How does the nucleus in a cell from the embryo differ from the nucleus removed from the egg?

Answers

Answer 1
The nucleus is removed from an unfertilised egg cell.

Related Questions

Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and the Calvin (light-independent) cycle?AThey both result in a net production of ATP and NADH.BThey both require a net input of ATP.CThey both result in a release of oxygen.DThey both take place within the cytoplasmic matrix.EThey both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix.

Answers

The statement which is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and the Calvin cycle (light-independent) is: they both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix.

The Calvin cycle is a series of chemical events that converts carbon dioxide and hydrogen-carrier molecules into glucose. It is also referred to as the photosynthetic carbon reduction (PCR) cycle of photosynthesis, the dark reactions, the light-independent reactions, or the biosynthetic phase. Plants' stroma, the fluid-filled region of a chloroplast not shielded by thylakoid membranes, is where these processes take occur. These processes involve additional chemical steps that are applied to the byproducts of light-dependent reactions (ATP and NADPH). The Calvin cycle is present in all photosynthetic eukaryotes as well as a sizable number of photosynthetic bacteria.

The complete question is:

Which of the following statements is true about the Krebs (citric acid) cycle and the Calvin (light-independent) cycle?

A. They both result in a net production of ATP and NADH.

B. They both require a net input of ATP.

C. They both result in a release of oxygen.

D. They both take place within the cytoplasmic matrix.

E. They both are carried out by enzymes located within an organelle matrix.

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What data or test would you seek to determine whether or not a trait is sex linked? Select one: a. karyotype b. pedigree c. blood test d. DNA sequence

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B) You would seek to determine whether a trait is sex-related using pedigree data or a test.

From a pedigree, how can you tell if a trait is sex-linked?

A sex-linked pedigree will primarily have affected males, and the female carriers will typically be marked with a half-shaded circle.

In a pedigree, how can you tell if a sex-linked trait is dominant or recessive?

The son must have only inherited his allele from his mother if the trait is x-linked, and the father may not be affected. RECEPTIVE WITH X-LINKS: The disease must be X-linked recessive when a affected non-founding son has two parents who are unaffected.

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In the biosphere, prey represent a food source for predators. An increase in the population of prey means more food for predators, which will

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An increase in the population of prey means more food for predators, which will increase the predators' population.

A predator is an organism which gets its food from the host after killing. It does not live in constant association with the host and this is known as predation.

The population of predator is directly proportional to prey but the population of prey is inversely proportional to a predators population.

As the prey population increases, there is more food for predators. So, after a slight lag, the predator population increases as well. As the number of predators increases, more prey are captured. As a result, the prey population starts to decrease.

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The genetic information in a gamete is identical to one of the original separated sets of chromosomes in the parent.

1.True 2.False

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The given statement " the genetic information in a gamete is identical to one of the original separated sets of chromosomes in the parent" is true because gametes contain only one of a chromosome pair that exists in the diplod parents cells.

Hence, the correct option is True.

What are chromosomes?

A chromosome is a lengthy DNA molecule that contains all or a portion of an organism's genetic code. The very long, thin DNA fibers in most chromosomes are covered with packing proteins; in eukaryotic cells, the histones are the most significant of these proteins.

During the process of gamete formation or meiosis in parental sex cells, the pair of chromosomes in the parent cells divide to produce daughter cells or gametes containing only singer chromosomes,

Thus, the gametes contain only one set of chromosomes identical to the parent's chromosomes.

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Answer: it’s True<3

Explanation: WHY HASNT YALL BE ONLINE!!!

explain the different types of roots​

Answers

Plants have three types of root systems: 1.) taproot, with a main taproot that is larger and grows faster than the branch roots; 2.) fibrous, with all roots about the same size; 3.) adventitious, roots that form on any plant part other than the roots. ! :]

In three to five sentences, describe the advantages and disadvantages using maps in modeling mitosis.

Answers

In biology, models can be viewed as representations, or perhaps events, of the structure and function of biomolecules. Cells have to do several things. First, cells must either replicate themselves or expand. In our human body, cells do both. It replicates when it breaks the skin and expands for the winter. However, some cells do not divide. But the cell also needs to decide whether to make identical copies or four half-copies. Half copies have sexual reproduction. And that's the choice between mitosis and meiosis.

