Drug resistance is not a new characteristic that is created by a drug or other environmental element; rather, it is a trait that is chosen from among those that already exist.
Why is the claim that MRSA has developed drug resistance due to antibiotic use incorrect?Genes cannot be changed by the environment. Although not being entirely truthful, the statement is somewhat true. As a result of the selection of already existing antibiotic-resistant characteristics, methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus, also known as MRSA, develops drug resistance.
What three factors contribute to antibiotic resistance?The main factors influencing the emergence of bacteria that are resistant to antibiotics are antimicrobial misuse and overuse. The proliferation of germs, some of which may be resistant to antibiotic therapy, is encouraged by a lack of hygienic conditions, clean water, and sanitation, as well as insufficient infection prevention and control.
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The nurse is administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa. Which procedure would assist drug penetration into the ear canal?
a.Administering refrigerated drops
b.Inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then administering the drops
c.Cleaning out the earwax with a cotton-tipped swab before giving the drops
d.Inserting earplugs after administering the drops
The procedure that would assist drug penetration into the ear canal when administering ear drops to a patient with acute bacterial otitis externa is option B: inserting a sponge wick into the ear canal and then aiding the drops.
What is acute bacterial otitis externa?Acute bacterial otitis externa (ABOE) is an outer ear canal infection caused by bacteria. It is commonly referred to as "swimmer's ear" because it often occurs in people who spend a lot of time in the water.
What are the causes and treatment of acute bacterial otitis externa?Common causes of ABOE include excessive moisture in the ear canal, irritation from objects in the ear, and damage to the ear canal from cotton swabs or other objects. Treatment typically involves using antibiotic ear drops and measures to prevent further irritation or damage to the ear canal.
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Which one of the following goals is not a purpose of clinical protocols?Select one:a. Advance the knowledge base of nursingb. Promote consistency of carec. Set forth standards of cared. Support the clinical decision making of nurses
(Option A) Advance the knowledge base of nursing is not a purpose of clinical protocols.
What are clinical protocols?Clinical protocols are standardized, evidence-based procedures or guidelines that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various medical conditions. They are developed by healthcare organizations or professional associations and are designed to promote consistent and high-quality care.
Clinical protocols are designed to promote consistency of care, set forth standards of care, and support the clinical decision-making of healthcare professionals. They are typically evidence-based guidelines or procedures that outline the steps healthcare providers should take to diagnose, treat, and manage various conditions.
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Which form of elder maltreatment is the most common?
A. Financial exploitation
B. Psychological (emotional) abuse
C. Caregiver neglect
D. Physical abuse
The most common form of elder maltreatment is caregiver neglect.
What is maltreatment?Maltreatment is a general term used to describe abusive or neglectful behavior toward another person, especially a child or vulnerable adult. Maltreatment can take many forms, including physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional or psychological abuse, neglect, or financial exploitation. Physical abuse involves the use of physical force that causes injury, pain, or impairment. Sexual abuse involves any form of sexual activity without consent or with someone who is unable to consent. Emotional or psychological abuse involves actions that cause emotional or mental anguish, such as constant criticism, insults, or threats. Neglect is the failure to provide basic needs such as food, shelter, or medical care. Financial exploitation involves the unauthorized or improper use of an individual's funds, assets, or property. Maltreatment can have long-lasting negative effects on the victim, including physical injuries, emotional trauma, social and developmental delays, and financial harm. It is important to recognize the signs of maltreatment and report any suspicions to the appropriate authorities to protect the safety and well-being of the victim.
Here,
Elder neglect is the failure of a caregiver to provide basic necessities such as food, shelter, clothing, or medical care to an older person. It can also involve the failure to provide emotional support and social engagement.
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What interventions should the nurse implement in caring for a client with diabetes insipidus (DI) following a head injury? Select all that apply.
Diabetes insipidus (DI) is a rare condition that results from inadequate secretion or action of the hormone vasopressin, which regulates the body's fluid balance. A head injury can cause DI by damaging the pituitary gland, which produces vasopressin.
In caring for a client with DI following a head injury, the nurse should implement the following interventions:
Monitor the client's fluid intake and output closely, including urine output and serum electrolyte levels.
