Question 29 Marks: 1 Beta radiation is commonly eliminated byChoose one answer. a. lead b. both glass or plastic and aluminum c. glass d. aluminum

Answers

Answer 1

The correct answer is d. aluminum. Beta radiation consists of high-energy electrons that can be stopped by materials with moderate levels of atomic number and density, such as aluminum.

Lead is a better shield against gamma radiation, while glass and plastic can stop alpha radiation.

An electron current with a kinetic energy between 0.2 MeV and 3.2 MeV that is released at a rate faster than the speed of light is known as beta radiation. Less than 200 ion pairs typically form in each centimetre of air passage due to the fact that interactions between -particles and the atoms of pass-through materials occur much less frequently than interactions between 5×10⁵-particles due to their lower mass, which is approximately 5.5×10₄ amu (9.13010(24)g).

An extremely high energy positron or electron is generated during the beta radioactive disintegration of a nucleus. Beta radiation is another name for this emitted particle.

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Related Questions

Frequency scaling was replaced by core scaling due to power density concerns.true/false

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True. Frequency scaling refers to increasing the clock speed of a processor to improve its performance.

However, as the frequency increases, the power consumption and heat generated by the processor also increase. This can lead to concerns about power density, which is the amount of power per unit area. To address these concerns, core scaling has become a more popular approach to improving processor performance. This involves adding more processor cores to a chip, rather than simply increasing the frequency of a single core. This allows for better performance while keeping power density under control.

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Question 36 Marks: 1 The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is theChoose one answer. a. low-area method b. valley or ravine area method c. trench method d. area or ramp method

Answers

The best sanitary landfill method for an area with rolling terrain is the valley or ravine area method. This method involves placing waste in a natural or excavated valley or ravine and covering it with soil daily.

The slope of the valley or ravine helps with drainage, while the natural contours of the terrain provide stability for the landfill. This method is often preferred over the low-area method, which can lead to groundwater contamination, and the trench or area/ramp method, which requires extensive excavation and leveling of the land.

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What are signs of clinical deterioration that would prompt the activation of rapid response system?
a. Symptomatic hypertension b. Seizure
c. Unexplained agitation
d. Diastolic blood pressure greater than 60 mm Hg or less than 100 mm Hg

Answers

Signs of clinical deterioration that would prompt the activation of a rapid response system include symptomatic hypertension, seizure, and unexplained agitation. These conditions can indicate a worsening medical state and necessitate immediate attention and intervention by healthcare professionals.

The signs of clinical deterioration that would prompt the activation of rapid response system include: seizure, unexplained agitation, and symptomatic hypertension. In addition, if the diastolic blood pressure is greater than 60 mm Hg or less than 100 mm Hg, this could also be an indication of clinical deterioration and warrant activation of the rapid response system. It is important to monitor patients closely and be aware of any changes in their condition to ensure timely intervention and prevent further deterioration.

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for the membrane capacitor discharging through the membrane resistor, the charge of the capacitor and, hence, the voltage across the capacitor as well as the current through the membrane capacitor-resistor loop all decay exponentially. for example, the voltage on the capacitor changes in time as where is the time constant, i.e., the time it takes for the voltage to decay to of its initial value, of this circuit. what is the form of this time constant in terms of the membrane resistance and capacitance? we will find that this time constant is relevant for determining the speed of the pulse.

Answers

The time constant of the membrane capacitor-resistor loop can be expressed as the product of the membrane resistance and capacitance, i.e., τ = R * C.

This means that the larger the resistance or capacitance, the longer it will take for the voltage across the capacitor to decay to of its initial value. The time constant is important in determining the speed of the pulse because it dictates how quickly the membrane potential can change in response to a stimulus. If the time constant is too large, the neuron may not be able to fire rapidly enough to transmit information efficiently.


The time constant for a membrane capacitor discharging through a membrane resistor is given by the product of the membrane resistance (R) and the membrane capacitance (C). In mathematical terms, the time constant (τ) can be represented as: τ = R * C

This time constant is crucial for determining the speed of the pulse, as it represents the time it takes for the voltage to decay to 1/e (approximately 36.8%) of its initial value in the capacitor-resistor loop.