The advantages and disadvantages of using these maps when modeling mitosis are:

They represented intermediate phases consisting of G1, S and G2 phases.

They also listed the stages involved in mitosis. this is also good

Other images also show mitosis, but lack potentially confusing titles or captions. The model should be able to represent the different activities that occur during mitosis. That is, the second model should contain markers that indicate the mitotic process.

The first models had to include pictorial representations for better understanding.

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What are the genotypes of the F2 generation?

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Answer:

The genotypes of the F2 generation depend on the genotypes of the parents in the F1 generation.

Explanation:

If the F1 generation is produced by crossing two individuals with different genotypes, the F2 generation will have a variety of genotypes.

For example, if the F1 generation is produced by crossing a homozygous dominant individual (AA) with a homozygous recessive individual (aa), the F2 generation will have a 1:2:1 ratio of genotypes: one quarter will be homozygous dominant (AA), half will be heterozygous (Aa), and one quarter will be homozygous recessive (aa).

If the F1 generation is produced by crossing two heterozygous individuals (Aa and Aa), the F2 generation will have a 3:1 ratio of genotypes: three quarters will be heterozygous (Aa) and one quarter will be homozygous recessive (aa).

It is also possible for the F1 generation to be produced by crossing two individuals with more complex genotypes, in which case the F2 generation will have a variety of genotypes based on the combination of the parents' genotypes.

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What enable bacteria to survive in a wide variety of habitats?

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Bacteria are single-celled organisms having membrane-attached cell organelles instead of a true nucleus. The reason why bacteria may survive in harsh settings is because:

energy-generating enzymes

Endospores

tissue wall

Cyst

Bacteria have the following characteristics:

The primary property of the bacteria is their ability to develop a cyst, which protects them from harmful environmental elements.

For instance, the prokaryotic organism can survive in both hypertonic and hypotonic conditions because to its cell wall.

The bacteria also make endospores, which let them tolerate extremely high temperatures.

The bacteria create cold shock proteins that help them withstand freezing temperatures.

In order for bacteria to survive in harsh settings, protein synthesis, cyst development, and endospores are crucial.

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I need someone to explain this answer

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Answer:i just simple formulas just remember in bio emzymes live through cells and make up the cell there are millions of different enzymes

Explanation:

brainiest

The diagram below shows the ways cells can release energy from food depending on if
oxygen is available.
Using the diagram below, respond to the following:
**Reference that Photosynthesis Summary sheet we first saw in lesson #1 to help
you with this!!
1. Which step(s) takes place if oxygen is available?
2. Which step(s) take place if oxygen is not available?
3. Do we make more ATP when the process is aerobic or anaerobic?
4. Which specific step of aerobic cellular respiration makes the most ATP?
Answer using complete sentences.
Glycolysis
Overview of Cellular Respiration
C6H12O6 +6026CO₂ + 6H₂O + ATP
Oxygen present
Oxygen not present
Krebs cycle
Electron transport chain
Lactic acid fermentation
Alcohol fermentation
1
+

Answers

Glycolysis is the metabolic pathway through which breakdown of complex sugar molecules takes place in the cell with the production of ATP molecules.

What is Glycolysis?

Glycolysis is the process in which glucose molecules (sugar) is partially broken down by the cells in enzyme reactions which do not need oxygen molecules. Glycolysis is the method which the cells use to produce energy in the form of ATP.

If oxygen is available or present, then Krebs cycle takes place and electron transport chain also takes place.

If oxygen is not available or absent in the medium, then in that case, alcohol fermentation and lactic acid fermentation takes place.

More amount of ATP is produced when the process is aerobic in the presence of oxygen. About 32 molecules of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) are produced through glycolysis in the presence of oxygen.

The electron transport chain of the glycolysis pathway makes the most number of molecules of ATP in the cell.

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Which of the following is the origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian planets? A) They are captured asteroids.
B) They are captured comets.
C) They are captured planets.
D) They were formed by condensation and accretion in a disk of gas around the planet.
E) They were formed by giant impacts.