Administer medications as prescribed, such as desmopressin acetate to replace the missing vasopressin hormone.
Encourage the client to maintain adequate fluid and electrolyte balance, including consuming foods and fluids with high electrolyte content.
Educate the client and family on the importance of consistent medication adherence and regular follow-up with the healthcare provider.
Monitor the client for signs of dehydration and hypovolemia, such as dry mucous membranes, rapid heart rate, and low blood pressure.
By implementing these interventions, the nurse can help manage the client's symptoms and prevent complications associated with DI, such as dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.
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The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing what?
A. Measuring the patient's apical pulse before and after crying
B. Assessing the patient's apical pulse 30 minutes after crying
C. Measuring the patient's pulse deficit after crying
D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate
The nurse can best determine the effect of crying on a patient's apical pulse by doing D. Comparing the patient's post-crying apical pulse rate with her baseline or previous rate.
You can check your pulse by simply putting someone's fingers over just a large artery near your skin. One of the eight common blood vessel pulse sites is the apical pulse. It's located in the left chest region, just below your nipple.
A stethoscope is used to listen for the apical pulse over the chest, where the mitral valve of the heart is most easily heard. The apical pulse is sited at the fourth sacral region at the left middle of the chest in young children and babies.
It is also recommended to assess the apical pulse in newborns and children under the age of five because radial transients are difficult to pinch and count in this age group. Apical pulses are typically measured in children under the age of five.
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A client with Crohn's disease develops a fever and symptoms of an infection. The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of which finding?
The nurse recognizes this complication may occur as a result of Fistula formation with an abscess.
What is Crohn's disease ?It is still unclear what exactly causes Crohn's disease. Diet and stress were once thought to be contributing factors to Crohn's disease, but today's medical professionals understand that these things only serve to exacerbate the condition.
Crohn's disease is a severe condition. Although there is presently no cure, there are medications that can effectively control the illness. You may experience flare-ups and remissions, like many other people with chronic conditions. See your doctor if you notice any changes in your symptoms or any new ones.
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Which one of the following is NOT a driving force for the adoption of health information technology?
a. Natural diffusion of technology into the medical field
b. Lower healthcare costs
c. Improved medical quality
d. Improved Joint Commission scores
Health information technology adoption is not influenced by higher Joint Commission ratings.
Which of the following is a reference to one of the core building blocks of the infrastructure for health information technology?The heart of the health IT system is the electronic health record (EHR). A person's official digital health record, known as an EHR or electronic medical record (EMR), is shared by a number of healthcare organizations and providers.
What are the three factors influencing the use of technology in healthcare?Our experience in the creation of medical devices has shown us that three drivers—clinical aims, contractual relationships, and cost—appears to be constant. While adoption drivers and their relative importance can vary across facilities, three drivers seem to remain constant.
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The nurse is reviewing several orders for medications. Which dosage would cause the nurse to be concerned?
a) 500 mg
b) 50 mg
c) 0.5 mg
d) .5 mg
A number of pharmaceutical orders are being reviewed by the nurse. The dosage of 0.5 mg is the one that would worry the nurse.
What elements influence medicine dosages?The medicine dose is influenced by a number of variables, including age, body weight, gender, delivery route, timing, ambient circumstances, disease state, and many more. A higher dose might be necessary when lean body weight rises because this will result in a commensurate rise in medication clearance.
Why does weight matter when prescribing medications?The weight of a patient is crucial information since it is frequently used to determine the proper medicine dosage. The dose of a prescribed drug may differ materially from what is recommended when medication errors result from erroneous or unreported patient weights.
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A nurse is caring for a first-grader receiving prednisone (Meticorten). What outcome does the nurse expect with adrenocorticosteroid therapy?
1 Accelerated wound healing
2 Development of hyperkalemia
3 Increased antibody production
4 Suppressed inflammatory process
The nurse must be aware of the subtle signs of infection, such as changes in food, sleep habits, and behavior, because the inflammatory process has been suppressed.
What is the purpose of adrenocorticosteroids?Adrenocorticosteroids perform a number of crucial physiological and pharmacological tasks. The main functions of the glucocorticoids (cortisol, corticosterone) are the regulation of glucose metabolism and the body's response to stress.