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any considerable variation in seismic wave velocity in the crust occurs because

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Any considerable variation in seismic wave velocity in the crust occurs because there are different types of rocks in the crust.

Seismic waves are waves of energy that travel through the Earth's interior, including the crust. The speed of these waves varies depending on the type of rock they are travelling through. The Earth's crust is made up of a variety of different rocks, such as sedimentary, igneous, and metamorphic rocks, each with its own unique density, elasticity, and other properties that affect the speed of seismic waves.

As a result, seismic waves can be used to study the composition and structure of the Earth's crust, and the variation in their velocity is a crucial aspect of this study. Therefore, the correct answer is that any considerable variation in seismic wave velocity in the crust occurs because there are different types of rocks in the crust.

The complete question is:-

Any considerable variation in seismic wave velocity in the crust occurs because

Group of answer choices

there are different types of rocks in the crust

waves move slower the deeper they travel

waves move faster the deeper they travel

there is no variation of velocity in the crust.

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There are several factors that can cause significant variations in seismic wave velocity within the Earth's crust, including:

1) Rock type: Different types of rock have different physical properties, including density and elasticity, which affect the speed at which seismic waves travel through them. For example, dense, hard rocks like granite have higher seismic velocities than softer, more porous rocks like sandstone.

2) Temperature: Seismic wave velocity is also influenced by temperature, with higher temperatures generally resulting in lower velocities.

This is because hotter rocks tend to be more ductile and less rigid, which reduces their ability to transmit seismic waves quickly.

3) Pressure: Pressure can also affect seismic wave velocity, with higher pressures generally resulting in higher velocities.

This is because high pressure can cause rocks to become more compact and less porous, which increases their ability to transmit seismic waves.

4) Presence of fluids: The presence of fluids such as water or oil can also affect seismic wave velocity. Fluids tend to decrease seismic velocities by reducing the effective stress and increasing the porosity of rocks.

Overall, the complex interplay of these factors can result in significant variations in seismic wave velocity within the Earth's crust, which can provide important information about the geological structure and composition of the subsurface.

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A drop in blood pH is likely to cause a slower breathing rate. True or false.

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A drop in blood pH is likely to cause a faster breathing rate. This statement is false.

An increase, not a decrease, in blood pH leads to a slower breathing rate. This is due to the fact that an increase in blood pH, also known as alkalosis, causes a decrease in the concentration of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the blood. This decrease in CO2 causes the respiratory centre in the brain to decrease the rate and depth of breathing, which helps to retain more CO2 in the body and return the blood pH towards normal.

Conversely, a decrease in blood pH, also known as acidosis, leads to an increase in the respiratory rate and depth in order to eliminate excess CO2 from the body, which helps to raise the blood pH towards normal.

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False. A drop in blood pH is more likely to cause a faster breathing rate, not a slower one.

This response is known as respiratory compensation and is one of the body's ways of restoring the acid-base balance.

The acid-base balance of the body is tightly regulated to ensure that pH levels remain within a narrow range.

When there is a drop in blood pH (i.e., an increase in blood acidity), it is typically due to an excess of carbon dioxide (CO2) in the bloodstream.

This excess CO2 combines with water to form carbonic acid, which dissociates into hydrogen ions (H+) and bicarbonate ions (HCO3-). The resulting increase in H+ ions leads to a drop in pH.

To counteract this decrease in pH, the body triggers respiratory compensation.

The respiratory center in the brainstem detects the increase in H+ ions and stimulates the respiratory muscles to increase breathing rate and depth.

This increased ventilation helps to remove excess CO2 from the body, which in turn reduces the amount of carbonic acid and H+ ions in the blood. As a result, the pH level of the blood returns to normal.

Conversely, an increase in blood pH (i.e., a decrease in blood acidity) can lead to a decrease in breathing rate, as there is less stimulation of the respiratory center.

This response is known as hypoventilation and is also a way for the body to regulate pH levels.

