.

Codominance happens when two heterozygous alleles are completely communicated. Neither one of the alleles can rule, so the two of them appear, yet they don't mix. The phrase "both alleles show up together" can be remembered by using the prefix co-, which means "together."

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the alimentary canal and accessory organs are a(n) the alimentary canal and accessory organs are a(n) organelle organ system tissue cell

Answers

The alimentary canal and accessory organs are an organ system. They secrete digestive enzymes and fluids that help to break down food in the small intestine.

What are accessory organs?

Accessory organs are organs that aid in the digestion process but are not part of the alimentary canal. The liver, pancreas, and gallbladder are some of these organs. For example, the liver produces bile, which helps to break down fats, while the pancreas secretes pancreatic juice that contains digestive enzymes to further break down proteins, carbohydrates, and fats. Each organ in a system contributes to the overall function of that system, and the systems work together to maintain homeostasis and keep the body functioning properly. When necessary, the gallbladder releases stored bile into the small intestine.

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If we wanted to be complete, how many different models would we need to show all the kinds of nucleotides? (Part D)
A. 3
B. 16
C. 2
D. 8
E. 4

Answers

4. Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C) are the all the kinds of nucleotides.

To be complete in showing all the kinds of nucleotides, we need to include all possible combinations of the four nitrogenous bases: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C).
Therefore, we have 4 different nitrogenous bases, and each nucleotide can have any one of these nitrogenous bases. So the total number of possible nucleotides is 4.
However, each nucleotide can have different variations of sugar and phosphate groups, but these variations do not affect the identity of the nitrogenous base. Therefore, to show all the kinds of nucleotides, we only need to include all possible combinations of the four nitrogenous bases, which is 4.
Therefore, the answer is E. 4.

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What is the procedure of separation of DNA by agarose gel electrophoresis?

Answers

The procedure of separation of DNA by agarose gel electrophoresis involves many steps such as making of the gel and running the DNA through it so that they can be separated by their charge-to-mass ratio.

The procedure of separation of DNA by agarose gel electrophoresis involves the following steps:
1. Prepare the agarose gel by dissolving agarose powder in a buffer solution, heating it until the agarose is completely dissolved, and then allowing it to cool slightly.
2. Pour the agarose solution into a gel tray and insert the appropriate comb to create wells for loading the DNA samples.
3. Allow the gel to solidify at room temperature for about 30 minutes.
4. Once solidified, remove the comb and place the gel tray into an electrophoresis chamber, covering the gel with the buffer solution.
5. Load the DNA samples mixed with loading dye into the wells.
6. Connect the electrophoresis chamber to a power source and run the current at the appropriate voltage, typically around 5-10 V/cm.
7. Observe the DNA fragments migrating through the gel, separating based on their size.
8. After the desired separation is achieved, turn off the power supply and carefully remove the gel from the chamber.
9. Stain the gel with an appropriate DNA stain (such as ethidium bromide or SYBR Green) to visualize the separated DNA fragments under UV light or blue light transilluminator.

In summary, agarose gel electrophoresis separates DNA fragments based on their size through the application of an electric current, allowing for analysis and visualization of the DNA samples.

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Within a few weeks of treatment with the drug 3TC, a patient's HIV population consists entirely of 3TC-resistant viruses. How can this result best be explained.
A. Each HIV particle can change its surface to evade vaccines.
B. HIV particles began making drug resistant versions of themselves in response to the drug.
C. A few drug-resistant viral particles were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.
D. The drug caused the HIV RNA to mutate in a favorable manner.

Answers

The best explanation for a patient's HIV population is C: A few drug-resistant viral particles were present at the start of treatment, and natural selection increased their frequency.

The drug 3TC is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) that works by blocking the reverse transcriptase enzyme that the HIV virus uses to replicate its genetic material. However, some HIV viruses may have mutations that allow them to resist the effects of the drug. If these drug-resistant viruses are present in a patient's HIV population before treatment, they may become more prevalent over time as natural selection favors their survival and reproduction in the presence of the drug.