Answers

The origin of almost all the large moons around the jovian planets is D) They were formed by condensation and accretion in a disk of gas around the planet. This is known as the nebular theory.

This theory states that when a new star forms in the universe, it is surrounded by a disk of gas and dust. This disk of gas and dust can form planets and moons around the star

For the jovian planets, this disk of gas and dust is around the planet, rather than the star. As the planet forms and cools, particles in the disk condense and form gas and dust clouds. These clouds eventually form into larger objects which then accrete or collide to form moons around the planet.

This process of condensation and accretion has been observed in various star-forming regions, confirming the nebular theory and making it the most likely source for the large moons of the jovian planets.

The other possible origins of the moons, such as captured asteroids, comets, or planets, cannot be ruled out as some of the moons may have originated from these sources. However, the majority of the moons are believed to have formed from the process of condensation and accretion in a disk of gas around the planet.

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Substance X was isolated in a urine sample, but it is too big to pass through the glomerular filtration membrane. How is this possible

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It was secreted later in the distal tubule. Erythrocytes (red blood cells) should not be seen in urine since they cannot pass past the filtration barrier.

Their existence implies the presence of illness or infection. Leukocytes are immunological cells that should not be seen in urine.

The filtration membrane allows water and tiny solutes to flow through while blocking blood cells and big proteins. These substances persist in the bloodstream. The filtrate (the fluid that has gone through the membrane) flows farther into the nephron from the glomerular capsule.

Urine dipsticks use chemical analysis to give qualitative examination of several analytes in urine. Dipstick detects the presence of protein, glucose, blood, ketones, bilirubin, urobilinogen, nitrite, and leukocyte esterase using dry chemical procedures.

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explain the stages of respiration in 3 steps (you may include more). You must use the following vocabulary words in your written explanations and underline them: oxygen, carbon dioxide, raw material, products, glucose, diffuse. make sure to define and state oxygen's role in the process and explain carbon dioxide and why it's a by-product. in addition, you must talk about fermentation and how it related to cellular respiration

Answers

Answer:

Steps of Respiration

1. Oxygen is inhaled into the body and diffuses across the alveoli in the lungs, where it is taken up by red blood cells. Oxygen is a vital raw material for cellular respiration, as it is required for the production of energy in the form of ATP.

2. Glucose, a simple sugar, is broken down through a series of chemical reactions known as glycolysis, producing ATP and other by-products such as pyruvate and NADH. If oxygen is present, pyruvate is further broken down through a process called the citric acid cycle (also known as the Krebs cycle), producing even more ATP and NADH. If oxygen is not present, the breakdown of pyruvate through fermentation occurs instead.

3. Carbon dioxide is produced as a by-product of cellular respiration. It is a waste product of the breakdown of glucose and other organic molecules, and it is exhaled out of the body through the process of respiration. Fermentation is a type of anaerobic respiration that occurs in the absence of oxygen. It produces ATP through the breakdown of pyruvate, but at a lower yield compared to aerobic respiration. Fermentation also produces other by-products such as ethanol or lactic acid, depending on the type of fermentation taking place.

__________ are lethal and non-lethal tools and systems available to the joint force that produce effects within the Area of Operation (AO)

Answers

Fires are lethal and non-lethal tools and systems available to the joint force that produce effects within the Area of Operation (AO).

The use of weapon systems to produce a specific lethal or nonlethal effect on a target is referred to as "firing" in Army doctrine. In order to produce precise lethal and non-lethal effects, army fires systems are entrusted with delivering fires in support of offensive and defensive operations. The flames warfighting function must complete three crucial tasks in order to do this. Deliver one fires 3 Conduct targeting and 2 Include all Army, Joint, and Multinational Fires. 3 In addition, fires help operational forces seize, hold onto, and use the initiative while boosting freedom of action and the ability of ground forces to move and maneuver.

Mobile defense, area defense, and retrograde are the three categories of defensive activities. Both the tactical and operational spheres of combat are affected by all. By allowing the opponent to approach into a position where he may be attacked from behind, mobile defenses aim to defeat invading forces.

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How is ATP made from glucose?