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Question 66 Marks: 1 It is estimated that at any given time, there is/are _____ times more water stored underground than in all the surface streams and lakes.
Choose one answer. a. 5 times as much b. 20 to 30 times as much c. one-half as much d. one-tenth as much

Answers

It is estimated that there is b. 20 to 30 times as much more water stored underground than in all the surface streams and lakes.

This significant amount of water is found in aquifers, which are underground layers of rock, sand, and gravel that hold water. These underground reservoirs play a crucial role in providing freshwater to communities, agriculture, and industries worldwide.

Surface water, on the other hand, consists of lakes, rivers, and streams, which are visible and more commonly utilized sources of water. While both underground and surface water sources are essential for sustaining life on Earth, it's crucial to understand the vast difference in their quantities to efficiently manage and protect these valuable resources. It is estimated that there is b. 20 to 30 times as much more water stored underground than in all the surface streams and lakes.

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In water quality, the symbol "mg/L" is equivalent to:
a. Micrograms per liter
b. Parts per million
c. Parts per billion
d. Mostly good levels

Answers

The symbol "mg/L" in water quality represents milligrams per liter, which is a unit of measurement commonly used to express the concentration of substances in water. Option a is right choice.

The symbol "mg/L" in water quality refers to milligrams per liter, which is a unit of measurement commonly used to express the concentration of substances in water.

This unit represents the number of milligrams of a particular substance that are present in one liter of water.

In the context of water quality, the concentration of various substances is typically measured in parts per million (ppm) or parts per billion (ppb). For example, the concentration of dissolved oxygen in water is typically expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L), which is equivalent to ppm.

Micrograms per liter (µg/L) is another unit of measurement that is commonly used to express the concentration of substances in water.

However, this unit is typically used for substances that are present in very low concentrations, such as certain pollutants or toxins. In some cases, concentrations may be expressed in parts per trillion (ppt), which is equivalent to µg/L.

Option a is right choice.

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5.33: Find the work done by friction. (SI: J)A 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface. The coefficient of kinetic friction between book and surface is 0.154.

Answers

The work done by friction for a 1.37kg book slides 1.26m along a level surface is -2.66J.

The work done by friction is given by the formula W = -f × d, where f is the force of friction and d is the distance traveled.

The force of friction can be calculated using the formula f = μ × N, where μ is the coefficient of friction and N is the normal force.

Since the surface is level, the normal force is equal to the weight of the book, N = m × g.

Thus, the force of friction is f = μ × m × g.

Plugging in the given values, f = 1.37kg × 9.81m/s² × 0.154 = 2.113N.

The work done by friction is then W = -f × d = -2.113N × 1.26m = -2.66J.

Therefore, the work done by friction is -2.66J.

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Calculate the acceleration of a ball that starts from rest, rolls down a ramp, and gains a speed of 30m/s in 4.0 seconds.

Answers

The  acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

The acceleration of the ball can be calculated using the following formula:

a = (v_f - v_i) / t

where "a" is the acceleration, "v_f" is the final velocity, "v_i" is the initial velocity, and "t" is the  time.

In this case, the initial velocity "v_i" is zero since the ball starts from rest, and the final velocity "v_f" is 30 m/s. The time "t" is 4.0 seconds. So we have:

a = (30 m/s - 0 m/s) / 4.0 s
a = 7.5 m/s^2

Therefore, the acceleration of the ball as it rolls down the ramp and gains a speed of 30 m/s in 4.0 seconds is 7.5 m/s^2.

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Question 53 Marks: 1 A jet pump will lift water a maximum ofChoose one answer. a. 500 feet b. 120 feet c. 33.9 feet d. 15 feet

Answers

A jet pump commonly used for domestic water supply systems will lift water a maximum of 120 feet. Option B is the correct answer.

It works by using a combination of suction and pressure to draw water up from a well or other water source.

The pump consists of two main parts: a shallow well jet assembly and a deep well jet assembly.

The shallow well jet assembly is used for wells that are less than 25 feet deep, while the deep well jet assembly is used for deeper wells.

The maximum depth that a jet pump can lift water depends on the pump's design, but most jet pumps can lift the water up to a depth of around 120 feet.