In other words, the drug may kill off the non-resistant viruses, allowing the drug-resistant viruses to become the dominant population. This phenomenon is a common problem in the treatment of viral infections, where the use of drugs can lead to the development of drug-resistant strains over time. It underscores the importance of using drugs in combination to minimize the risk of drug resistance and to continue to develop new drugs to combat evolving viral strains.

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the field of genetics that correlates the structure, number, and behavior of chromosomes with heredity and variation is called

Answers

The field of genetics that correlates the structure, number, and behavior of chromosomes with heredity and variation is called cytogenetics.

Cytogenetics:

Cytogenetics focuses on studying the physical appearance and behavior of chromosomes during cell division, as well as their relationship to heritable traits. Chromosomes carry genetic information in the form of genes, which are the fundamental units of heredity. These genes are responsible for the transmission of traits from one generation to another, which is the basis of heredity.

Variation in genetics refers to the differences in traits that exist among individuals within a population. This variation can be attributed to differences in the structure, number, and arrangement of genes on chromosomes. Cytogenetics plays a crucial role in understanding how these variations occur and how they influence the inheritance of traits. By studying the structure and behavior of chromosomes, cytogeneticists can identify abnormalities or mutations that may lead to genetic disorders or contribute to the diversity of traits within a population.

In summary, cytogenetics is the branch of genetics that focuses on the relationship between chromosomes, heredity, and variation. By examining the structure, number, and behavior of chromosomes, cytogeneticists can gain valuable insights into how genetic information is transmitted and how variation arises within populations.

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Graded potentials are _______ stimulus strength; action potentials are _______. A) independent of; independentB) independent of; dependentC) dependent on; independentD) dependent on; dependent

Answers

Graded potentials are dependent on stimulus strength; action potentials are independent. Therefore, the correct answer is C) dependent on; independent.

Graded potentials are tiny changes in membrane potential caused by a stimulation. The amplitude of the graded potential is related to the stimulus strength. As a result, stronger stimuli produce larger graded potentials.

Action potentials, on the other hand, are all-or-nothing events that occur when the membrane potential crosses a particular threshold. The threshold is a set value, and when it is reached, regardless of the strength of the initial stimulus, an action potential is produced.

The power of the stimulus that generated the action potential has no effect on its amplitude.

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Question 20
Age-related hearing loss is referred to as:
a. preemptive threshold shift
b. presbyopia
c. presbycusis
d. predysplasia

Answers

The correct answer is c. presbycusis. Presbycusis is the gradual loss of hearing that occurs as people age.

It is a common form of hearing loss and is typically caused by changes in the inner ear. The other answer choices, preemptive threshold shift, presbyopia, and predysplasia, are not related to age-related hearing loss. Age-related hearing loss, also known as presbycusis, is a common form of hearing loss that occurs gradually as people age. It is typically caused by changes in the inner ear, including damage to the hair cells that transmit sound to the brain, as well as changes in the structures that support those cells. Preemptive threshold shift refers to a temporary reduction in hearing sensitivity that occurs immediately after exposure to loud noise, while presbyopia is a condition that affects the ability to focus on.

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Brown male bull produces white offspring. What is the genotype of the female cow? Of male bull? Of baby cow? Brown color is dominant

Answers

Since the male bull produces white offspring, it must be homozygous recessive for the brown color gene (bb). The genotype of the baby cow must be heterozygous for the brown color gene (Bb).

The color of an animal is determined by its genotype, which is a combination of two alleles inherited from its parents. In this case, brown color is dominant, and white color is recessive. Therefore, a brown cow can either be homozygous dominant (BB) or heterozygous (Bb), while a white cow must be homozygous recessive (bb).

Since the male bull produces only white offspring, it must be homozygous recessive (bb). Therefore, it can only pass on the recessive b allele to its offspring. The baby cow, which is white, must have received one b allele from its father and one B allele from its mother, who could be either heterozygous (Bb) or homozygous recessive (bb).