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Glucose is converted into ATP by cellular respiration.During glycolysis, a glucose molecule with six carbon atoms is converted into two molecules of pyruvate, each of which contains three carbon atoms.

The metabolic process known as cellular respiration, which takes place inside of cells, releases energy and waste products by converting biochemical energy from meals into the chemical compound adenosine triphosphate (ATP).

Cellular respiration transforms glucose into ATP.The aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule in the cytoplasm and mitochondria results in the production of 38 ATP molecules.

Glycolysis, the Krebs cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation are processes that take place during cellular respiration.

Two molecules of pyruvate, each having three carbon atoms, are produced during glycolysis from a single glucose molecule with six carbon atoms. Two molecules of ATP are hydrolyzed to give energy for the initial stages for every molecule of glucose, but four molecules of ATP are created in the later processes.

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question what was the name of the gene that was affected by this condition . Tell the function of this gene-what does it code for be very specific

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The gene affected by this condition is known as the KCNH2 gene. This gene is located on the long arm of chromosome 7 and encodes a voltage-gated potassium channel.

The voltage-gated potassium channel is an integral membrane protein that is responsible for controlling the flow of potassium ions into and out of cells.

The KCNH2 gene is important for the normal functioning of cells in the body. It is essential for the maintenance of the resting membrane potential by regulating the flow of potassium ions. It is also involved in mediating the electrical activity of the heart and plays a critical role in cardiac repolarization. Mutations in the KCNH2 gene can lead to a variety of cardiac arrhythmias and other cardiac conditions, including long QT syndrome.

Long QT syndrome is a genetic disorder that affects the electrical activity of the heart and can cause syncope, cardiac arrest, and even sudden death. The KCNH2 gene is one of the genes that has been linked to this disorder. Mutations in this gene affect the normal functioning of the voltage-gated potassium channel, which can lead to a prolonged QT interval on an electrocardiogram (ECG). This can result in an increased risk of life-threatening arrhythmias and cardiac arrest.

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what is a consumer that hunts and gathers food

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Names of Consumers that Hunt and Gather food : buffalo, bison, wild goats, reindeer

What is a deletion mutation?

Answers

In deletion DNA sequence changed by removing at least one nucleotide in a gene.

Deletion mutation generally takes place when part of a DNA molecule is not copied during DNA replication. Thus the uncopied part remains as small as a single nucleotide or as an entire chromosome.

In general ,Deletion mutations can be responsible for causing large number of genetic diseases, that includes disease like cystic fibrosis and the cat cry syndrome, that makes child cry with the cat sound or cat meowing . Hence, deletion mutation can occurs when a piece of DNA is removed from the sequence.

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When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called ______

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When fungal buds remain attached in a row following cell division, the resulting chains of yeast cells are called Pseudohyphae.

Yeast cells form chains called Pseudohyphae when fungal buds remain attached in a row after cell division. This type of chain formation allows for the growth and expansion of fungi in an environment, helping them to survive and thrive.

Pseudohyphae can be found in a variety of different fungi, including Candida albicans and Cryptococcus neoformans.

Understanding the formation of Pseudohyphae is important in order to monitor and control the growth and spread of fungi.

Pseudohyphae can be an indication of a fungal infection, and are typically associated with Candida yeast species. The formation of Pseudohyphae can be used to help diagnose a fungal infection and provide further information about the type of fungus involved.

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When is the best time to clean your boat to stop the spread of aquatic nuisance species?

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The best time to clean your boat to stop the spread of aquatic nuisance species is during every time you leave the water.

Guidelines for Halting the Spread of Aquatic Pest Species

Avoid using your boat's propeller to cut down any vegetation.Before leaving any body of water, clear the boat, propeller, anchor, lines, and trailer of any visible aquatic vegetation.Before leaving the site, empty the bait buckets and live wells into appropriate containers.

Waterborne Nuisance Species are species that negatively affect aquatic environments or activities that rely on them, including aquaculture, agriculture, or recreation. Zebra mussels, quagga mussels , and hydrilla are just a few of the aquatic invasive species that frequently travel between rivers aboard boats and trailers. These creatures multiply when introduced into new waters, displacing local species and harming the water supply.