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The question -

A jet pump lifts water to a maximum of how many feet?

Options are -

a. 500 feet

b. 120 feet

c. 33.9 feet

d. 15 feet.

the size of a neutron star is group of answer choices about the same as that of our solar system. about the same as that of the sun. about the same as earth. smaller than any of these.

Answers

The size of a neutron star is smaller than any of the given answer choices.

A neutron star is an extremely dense object that is formed from the collapsed core of a massive star that has undergone a supernova explosion. The mass of a neutron star is typically 1.4 times that of our Sun, but its size is only about 20 km in diameter, making it one of the most compact objects in the universe.

To put this into perspective, the diameter of our solar system is about 287 billion km, the diameter of the Sun is about 1.4 million km, and the diameter of the Earth is about 12,742 km. Therefore, a neutron star is much smaller than any of these objects, and its mass is packed into a space that is comparable in size to a medium-sized city.

In conclusion, a neutron star is much smaller than any of the given answer choices, with a diameter of only about 20 km.

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A neutron star is a very compact and incredibly dense object formed from the core of a massive star after a supernova explosion.

1) Our solar system is vast, spanning a distance of over 100 astronomical units (AU), with the distance between the Sun and the outer planets being several billion kilometers.

In contrast, a neutron star typically has a radius of about 10-15 kilometers, which is much smaller than the distance between any two objects in the solar system.

2) The Sun, on the other hand, is much larger than a neutron star, with a radius of about 696,000 kilometers.

The Earth, which is one of the smaller planets in our solar system, has a radius of about 6,371 kilometers.

Therefore, a neutron star is significantly smaller than both the Sun and the Earth.

3) The size of a neutron star is determined by its mass and density, which are both extremely high.

A typical neutron star has a mass of about 1.4 times that of the Sun, but is only about 10-15 kilometers in radius.

This makes it incredibly dense, with a mass-to-volume ratio that is several times higher than that of an atomic nucleus.

In summary, a neutron star is much more massive than the Sun or the Earth, but its size is significantly smaller than both, making it smaller than any of the options given.

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an otherwise opaque star is surrounded by a slightly cooler atmosphere. which type of spectrum do you see? a bright line emission spectrum. a continuous spectrum. i will not see any of these types of spectra. a dark line absorption spectrum.

Answers

Opaque star is surrounded by a slightly cooler atmosphere, then we would see a dark line absorption spectrum. This is because the cooler gas absorbs certain wavelengths of light from the star's continuous spectrum, resulting in dark lines where those wavelengths are missing.

The dark lines in the absorption spectrum allow us to identify the elements present in the star's atmosphere. The cooler atmosphere surrounding the otherwise opaque star absorbs specific wavelengths of light from the continuous spectrum emitted by the star, creating dark lines in the observed spectrum. An absorption spectrum shows the range of electromagnetic energy that the plant has absorbed. This is dependent on the plant's cellular and molecular structure. The electromagnetic radiation spectrum that is most effective for photosynthesis is depicted by an action spectrum.  

The chlorophyll absorption spectrum is monitored by the action spectrum of photosynthesis. The action potential can tell us about the wavelengths that are most effective for photosynthesis, while the absorption spectrum indicates how much of each wavelength chlorophyll will absorb.

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a coil is placed next to a straight wire. the current in the wire is as shown in the diagram below. the coil and wire lie in the same plane with the z axis perpendicular to the plane of the coil. (a) as the current in the wire increases, find the direction of the induced current in the coil by answering the following questions. (i) what is the direction of the magnetic field due to the current carrying wire in the center of the coil? ---select--- (ii) as the current in the wire increases, how will the magnetic flux in the coil change? ---select--- (iii) what is the direction of the induced magnetic flux in the coil? ---select--- (iv) what is the direction of the induced current in the coil? ---select---

Answers

(i) The coil's centre plane at which the magnetic field from the wire is either in or out of.(ii) As wire current increases, the coil's magnetic flux also rises.(iii) Magnetic flux that has been induced opposes the change and creates a countervailing field.(iv) According to Lenz's law, induced coil current balances the growing wire's magnetic field.

