"The process of allowing a broker to originate and close a loan in his or her own name before transferring the loan to the lender providing the funds is called:a. Wet settlementb. Table fundingc. Securitizationd. Dry settlement"

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Answer 1

The process of allowing a broker to originate and close a loan in his or her own name before transferring the loan to the lender providing the funds is called table funding.

Table funding is a process in which a mortgage broker originates a loan in their own name and uses funds from a warehouse line of credit to close the loan. Once the loan is closed, the broker transfers it to the lender who will provide the permanent financing for the loan. This process allows the broker to retain control over the loan until it is sold to the lender, which can help to reduce costs and simplify the loan process.The process of allowing a broker to originate and close a loan in his or her own name before transferring the loan to the lender providing the funds is called:a. Wet settlementb. Table fundingc. Securitizationd. Dry settlement"

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Demand and utility schedules for scented candles Price Quantity Demanded 1 2 Marginal Utility Total Utility $8 1$7 2$6 3$5 4$4 5 If the price is $5 for each scented candle, Polly's consumer surplus is

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Demand and utility schedules for scented candles Price Quantity Demanded 1 2 Marginal Utility Total Utility $8 1$7 2$6 3$5 4$4 5 If the price is $5 for each scented candle, Polly's consumer surplus is $6.

To find Polly's consumer surplus, we first need to determine the quantity of scented candles she would demand at a price of $5. From the demand schedule given, we can see that at a price of $5, the quantity demanded is 4.

Next, we need to calculate the total utility that Polly would receive from consuming those 4 scented candles. From the utility schedule given, we can see that the total utility for 4 scented candles is $22 ($8 + $7 + $6 + $1).

Now, we can calculate the maximum amount that Polly would be willing to pay for those 4 scented candles, which is equal to her total utility. In this case, her maximum willingness to pay is $22.

Since the price is only $5, Polly's consumer surplus is equal to the difference between her maximum willingness to pay and the actual price she pays. Therefore, her consumer surplus is:

$22 - $5 = $17

So Polly's consumer surplus for scented candles at a price of $5 is $17.

Based on the information provided, the demand and utility schedules for scented candles are as follows:

Price       Quantity Demanded       Marginal Utility       Total Utility
$8             1                                     -                               -
$7             2                                     -                               -
$6             3                                     -                               -
$5             4                                     -                               -
$4             5                                     -                               -

To calculate Polly's consumer surplus at a price of $5 for each scented candle, we need to find the difference between her willingness to pay and the actual price she pays.

At a price of $5, Polly is willing to buy 4 scented candles. Her willingness to pay for each of the 4 candles is as follows:
1st candle: $8
2nd candle: $7
3rd candle: $6
4th candle: $5

For each candle, we subtract the price paid ($5) from the willingness to pay:

1st candle: $8 - $5 = $3
2nd candle: $7 - $5 = $2
3rd candle: $6 - $5 = $1
4th candle: $5 - $5 = $0

Polly's consumer surplus is the sum of these differences:

$3 + $2 + $1 + $0 = $6

So, Polly's consumer surplus at a price of $5 for each scented candle is $6.

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What is the potential GDP? a. potential GDP and actual GDP are the same thing b. the actual level of GDP attacine by firms no matter the level of the capacity they operate at. c. potential GDP is another name of current GDP d. the level of real GDP attained when all firms are operating at capacity

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Potential GDP is the level of real GDP that an economy can produce when all firms are operating at capacity, using all available labour, capital, and technology, and all resources are fully employed.

Potential GDP represents the highest level of output that an economy can achieve in the long run, assuming that all resources are used efficiently. It provides a benchmark for measuring the gap between an economy's actual output and its potential output, which is called the output gap.

When an economy is operating below its potential GDP, it means that some resources are not being fully utilized, such as unemployed workers, idle factories, or unused land. In contrast, when an economy is operating above its potential GDP, it may experience inflationary pressures, as firms try to produce more than what the economy can sustainably produce.

Therefore, potential GDP is an important concept in macroeconomics as it helps policymakers understand the underlying capacity of an economy and identify the factors that affect its long-run growth.

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Which is true of lager-style beer?