Which drug therapy reduces a child's varicella resistance?In healthy children, oral acyclovir post-exposure prophylaxis appears to frequently prevent or decrease varicella, according to a number of small trials. Nevertheless, this strategy depends on the exposed child establishing sufficient, specific immune responses throughout the incubation phase.
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The nurse is preparing to care for a patient who has myasthenia gravis. The nurse will be alert to symptoms affecting which body system in this patient?
a. Cardiovascular system and postural muscles
b. Central nervous system (CNS), memory, and cognition
c. Gastrointestinal system (GI) and lower extremity muscles
d. Respiratory system and facial muscles
Fatigue and muscular weakening of the respiratory system, face muscles, and extremities are symptoms of myasthenia gravis. The Brain, Gastrointestinal, and cardiovascular systems are unaffected by it.
Which symptoms should a patient with myasthenia gravis present with?For more than 75% of patients, droopy eyelids or double vision is the most typical MG symptom at first presentation. Swallowing problems, slurred or nasal speech, chewing problems, and weakness in the face, neck, and extremities develop.
What is myasthenia gravis affecting?Muscle weakness is a common long-term symptom of myasthenia gravis. The muscles that regulate the eyes and eyelids, facial emotions, chewing, swallowing, and speaking are the ones most frequently affected. Nonetheless, it can impact the majority of bodily parts.
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The nurse prepares to assess a 7-year-old client. Which approach should the nurse use to support this client's developmental level?
A. Use play and praise cooperation
B. Maintain privacy and provide a gown
C. Provide a doll for play and give choices
D. Ensure confidentiality and provide teaching
The Correct answer is A. Use play and praise cooperation
When assessing a 7-year-old client, it is important to take into account their developmental level. The nurse should use play and praise cooperation when assessing the 7-year-old client.
What are ways to increase Development level of child?
There are many ways to increase the development level of a child, including reading to them, engaging in games and activities, providing them with opportunities to explore and using positive reinforcement and praise to encourage them. Additionally, providing a safe and nurturing environment and encouraging them to interact with other children can help to foster a child's development. Parents and caregivers can also promote development by helping children learn to express their feelings and emotions, teaching them problem-solving skills, and helping them learn to take responsibility for their actions.
This approach helps build trust and rapport with the child, and can make them more comfortable and relaxed during the assessment. Other approaches that can be used to support the client's developmental level include providing a doll for play, giving choices, and maintaining privacy and providing a gown.
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The nurse is reviewing the medication list for an assigned client. Which medication is the only one on the client's prescription sheet that does not have an ototoxic effect?
1. furosemide
2. acetaminophen
3. acetylsalicylic acid
4.vancomycin hydrochloride
Acetaminophen is the only one on the client's prescription sheet that does not have ototoxic effects. So, the correct option is B.
What are Ototoxicity?Ototoxicity is defined as when a person develops hearing or balance problems caused by a drug that can occur when a person is on high doses of a drug which is used to treat cancer, infection, or other diseases. When doctors catch ototoxicity early, they can prevent it from getting worse.
Neomycin is a type of drug that is most toxic to the structure involved in hearing, the cochlea, so it is only recommended for topical use. While the drugs like Furosemide, Acetylsalicylic acid, etc. does show the ototoxic effect but Acetaminophen does not show this effect.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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a primigravida has just delivered at term, and the nurse is palpating the fundus. where should the nurse expect to find the patient’s fundus?
After delivering a baby at term, the nurse would expect to find the fundus (the top of the uterus) in the midline of the abdomen, approximately halfway between the pubic symphysis and the umbilicus (belly button).
In the immediate postpartum period, the fundus will typically be located at or just below the level of the umbilicus, and it should feel firm and well-contracted. As the uterus continues to involute (shrink back down to its pre-pregnancy size), the fundus will gradually descend and become smaller and more difficult to palpate over time.
It's important for the nurse to monitor the position and tone of the fundus regularly after delivery to assess for any signs of uterine atony or postpartum hemorrhage.
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select all that apply consumers need to be skeptical of nutrition and health-related claims because __________the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers
Answer: the FDA cannot prevent the spread of published misinformation.
promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources.