The magnetic field produced by the current-carrying wire at the coil's centre is directed into or away from the coil and perpendicular to its plane.

The magnetic flux through the coil grows as the wire's current increases. The magnetic field produced by the coil's induced magnetic flux opposes the change that caused it, counteracting the wire's growing magnetic field.

Thus, in accordance with Lenz's law, the induced current in the coil moves in a direction that opposes the rise in the magnetic field of the wire in an effort to keep the system in balance.

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If, prior to applying the pads, you see a medication patch on the person's chest you should--
Remove it with gloved hands
Leave the patch on the chest and place the AED pads on chest even if they touch the patch.
Leave the patch on the chest and place the AED pads around the patch so they don't touch the patch.
Remove the patch using no gloves.

Answers

Remove the patch with gloved hands before applying the AED pads to the person's chest. It is important to ensure that the chest is clean and dry before applying the AED pads to maximize their effectiveness.

AED pads (automated external defibrillator pads) are adhesive pads that are placed on a person's chest to deliver an electric shock in the event of sudden cardiac arrest (SCA). AED pads are an important component of an AED, which is a portable medical device used to treat people experiencing cardiac arrest. AED pads are typically sold in pairs, with one pad placed on the upper right chest and the other on the lower left side of the chest. The pads contain sensors that analyze the person's heart rhythm and determine whether a shock is needed. If a shock is required, the AED delivers a controlled electric shock to the heart through the pads to restore a normal heart rhythm. The AED pads are designed to be easy to use and are equipped with clear visual and audio instructions to guide the user through the process of applying them to the person's chest. The pads are also designed to be compatible with different types of AEDs, making it easy to replace or upgrade them if needed.

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would the direction of electrons be counter clockwise or clockwise if the electrons was parallel or antiparallel to the magnetic field

Answers

If electrons are moving in a magnetic field, their direction depends on the orientation of the magnetic field and the charge of the electron. The direction can be determined using the right-hand rule.  For electrons, which have a negative charge, you should use the left-hand rule instead.

If the electrons are moving parallel to the magnetic field, there will be no force exerted on them, since the angle between their velocity vector and the magnetic field vector is zero. Therefore, the direction of the electrons will not be affected by the magnetic field.

If the electrons are moving antiparallel to the magnetic field, the force exerted on them will be in the opposite direction to the force exerted on electrons moving parallel to the magnetic field. Therefore, the direction of the electrons will be affected by the magnetic field, and will be opposite to the direction predicted by the right-hand rule.

If the magnetic field is oriented perpendicular to the direction of the current flow, the force exerted on the electrons will be perpendicular to both the current flow and the magnetic field. In this case, the direction of the force and the resulting electron flow can be determined using the right-hand rule.

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If the electrons are moving parallel to the magnetic field, then they will not experience any force due to the magnetic field.

This is because the magnetic field only exerts a force on moving charged particles that are perpendicular to the direction of the magnetic field lines.

If the electrons are moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, then they will experience a force due to the interaction between their electric charge and the magnetic field. This force is known as the Lorentz force and is given by the equation:

F = q(v x B)

where F is the force, q is the electric charge of the particle, v is the velocity of the particle, and B is the magnetic field vector.

In this case, the electrons will move in a circular path around the magnetic field lines, with the direction of the circular motion depending on the direction of the magnetic field and the charge of the electron.

To determine the direction of the circular motion, we use the right-hand rule.

The right-hand rule states that if you point your right thumb in the direction of the velocity vector (v) and your fingers in the direction of the magnetic field vector (B), then your palm will face in the direction of the force vector (F).

So, if the magnetic field is pointing upwards and the electrons are moving towards you, then the direction of the circular motion would be clockwise.

If the electrons are moving away from you, the direction of the circular motion would be counterclockwise.

If the magnetic field is pointing downwards, the direction of the circular motion would be reversed.

In summary, if the electrons are moving parallel to the magnetic field, they will not experience any force due to the magnetic field.

if they are moving perpendicular to the magnetic field, they will move in a circular path around the magnetic field lines, with the direction of the circular motion depending on the direction of the magnetic field and the charge of the electron.