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A plant cell uses the molecules in the list to synthesize a protein. What role do the ATP molecules play in the protein synthesis process?

They convert energy into hereditary information.

They absorb excess energy to prevent overheating.

They increase activation energy.

They provide energy.

Answers

Answer:

The ATP molecules provide energy in the protein synthesis process. ATP (adenosine triphosphate) is a molecule that stores and releases energy for cellular processes, and it is commonly referred to as the "energy currency" of the cell. During protein synthesis, ATP provides the energy needed for various reactions, including the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids to form the protein chain. Therefore, the correct answer is "They provide energy."

Question 12 Marks: 1 Microscopic photosynthetic plants of the simplest forms, having neither roots, stems, nor leaves, that are associated with taste and odor, filter clogging, and other water problems are known asChoose one answer. a. yeasts b. algae c. protozoa d. rotifiers

Answers

Algae are microscopic photosynthetic plants that are simple in form and lack roots, stems, or leaves. The correct answer to the question is b. algae.

They are typically found in the aquatic environment and can cause a variety of issues in water systems. The algae growth can lead to taste and odor problems in the water, as well as filter clogging and other issues. In addition, some types of algae can produce harmful toxins that can be dangerous for both humans and animals.

To prevent problems associated with algae growth, water treatment facilities often use methods such as filtration, chlorination, and other chemical treatments to control algae growth and maintain safe water quality. Overall, algae play an important role in the ecosystem, but their growth in water systems can cause a variety of issues that must be managed effectively.

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Question 55
Soil moisture of about __ % of saturation is the best for survival of pathogens
a. 10-20
b. 30-40
c. 5-10
d. 50-60

Answers

 Soil moisture 50-60 plays an important role in the survival of pathogens. The moisture level of the soil affects the growth and survival of microorganisms. A soil moisture level of about 50-60% of saturation is considered the best for the survival of pathogens.

At this level, there is enough moisture for the pathogens to grow and multiply, but not too much moisture that it becomes too saturated and oxygen-starved. It is important to note that different pathogens have different moisture requirements, so the optimal moisture level may vary depending on the type of pathogen present in the soil.

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The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions can be distinguished by the amount of branchingof the post-ganglionic fibers.T/F

Answers

The given statement " The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions can be distinguished by the amount of branching of the post-ganglionic fibers" is true.

The sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system are responsible for maintaining the body's internal balance by regulating various bodily functions.

While both divisions have pre-ganglionic and post-ganglionic fibers, they differ in terms of the amount of branching of the post-ganglionic fibers.

The sympathetic division has a more widespread branching of post-ganglionic fibers, leading to a broader distribution of its effects.

In contrast, the parasympathetic division has a more limited branching of post-ganglionic fibers, leading to a more specific distribution of its effects.

This difference in branching is due to the location of the ganglia, which are closer to the spinal cord in the sympathetic division and closer to the target organs in the parasympathetic division.

Overall, the differing amount of branching of post-ganglionic fibers is one of the key factors that distinguish the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system. Hence, the provided statement is true.

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All of the following are characteristics of the fat-soluble vitamins EXCEPT:
a. they dissolve in lipids. b. they require bile for absorption. c. they are easily absorbed and excreted in urine. d. they may be toxic in excess.

Answers

All of the answer choices are characteristics of fat-soluble vitamins except for c, which is false. Option(c)

Fat-soluble vitamins are vitamins that dissolve in lipids and are absorbed in the small intestine with the help of bile. They are stored in the body's fatty tissues and liver and are not easily excreted in urine. This makes it easier for these vitamins to accumulate in the body, and they may become toxic in excess amounts.

Examples of fat-soluble vitamins include vitamins A, D, E, and K. It's important to maintain a balanced intake of fat-soluble vitamins to avoid deficiency or toxicity.

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The magnesium present in mineral water has a bioavailability of about

Answers

The bioavailability of magnesium present in mineral water is about 30-40%, which means that the body can absorb and utilize 30-40% of the magnesium present in the water.