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Which of the following is the correct order of the structures through which light passes after entering the eye?
A)
lens, pupil, cornea, retina
B)
pupil, cornea, lens, retina
C)
pupil, lens, cornea, retina
D)
cornea, pupil, lens, retina

Answers

The following is the correct order of the structures through which light passes after entering the eye : Cornea, pupil, lens, vitreous humour retina

Light travels like this:

1) Enters the cornea, which bends light. 2) Light passes freely through the pupil of the iris. 3) Light passes through the vitreous. 4) The retina captures light rays and processes them into impulses.

Some of this light enters the eye through an opening called the pupil. The iris (the colored part of the eye) controls the amount of light accepted by the pupil. The light then passes through the lens (the transparent part of the eye). The lens works with the cornea to correctly focus light onto the retina.

The eight structures in the eye that light passes through before hitting the photoreceptors are the cornea, aqueous humor, lens, vitreous humor, ganglion cell layer, inner reticular layer, inner nuclear layer, and outer reticular layer. .

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what percentage of chromosomes normally found in the body cells of an organism do gamete cells contain after meiosis?

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The gamete cells contain 50% of the chromosomes found in the body cells of an organism after meiosis.

Meiosis is basically a type of cell division which occurs in the sexually reproducing organisms. This division is observed during the formation of gametes and results in the reduction of the chromosomes in the gametes.

The normal body cells in our body diploid in nature. This means that they contain two complete sets of chromosomes, that is, 23 pairs of chromosomes. When a gamete is formed due to meiotic division, only one half of the chromosome complement is passed on from the parent and therefore the germ cell will contain 50% of the chromosomes found in the body cells of an organism after meiosis.

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external features used to classify plants​

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External features that used to classify plants :-

1.Leaf shape and arrangement: Leaves can be classified based on their shape, such as being oblong, elliptical, or lobed, as well as how they are arranged on the stem, such as being alternate or opposite.

2.Flower structure and color: The shape and color of flowers are used to classify plants. For example, some plants have large, showy flowers with bright colors, while others have small, inconspicuous flowers.

3.Stem characteristics: The shape and texture of a plant's stem can also be used to classify it. Some plants have woody stems, while others have herbaceous (non-woody) stems.

4.Fruit and seed characteristics: The size, shape, and color of a plant's fruit and seeds can be used to classify it. Some plants have large, fleshy fruits, while others have small, dry seeds.

5.Bark characteristics: Trees can be classified based on their bark. Some have rough, scaly bark while others have smooth, shiny bark.

6.Root system: Some plants have deep roots, while others have shallow roots. This is a useful characteristic in identifying certain types of plants.

7.Habitat: Some plants are aquatic while others are terrestrial and this is a valuable trait in identifying them.

8.Size and form: Some plants are shrubs, others are trees, and others are herbaceous, this feature also helps in identifying them.

Complete question:-

What are the external features that used to classify plants?

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what happens to excess fatty acid and glycerol in the body​

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The liver prepares for storage in the subcutaneous tissue and other storage depots when excess fatty acid and glycerol are in the body​.

Lipogenesis is the metabolic process of converting and storing fatty acid and glycerol are converted and stored in depots. When the energy level decreases they are converted back into fats and this process is called lipolysis.

The liver is responsible for fat metabolism and the amalgam of lipoproteins. To obtain energy from fat, triglycerides must first be broken down by hydrolysis into their two principal components, fatty acids, and glycerol. This process takes place in the cytoplasm.

Triglycerides are a type of lipid found in the blood. When you consume food the unused fatty acid or calories are stored in the form of triglycerides stored in fat cells. Excess of triglycerides can lead to hypertriglyceridemia.

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Attached ear lobe is a dominant trait. Cross two heterozygous parents for ear lobe attachment (Ee X Ee). What is the expected phenotypic ratio

Answers

Attached earlobes are a dominant trait. Cross between two heterozygous parents for earlobe attachment (Ee X Ee). The expected phenotypic ratio is 3:1.