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Question 43 Marks: 1 Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

a. True. Exposure of the gonads (ovaries or testes) is necessary to cause genetic effects from ionizing radiation.

Exposure to ionizing radiation can cause genetic effects without direct exposure of the gonads. Radiation can cause genetic damage to cells as it passes through the body and can be absorbed by any part of the body, including organs, tissues, and cells. When this radiation is absorbed, it can damage the DNA of the cells, leading to mutations and the potential for genetic effects. Therefore, direct exposure of the gonads is not necessary for genetic effects from ionizing radiation.

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Which is the largest?
International Space Station
Venus
Jupiter
Mercury?

Answers

Jupiter is the largest. It is the largest planet in the Solar System, with a diameter of about 86,881 miles (139,822 kilometers).

The International Space Station (ISS) is a habitable artificial satellite in low Earth orbit, with a size of approximately 357 feet (109 meters) in length and 240 feet (73 meters) in width.

Venus is the second planet from the Sun and has a diameter of about 7,520 miles (12,104 kilometers), which makes it similar in size to Earth.

Mercury is the smallest planet in the Solar System, with a diameter of about 3,032 miles (4,879 kilometers).

Therefore, the correct answer is Jupiter.

An object moving in a straight line at a constant speed (a=0) is in

Answers

Answer:

uniform motion

Explanation:

Uniform motion is defined as the motion of an object in which the object travels in a straight line and its velocity remains constant along that line as it covers equal distances in equal intervals of time.

What volume of a 0.100MHCl stock solution should be used to prepare 250.00mL of 0.0250MHCl?A) 1.00mLB) 16.0mLC) 62.5mLD) 100.mL

Answers

The correct answer is C) 62.5 mL.

Below is the step - wise procedure.

To prepare the desired solution, you can use the dilution formula: C1V1 = C2V2, where C1 is the initial concentration, V1 is the initial volume, C2 is the final concentration, and V2 is the final volume.

1. Identify the given values:
C1 = 0.100 M (initial concentration of HCl stock solution)
C2 = 0.0250 M (final concentration of HCl)
V2 = 250.00 mL (final volume of diluted HCl solution)

2. Rearrange the formula to solve for V1:
V1 = (C2 * V2) / C1

3. Plug in the given values:
V1 = (0.0250 M * 250.00 mL) / 0.100 M

4. Calculate the result:
V1 = 62.5 mL

So, to prepare 250.00 mL of 0.0250 M HCl, you should use 62.5 mL of the 0.100 M HCl stock solution. The correct answer is C) 62.5 mL.

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What happens to the energy in a substance when it changes state?
It is destroyed
It is changed into matter
It changes form, but is neither destroyed nor increased
The energy remains unchanged

Answers

Answer: Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another.

Explanation: According to the law of conservation of energy given by Julius Robert Mayer Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but it can only be transformed from one form to another.

it can be explained by an example that when we burn a candle, the chemical energy of wax is converted into light energy.

Also in dams the running water of the river is used to convert mechanical energy into hydroelectric energy

compare the change in light intensity with distance from a point source to the change for a source of plane waves (parallel rays). in which case is the change faster?

Answers

The changes in light intensity are faster for a point source than for a source of plane waves. This is because the inverse square law results in a faster decrease in intensity with distance than the linear decrease seen in plane waves.

The change in light intensity with distance from a point source and a source of plane waves (parallel rays) follows different patterns.

For a point source, the intensity of light decreases with the square of the distance from the source, following what's known as the inverse square law. This means that if you double the distance from the source, the intensity of light decreases to one-fourth of its original value.

For a source of plane waves, the intensity of light decreases linearly with distance. This means that if you double the distance from the source, the intensity of light decreases to half of its original value.

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The change in light intensity with distance from a point source is much faster compared to the change for a source of plane waves (parallel rays). This is because a point source emits light in all directions, whereas plane waves emit light in a specific direction.