Explanation:
The two options that apply to the answer are:
1. nutrition misinformation can be spread through a variety of sources and
2. promoters of worthless nutrition products are good marketers.
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what type of connective tissue is part of the parietal serosa
A single layer of mesothelial cells and a thin layer of loose epicardial connective tissue divide the serosa (mesothelial cells), which forms a complete sac containing pericardial fluid, from the heart.
What materials make up the parietal layer?The pericardium is a two-layered tissue that surrounds the proximal major arteries and the heart. It is made up of two layers: an outside parietal pericardium made of layers of collagen fibrils and elastin fibers, and an inner visceral pericardium, also known as the epicardium, when in touch with the myocardium.
Adipose tissue is there in the serosa?Adipose tissues, which play a significant role in both innate and adaptive immunity, are found inside the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities. These cavities are lined by serosal membranes with immune-active mesothelium. The serosal immune system is made up of them all.
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a partial agonist has what effect on neurotransmission?
As partial agonists have less intrinsic activity at receptors than complete agonists, they can behave either as a functional agonist and an antagonist on the amounts of naturally occurring neurotransmitters.
What accomplishes the partial agonist?Partial agonists can bind to or activate the receptor, but they can't cause the complete range of effects that full agonists can. The highest reaction a partial agonist may elicit is known as its intrinsic activity, and it can be stated as a percentage, with a full agonist eliciting a 100% response.
Which one of the following statements is true?Tramadol, butorphanol, and buprenorphine are a few examples of partial agonists. Mixed agonists and antagonists exhibit varied levels of action based on the opiate agonist as well as the dose. Buprenorphine, butorphanol, nalbuphine, or pentazocine are a few examples.
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the recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receive the first dose of the ________ vaccine at birth.
The recommended immunization schedule for persons aged 0 through 18 years includes the recommendation that an infant receives the first dose of the HepB vaccine at birth.
The hepatitis B vaccine preferable is if the first dose is given within 12–24 hours of birth, but kids not immunized previously can get it at any age. Some low birth weight infants will get it at 1 month or when they're discharged from the hospital. After the first dose, the second dose should be given within 1 to 2 months.
A child’s influenza vaccination history before the 2010–11 influenza season is irrelevant to determining the number of influenza vaccine doses needed for a child aged 6 months through 8 years. Ignore any influenza vaccine (including monovalent) received before the 2010–11 season.
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The nurse is teaching the breast self-examination technique to women. In which order should the nurse instruct the steps of breast self-examination technique? List it in numerical order:
A. palpate axilla
B. palpate breast from center outward using the finger pads
C. inspect axilla
D. inspect breast
E. palpate nipple
Gently yet firmly press down on the entire right breast making little movements with your left hand's middle fingers. Then either stand or sit. Breast tissue is located there, so feel about there. Squeeze the nipple gently to check for discharge.
What are the three ways to conduct a breast self-exam?The circular approach, the "wheel spokes" method, and the grid method are the three options you have. Use the fat pads on the 3 middle finger fingertips when performing a breast self-exam.
How do you perform a nursing breast exam?Light pressure should be palpated first, then medium pressure, and hard pressure should be used to finish the examination. Palpate in a circular motion starting at the nipple area.
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FILL IN THE BLANK. dr. gomez wants to see how children usually interact on the playground. she should probably use a(n) _______
Dr. Gomez is interested in how kids typically interaction playgrounds. Empiricism is likely something she should employ.
Which of the following is an illustration of a naturalistic observation?Example: You observe student conduct in a classroom without take part in the events yourself. Your participants are aware that you are watching them. Significantly, none of these occur in experimental lab settings; rather, they all occur in naturalistic contexts.
What must be carried out in order for a research study to be considered an authentic experiment?True experiments must include manipulation, controls, random assignment or random selection. The most important aspects are the manipulation and control of these elements. Simply put, to control any aspect of the environment is to purposefully alter it.
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which finding is characteristic of a stage 3 pressure injury
A stage 3 pressure injury is characterized by full-thickness skin loss involving damage or necrosis of subcutaneous tissue but not extending to the underlying fascia. The wound bed is visible, and slough or eschar may be present.