However, the exact amount of bioavailable magnesium can vary depending on the type of mineral water and other factors such as pH and mineral content. Bioavailability refers to the proportion of a nutrient that is absorbed and utilized by the body after consumption. In the case of magnesium, absorption can be affected by factors such as the form of magnesium present in the water, the pH of the water, and the presence of other minerals or substances that may compete with magnesium for absorption. Overall, consuming mineral water can be a good way to supplement magnesium intake, especially for those who may not consume enough magnesium through their diet. However, it's important to note that the bioavailability of magnesium can also vary depending on individual factors such as age, health status, and diet, and it's always a good idea to talk to a healthcare professional before making significant changes to your nutrient intake.

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Question 41
It can be assumed that all hazardous waste landfill liners
a. are designed for all hazardous materials
b. will eventually leak
c. will never leak
d. both a and c

Answers

Landfill operators must carefully manage the types of waste that are accepted at their site and ensure that the appropriate liners and management practices are in place to minimize the risk of leaks and contamination.

It cannot be assumed that all hazardous waste landfill liners are designed for all hazardous materials or that they will never leak. Therefore, the correct option is (b) will eventually leak. Landfill liners are designed to provide a barrier to prevent hazardous waste from contaminating the surrounding soil and groundwater. However, they are not foolproof and can eventually leak over time due to various factors such as degradation of the liner material, punctures or tears in the liner, or inadequate construction or maintenance of the landfill. Furthermore, different hazardous materials require different types of liners and management practices.

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All of the following, except for the ________, have only sympathetic innervation.A) arrector pili. B) sweat glands. C) blood vessels. D) salivary glands.

Answers

The correct answer is D) Salivary glands.The arrector pili muscles are responsible for the goosebumps that occur on the skin. The sympathetic nervous system activates these muscles in response to cold or emotional stress.

All of the other options, arrector pili, sweat glands, and blood vessels, have only sympathetic innervation. Sweat glands are also only innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. This system controls sweating as a response to heat, exercise, or stress. Blood vessels, including those in the skin and internal organs, are also innervated by the sympathetic nervous system. This system regulates blood flow to different organs and tissues in response to changing physiological demands.

Salivary glands, on the other hand, receive both sympathetic and parasympathetic innervation. These two divisions of the autonomic nervous system work together to regulate the production and secretion of saliva.

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Although attempts to date the divergence between humans and chimpanzees using molecular sequence data do not perfectly agree, a rough consensus from multiple analyses would place the divergence date at ________.
A) 175,000 years ago
B) 6,000 years ago
C) 5 to 7 million years ago
D) 3.14 million years ago
E) 65 million years ago

Answers

Although attempts to date the divergence between humans and chimpanzees using molecular sequence data do not perfectly agree, a rough consensus from multiple analyses would place the divergence date at 5 to 7 million years ago, which is option C.

The divergence between humans and chimpanzees is a fascinating topic in evolutionary biology. While attempts to date this divergence using molecular sequence data do not provide a perfect agreement, there is a rough consensus from multiple analyses.

According to this consensus, the divergence date between humans and chimpanzees is estimated to be around 5 to 7 million years ago.

However, it is important to note that this estimate may still be subject to some degree of uncertainty, as there are different methods and assumptions used in different studies.

Additionally, this estimate is based solely on molecular data and does not take into account other factors that may have influenced the evolutionary history of these species.

Nonetheless, the estimated divergence date is a key piece of information for understanding the evolution of humans and their closest living relatives, the chimpanzees. Therefore, the correct answer is C, 5 to 7 million years ago.

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Globally, what is the main reason that life expectancy has increased dramatically over the last five decades?

Answers

The main reason that life expectancy has increased dramatically over the last five decades globally is due to advancements in medical technology, improved access to healthcare, better sanitation and hygiene practices.