Earlobe attachment is a dominant trait. So the dominant allele is represented as 'E' and the recessive allele is represented as 'e'. The homozygous individual will have a genotype EE and the heterozygous individual is represented as Ee.The cross between two heterozygous individuals as parents (Ee×Ee) will give 1EE(homozygous dominant):2Ee(heterozygous dominant):1ee(homozygous recessive).

Phenotypic ratio means the ratio of the morphological appearance in the offsprings. So the phenotypic ratio in this case is 3 (dominant):1(recessive).

But if the phenotypic ratio if a heterozygous cross is 2:1, then it means that it has a lethal gene.

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Based on the data in the graph, altering human activity in which of the following areas will most benefit plant species

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Based on the data in the graph, altering human activity in introduction of invasive species areas will most benefit plant species.

An introduced, nonnative organism (disease, parasite, plant, or animal) that starts to spread or widen its range away from the location of its initial introduction and has the potential to affect the environment, the economy, or human health is referred to as an invasive species.

Invasive species in the United States include Burmese pythons (Python bivittatus). Southeast Asia is the home of this enormous constrictor snake, which may reach lengths of more than 23 feet. However, it can currently be found in the Florida Everglades.

Invading animal habitats and resources all over the world, humans have basically turned into an invasive species. To make up for the ever-increasing population, people are moving into new areas and changing natural land.

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What are 3 things that support the theory of evolution?

Answers

Fossil evidence, biogeographical evidence, and anatomical evidence were some of the many types of evidence that Darwin utilised to support his theory of evolution by natural selection.

We'll examine a variety of sources of information to examine the evidence for evolution, including both anatomy and embryology. An evolutionary heritage can be determined by similar anatomical traits between organisms, including those that are only observable during embryonic development.

Molecule biology We can tell how closely related two creatures are by comparing and contrasting the "same" gene in those animals (i.e., a pair of homologous genes).

Biogeography - We can retrace the evolutionary history of species by looking at their geographic distribution.

Fossils - However, it confirms the existence of now-extinct species and occasionally captures potential "in-between" species. The fossil record is not a complete record of evolutionary history, forms on the path if present day species.

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Elena paints the back of the second aquarium it has a height of 1 3/4 feet the painted area is 5 5/6 square feet what is its length

Answers

Answer:

  3 1/3 ft

Explanation:

You want to know the length of an area that totals 5 5/6 square feet and is 1 3/4 feet high.

Area

The formula for the area of a rectangle is ...

  A = LW

Filling in the given values, we have ...

  5 5/6 = L·(1 3/4)

Solving for L gives ...

  L = (35/6)/(7/4) = (35/6)(4/7) = 140/42 = 10/3 = 3 1/3

The length of the painted area is 3 1/3 feet.

__

Additional comment

You might be asked to write the answer as a fraction: 10/3, or as a decimal: 3.33. In the latter case, you may need to round to tenths: 3.3.

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proteus mirabilis produces the enzyme urease which converts urea into ammonia. explain why patients with UTI caused by proteus mirabilis would have a higher-than-normal urine ph

Answers

The enzyme urease, produced by Proteus mirabilis, catalyzes the conversion of urea into ammonia. Ammonia is a base and therefore increases the pH of urine.

Urine pH normally ranges from 4.5 to 8.0, with a healthy urine pH usually ranging between 6.0 and 7.5. When present in the urinary tract, Proteus mirabilis increases the pH of urine to above 7.5 due to the production of urease. This elevated pH environment is more favorable for the growth and survival of the bacteria, allowing it to colonize and cause a urinary tract infection (UTI). As a result, patients with UTIs caused by Proteus mirabilis are likely to have a higher-than-normal urine pH.

Additionally, due to the production of urease, the urine of patients with Proteus mirabilis-caused UTI may show an alkaline reaction on a reagent strip.

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HURRY PLEASE I NEED HELP ​

Answers

Answer: Option A. is correct Dark colors and rough textures tend to produce the greatest amount of absorption of insolation at Earth's surface.

Explanation: Dark colors absorb more of the sunlight's energy, and rough textures can increase the surface area that is exposed to sunlight, which also helps to increase the absorption of insolation. Light colors and smooth textures, on the other hand, tend to reflect more sunlight and therefore absorb less insolation.

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