Does the depth of the wound vary?Yes, the depth of a wound can vary depending on the type of injury and the location of the body. For example, a wound on a bony prominence, such as the heel, may be deeper than a wound on a flat surface, such as the back.
What causes pressure injury?Pressure injuries, also known as pressure ulcers or bedsores, are caused by prolonged pressure on the skin and underlying tissues. They are often a result of immobility and can occur when a person remains in one position for an extended period without shifting their weight or changing positions.
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which laboratory result would verify the diagnosis of bacterial meningitis?
The Correct answer is D. CSF WBC count of 500/µL
An infection of the membranes that protect the brain and spinal cord is known as bacterial meningitis (meninges).It is a serious condition that can be fatal if not treated promptly.
What is Bacterial Meningitis?
Bacterial meningitis is an infection of the protective membranes that cover the brain and spinal cord (meninges), usually caused by bacteria. It is a serious condition that can cause damage to the brain and spinal cord and can even be fatal if not treated promptly. Common symptoms include fever, headache, vomiting, neck stiffness, confusion, seizures, and drowsiness or lethargy. Diagnosis is made by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). Treatment involves antibiotics as well as supportive care.
The diagnosis of bacterial meningitis can be confirmed by analyzing a sample of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). The laboratory results should show a high white blood cell (WBC) count (greater than 500 cells per microliter [/µL]), low glucose levels (<40 mg/dL), and high protein levels (>200 mg/dL). A low WBC count (<5,000/µL) on peripheral blood testing does not confirm a diagnosis of bacterial meningitis.
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lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a _____ who primarily prescribes medications.
Lee is a psychopharmacologist, which is a psychiatrist who primarily prescribes medications.
Who is a psychiatrist?An M.D. or D.O. who focuses on mental health, particularly substance use issues, is known as a psychiatrist.
Psychiatrists are trained to evaluate psychiatric issues on both the mental and physical levels. Many reasons lead people to seek out psychiatric assistance.
A psychiatrist is a medical professional who focuses on identifying and treating disorders of the mind. A psychologist and some other mental health specialists can identify anxiety and offer therapy (psychotherapy).
Thus, Lee is a psychopharmacologist, a type of psychiatrist that mostly writes prescriptions for drugs.
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which medication would most likely cause the client’s eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects? ketorolac ofloxacin diclofenac vidarabine
The medication that would most likely cause the client's eyelids to itch and eyes to burn as side effects is Ofloxacin.
Ofloxacin is an antibiotic that belongs to the class of drugs known as fluoroquinolones, which are commonly used to treat bacterial infections. It is administered topically, often as eye drops, to treat eye infections such as conjunctivitis, corneal ulcers, and bacterial infections of the eyelid.One of the most common side effects of ofloxacin eye drops is eye irritation, which can include itching and burning of the eyelids and eyes.
Other side effects of ofloxacin eye drops may include redness, tearing, blurred vision, or sensitivity to light. If these symptoms persist or worsen, patients should contact their healthcare provider for further evaluation and treatment.
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Answer:
vidarabine
Explanation: vidarabine is an antiviral agent that causes sensitive reactions such as itching eyelids and burning eyes.
During an assessment, the nurse reviews a pregnant client's medical record and sees that her prepregnant weight was 60 kg. The patient's height is 1.6 m. What should be the maximum weight of the patient by the end of the third trimester?
The pregnant client's medical file is reviewed by the nurse during an evaluation, and she notices that her pre-pregnancy weight was 60 kg. The patient is 1.6 meters tall. As a result, the client's overall weight should be 76 kg at that end of pregnancy.
How to find the pregnant client's weight?Keep track of your weight growth throughout your pregnancy and compare it to the suggested ranges for a healthy amount of weight gain.
Weighing yourself every week should ideally be done on a single day and at the same time, without shoes, while wearing loose-fitting clothing.
The client was 1.6 m tall and 60 kg before becoming pregnant.As a result, the client's BMI is (60/1.62 kg/m2) = 23.43 kg/m2.This suggests that the patient's body mass index is within normal bounds.When pregnant, a woman with the a normal body mass index should put on between 11.3 and 15.9 kg.Hence, the client's maximum weight gain would indeed be 60 + 15.9 = 75.9 kg.As a result, the client's overall weight should be 76 kg at that end of pregnancy.