Explanation- This longevity is due to better health care and hygiene, healthier lifestyles, diet, and improved medical care. We have access to antibiotics and vaccines, clean water, plentiful and more nutritious food, and we know that exercise and smart lifestyle choices improve our quantity and quality of life

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if the ph of the solution in the above problem is adjusted to 3.86 by the addition of concentrated naoh, what will be the concentration of lactate and lactic acid at equilibrium? According to the information in the text box above, salmonella disrupts the health of humans and animals by-A. causing rot in plants that humans and animals consume.B. causing human and animal immune systems to attack red blood cells.C. causing water to accumulate in skin cells.D. causing stomach problems and food poisoning. 2. Under what conditions would a firm decide to shut down in the short run but remain invested in the market in the long run? (5 points) 3. Complete the following cost schedules: (10 points) Quantity 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 Total cost $9 $12 $16 $21 $30 $40 $52 $66 ATC __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ MC __ __ __ __ __ __ __ __ Assuming the price of this product is $12, at what output rate is (a) Total revenue maximized? (b) ATC minimized?(c) Profit per unit maximized? (d) Total profit maximized? 4. What rate of output is appropriate for a nonprofit corporation (such as a hospital)? (5 points) Percent 5. Heinz Shuster collected the following data on the base composition of ribgrass virus (H. Shuster, in The Nucleic Acids: Chemistry and Biology, vol. 3, E. Chargaff and J. N. Davidson, Eds. New York: Academic Press, 1955). (1 pt) A G C T U Ribgrass virus 29.3 25.8 18.0 0.0 27.0 a. On the basis of this information, is the hereditary information of the ribgrass virus RNA or DNA? Explain your answers b. Is it likely to be single stranded or double stranded? Explain your answers 2. Where were the states that Adams won? Why do you think they were concentratethat area? A wave has a frequency of 11 Hz and a wavelength of 9 meters what is the speed of the wave _____ is the set of informal values that characterize the police force as a distinct community with a common identity. DUE FRIDAY PLEASE HELP WELL WRITTEN ANSWERS ONLY!!!! Question 37 Marks: 1 The interval between exposure to an infectious agent and the appearance of the first symptom is called theChoose one answer. a. lag time b. susceptible period c. incubation period d. primary period Your professor explains how all females have an inner masculine side that adds to their personality. This concept is known as a(n) __________.a.) Animusb.) Source traitc.) Shadowd.) Anima Question 12 Marks: 1 People at increase risk for listeriosis areChoose one answer. a. pregnant women b. newborns c. men d. both a and b Compare and contrast Enlightenment and Romantic views of the relationship between God and the individual. In ABC, DE is parallel to AC and DE=10. Find the length of AC if DE is a midsegment of ABC. which of the following items is the one type of household expenditure that is categorized as investment rather than consumption? a. the purchase of durable goods such as stoves and washing machines b. the purchase of stocks and bonds c. the purchase of a new house d. spending on education If the height of this prism is 10 cm, what is the surface areaof the rectangular prism?Surface Area = 2lw + 2lh + 2wh5 cm5 cm What is the name of the noncatalytic component of the DNA polymerase III holoenzyme that keeps the polymerase associated with the DNA template in a monopoly market: the additional revenue from selling one more unit of output usually is greater than the price. a firm maximizes profits by producing the level of output that minimizes average cost. the lure of above-normal profits may give a firm an incentive to develop new products and technologies. the lack of competition causes the price of the product to equal average cost. 3. How are the areas of the shadedtriangle and the rectangle related?Select all that apply.10 in.4 in.A The area of the rectangle is twicethe area of the shaded triangle.The area of the shaded triangle istwice the area of the rectangle.The area of the rectangle isone-half the area of the shadedtriangle.The area of the shaded triangle isone-half the area of the rectangle.The area of the shaded triangleis the same as the area of therectangle. What is the primary reason for U.S. government bond yields to ripple through the bond market?The large government bond market competes for investors attention via yields What are the reagents for Wolff-Kishner Reduction of al and ke?