When light is emitted from a point source, it spreads out uniformly in all directions, and the intensity of the light decreases rapidly as the distance from the source increases. This is because the surface area of a sphere (4πr^2) increases as the distance from the source increases, causing the same amount of light to be spread over a larger area. As a result, the light intensity decreases with the square of the distance from the source (I ∝ 1/r^2).

On the other hand, a source of plane waves emits light in parallel rays, which means that the light intensity remains constant as the distance from the source increases. This is because the light is traveling in straight lines and is not spreading out or diverging in any way. Therefore, the light intensity does not decrease with distance.

In conclusion, the change in light intensity with distance from a point source is much faster than the change for a source of plane waves. The light intensity from a point source decreases rapidly as the distance from the source increases, while the light intensity from a source of plane waves remains constant.

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The grounded neutral of a balanced 3-wire delta circuit or balance 4 wire wye circuit (is)(is not) considered a current carrying conductor. true or false

Answers

False. The grounded neutral of a balanced 3-wire delta circuit or balanced 4 wire wye circuit is not considered a current carrying conductor.

Current flows through the phase conductors in the circuit, and the grounded neutral serves as a reference point and a path for fault current to return to the source.

In a balanced system, the currents in each phase are equal in magnitude and evenly distributed, resulting in a net current of zero in the neutral conductor. Therefore, the grounded neutral is not considered a current-carrying conductor in this situation. It is typically used as a reference point for voltage measurements and as a return path for unbalanced current in the circuit. The current is carried by the other two or three conductors in the circuit.

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electric wires can be covered with a material that does not transmit electricity, such as rubber or plasitic coating thei materical is known as

Answers

The material used to cover electric wires and prevent the transmission of electricity is known as an insulator. Insulators are typically made of materials such as rubber, plastic, or glass.

Insulators are important for protecting people and objects from electrical shock and preventing electrical fires. Without insulation, electricity would be able to flow freely through wires, posing a significant safety risk.

In summary, the material used to cover electric wires and prevent the transmission of electricity is known as an insulator, which is essential for safety in electrical systems.

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Question 3 Marks: 1 A hydraulic ram is used to elevate a quantity of water to a higher elevation. Rams are powered byChoose one answer. a. wind b. electricity c. water d. heat

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Rams are powered by water. A hydraulic ram works by using the force of flowing water to pump a smaller quantity of water to a higher elevation.

As the water flows through the ram, it creates a pressure differential that causes a valve to open and close, forcing water into a delivery pipe. This mechanism allows the ram to lift water from a lower source to a higher location without the need for external power sources such as electricity or heat.

Hydropower is used to power cyclic water pumps known as hydraulic ram pumps, ram pumps, or hydrams. It draws in water at one "hydraulic head" (pressure) and flow rate, then discharges water at a higher hydraulic head and lower flow rate. The device creates pressure by using the water hammer effect, which enables some of the water used to power the pump to be raised from its starting point to a higher one. When there is a low-head hydropower source and a need to pump water to a location at a higher elevation than the source, the hydraulic ram is occasionally utilised in isolated places. The ram is frequently helpful here because it doesn't need any other power source other

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14.) Oxygen condenses into a liquid at approximately 90 K. What temperature, in degrees Farenheit, does this correspond to?
A.) -193 degrees Farenheit
B.) -217 degrees Farenheit
C.) -265 degrees Farenheit
D.) -297 degrees Farenheit

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the closest answer to the given options is: D.) -297 degrees Fahrenheit

The answer is B.) -217 degrees Fahrenheit.

To convert from Kelvin to Fahrenheit, you can use the following formula:

°F = (K - 273.15) x 1.8 + 32

Plugging in 90 K for K, we get:

°F = (90 - 273.15) x 1.8 + 32
°F = (-183.15) x 1.8 + 32
°F = -329.67 + 32
°F = -297.67

Therefore, the answer is D.) -297 degrees Fahrenheit.
To convert the temperature from Kelvin to Fahrenheit, you can use the following formula:

°F = (K - 273.15) * 9/5 + 32

Given that oxygen condenses into a liquid at approximately 90 K, you can find the corresponding temperature in Fahrenheit:

°F = (90 - 273.15) * 9/5 + 32 ≈ -297.67

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As the temperature of air is reduced to its dew point, which phase change is most likely to occur?