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how soon should you be evaluated if you have a blood borne pathogen response?
Answer:
Explanation: Within hours of the exposure, ideally within 1-2 hours if possible.
What does axis deviation indicate?
Right axis deviation RAD involves the direction of depolarisation being distorted to the right between +90º and +180º.
What is depolarization example?Example: Depolarization in a nerve cell occurs when the cell undergoes an electrical shift. Most cells are negatively charged relative to their surroundings. This negative internal charge of the cell shifts to a positive through depolarization, which occurs for only a brief period of time.
Is depolarisation in the heart contraction?Cardiac contraction is the end result of action potentials that are initiated at the sinoatrial node by the spontaneous depolarization of the nodal cells to threshold and the subsequent transmission of triggered action potentials in different cells of the cardiac conduction pathway to the atrial and ventricular muscle .
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the report of an older adult client’s ophthalmologic examination states variability with the amsler grid. which activity will the nurse consider as being unsafe for this client?
If an older adult client has variability with the Amsler grid, it means that the client is experiencing visual impairment, which can affect their ability to carry out activities that require good vision.
The nurse will consider any activity that can put the client at risk due to their visual impairment as being unsafe. For example, driving, using sharp objects, or operating heavy machinery may be considered unsafe for this client. Additionally, the nurse may also consider activities that require good vision and balance, such as climbing stairs or walking on uneven surfaces, as potentially unsafe for the client. The nurse will need to assess the client's level of impairment and work with them to identify strategies to manage their visual impairment and reduce the risk of injury.
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which factor would the nurse attribute to stress incontinence?
Obesity, pregnancy, menopause, chronic coughing, and certain medications can all contribute to stress incontinence.
What are symptoms of stress incontinence?Stress incontinence is a type of urinary incontinence that occurs when abdominal pressure rises, causing urine to leak out. Weakening pelvic muscles and the urethral sphincter as a result of pregnancy, childbirth, menopause, or ageing are common causes. The main symptoms of stress incontinence is involuntary urine leakage while coughing, sneezing, laughing, or engaging in physical activities. Urine leakage can range from a few drops to a significant amount. Other symptoms include frequent urination, urgency, and difficulty completely emptying the bladder. Some people may also feel uncomfort, humiliation, or interference with their daily lives. Pelvic floor exercises, bladder training, medication, and surgery are all options for treatment.
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The nurse is assessing a patient with diabetes. Which datum collected by the nurse is subjective datum? Select all that apply.
1. Blood pressure of 120/78 mmHg
2. Radial pulse of 68 beats per minute
3. Fasting blood glucose of 110 mg/dL
4. Nausea with duration of 2 hours.
5. Tingling sensation in the feet.
The subjective datum collected by the nurse in a diabetic patient would be nausea with duration of 2 hours, and tingling sensation in the feet which means option D and E are correct.
Subjective data is the observed information that comes from opinions, perceptions or experiences which the nurse or the physician observes in the patient as and when they visit them. The diabetic patients are those whose body is unable to regulate the concentration of sugar in the body due to which they suffer from several allied diseases.
In such patients certain specific symptoms such as swelling of legs, nausea and tingling sensation is quite normal. Sometimes the hands may even feel numb in these patients. High sugar content has the potential to damage the nervous system and this may even inhibit the functions of the vital organ system in the body.
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A decrease in tongue strength is noted on examination of a client. The nurse interprets this as indicating a problem with which cranial nerve?
A) III
B) VI
C) VIII
D) XII
The cranial nerve affected which results in a decrease in tongue strength is: (D) XII.
Tongue is a muscular organ present in the buccal cavity which aids in several processes like chewing, breathing and even speaking. The tongue strength is essential because it makes the various functions performed by it, easier to perform. The tongue helps in distinguishing different tastes of food due to the presence of taste buds on it.
Cranial nerve XII is the hypoglossal nerve responsible for regulating tongue muscle movement. The nerve begins from the medulla and travels caudally and dorsally to the tongue. It is a motor nerve that carries the somatic efferent fibers.
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