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As the temperature of air is reduced to its dew point, the phase change that is most likely to occur is the condensation of water vapor into liquid droplets, also known as dew.

As the temperature of air is reduced to its dew point, the phase change that is most likely to occur is condensation. Condensation is the process by which a gas changes into a liquid as it loses heat and its temperature decreases. When air is cooled to its dew point, which is the temperature at which the air becomes saturated with moisture and cannot hold any more water vapor, the excess moisture in the form of water vapor condenses into liquid droplets or frost, depending on the temperature and other conditions. This is commonly observed as dew forming on surfaces such as grass, leaves, and windows, or frost forming on colder surfaces during cold weather conditions.

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According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, when the distance between two masses is increased by a factor or 3, the attractive gravitational force between them is

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According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, when the distance between two masses is increased by a factor of 3, the attractive gravitational force between them is decreased by a factor of 9 (3 squared).

This means that the force decreases exponentially as the distance between the masses increases.
According to Newton's law of universal gravitation, when the distance between two masses is increased by a factor of 3, the attractive gravitational force between them is decreased by a factor of 9 (3²).

This is because the gravitational force is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the masses.

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A standard light bulb in the United States is 60 W (Watts). The standard wall outlet voltage in the United States is 120 V, but in Europe, the standard wall outlet voltage is 240 V. If this 60 W light bulb could be plugged into a socket in Europe, what would be true about how bright the bulb was? The bulb would be twice as bright. The bulb would be four times as bright. The bulb would be the same brightness. The bulb would be one-half as bright. The bulb would be one-quarter as bright

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Light bulb could be plugged into a socket in Europe, would be true about how bright the bulb was (c). The bulb would be one-half as bright is the correct option.

The brightness of a light bulb is measured in terms of its power consumption, which is given in watts (W). When the voltage is constant, the power consumed by a device is directly proportional to its brightness. In the United States, a standard 60 W light bulb operates at 120 V. To determine the current consumed by the bulb, we can use Ohm's law:

Power = Voltage x Current

60 W = 120 V x Current

Current = 60 W / 120 V = 0.5 A

Now, if we were to plug this same 60 W light bulb into a socket in Europe with a standard voltage of 240 V, we can use Ohm's law again to determine the current consumed by the bulb:

Power = Voltage x Current

60 W = 240 V x Current

Current = 60 W / 240 V = 0.25 A

The power consumed by the bulb is the same, regardless of the voltage it is connected to. But the current consumed by the bulb in Europe is half of what it would be in the United States.

The bulb would be one-half as bright when plugged into a socket in Europe compared to when it is plugged into a socket in the United States.

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Someone throws a heavy ball to you when you are standing on roller skates. You catch the ball and begin to roll backwards. How does your speed after the collision compare to the speed of the ball before the collision? Explain your answer.

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According to the law of conservation of momentum, the total momentum of a system remains constant if there are no external forces acting on the system. In this case, the system consists of the person on roller skates and the ball that is thrown.

Before the collision, the ball has momentum, and the person on roller skates is stationary. After the collision, both the ball and the person on roller skates have momentum, and they move together in the same direction.

Since the momentum of the system is conserved, the total momentum before the collision must be equal to the total momentum after the collision. Therefore, the momentum of the ball before the collision is equal to the momentum of the ball and the person on roller skates after the collision.

If we assume that the person on roller skates is much more massive than the ball, then the momentum of the person on roller skates can be neglected. In this case, the momentum of the ball before the collision is equal to the momentum of the ball and the person on roller skates after the collision.

Since the mass of the ball is much smaller than the combined mass of the ball and the person on roller skates, the speed of the ball after the collision will be much smaller than its speed before the collision. Meanwhile, the speed of the person on roller skates after the collision will be faster than their initial stationary position due to the transfer of momentum from the ball to the person on roller skates.

In summary, the speed of the ball after the collision will be slower than its initial speed, while the speed of the person on roller skates will be faster than their initial stationary position.

~~~Harsha~~~

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