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Lager-style beer is characterized by its cold fermentation process, use of specific yeast strains, and a typically light, crisp flavor profile

Definition of lager-style beer

Lager-style beer is a type of beer that is brewed using a bottom-fermenting yeast at cooler temperatures, typically between 45 and 55 degrees Fahrenheit.

This results in a clean, crisp taste and a light body. Lagers are often pale in color, although there are dark lagers as well.

They typically have a lower alcohol content than ales, ranging from 3% to 6% ABV. Lager-style beers have a longer fermentation and conditioning period than ales, which can take weeks to months. This results in a smooth taste that is easy to drink.

Lager-style beers originated in Germany, but are now brewed all over the world. Some popular examples of lager-style beers include Pilsner, Helles, Bock, and Märzen.

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all other things held constant, premiums on put options will increase when the group of answer choices exercise price increases. volatility of the underlying asset increases. term to maturity increases. a and c are both true. all of the above are true.

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Based on the terms you provided, the answer to your question is: Premiums on put options will increase when all of the above are true, which means when the exercise price increases, the volatility of the underlying asset increases, and the term to maturity increases.

The option becomes more valuable as it allows the holder to sell the underlying asset at a higher price. This leads to an increase in the premium on the put option. Similarly, when the volatility of the underlying asset increases, there is a greater likelihood that the asset price will move in a direction that benefits the holder of the put option, leading to an increase in the option's premium.

Finally, as the term to maturity increases, there is more time for the underlying asset to move in a direction that benefits the holder of the put option, leading to an increase in the option's premium.

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A supplier to automobile manufacturers wants to be sure that the leak rate (in cubic centimeters per second) of transmission oil coolers (TOCs) meets the established specification limits.A random sample of 10 TOCs is tested, and the leak rates are shown below.0.045 0.041 0.054 0.045 0.052 0.055 0.045 0.059 0.047 0.054What is the value for a minimum variance unbiased point estimate of the population mean?

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The leak rate for TOCs is between 0.0433 and 0.0581 cubic centimeters per second, based on this sample of 10 TOCs.

To calculate the minimum variance unbiased point estimate of the population mean for the leak rate of transmission oil coolers (TOCs), we first need to calculate the sample mean and sample variance.

The sample mean is calculated by adding up all of the leak rates and dividing by the sample size (n=10):

Sample mean = (0.045 + 0.041 + 0.054 + 0.045 + 0.052 + 0.055 + 0.045 + 0.059 + 0.047 + 0.054) / 10 = 0.0507

The sample variance is calculated by taking the sum of the squared differences between each observation and the sample mean, and dividing by the sample size minus one:

Sample variance = [(0.045 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.041 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.054 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.045 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.052 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.055 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.045 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.059 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.047 - 0.0507)^2 + (0.054 - 0.0507)^2] / (10-1)

Sample variance = 0.000119

Now, to calculate the minimum variance unbiased point estimate of the population mean, we can use the formula:

Minimum variance unbiased point estimate = sample mean +/- t * (sample standard deviation / sqrt(n))

Where t is the t-distribution value for a given level of confidence (e.g. 95% confidence), and sqrt(n) is the square root of the sample size.

However, since we do not have the sample standard deviation, we need to estimate it using the sample variance. To do this, we simply take the square root of the sample variance:

Sample standard deviation = sqrt(0.000119) = 0.0109

Assuming a 95% confidence level, the t-distribution value for 9 degrees of freedom (n-1) is 2.262. Therefore, the minimum variance unbiased point estimate of the population mean for the leak rate of TOCs is:

Minimum variance unbiased point estimate = 0.0507 +/- 2.262 * (0.0109 / sqrt(10))

Minimum variance unbiased point estimate = 0.0507 +/- 0.0074

Minimum variance unbiased point estimate = [0.0433, 0.0581]

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QUESTION 1 The multiplier is equal to MPC/(1 - MPC). a. True b. False QUESTION 2 During recessions, the government tends to run a budget deficit. a. True b. False QUESTION 3 Permanent tax cuts have a larger impact on consumption spending than temporary ones. a. True b. False QUESTION 4 Unemployment insurance and welfare programs work as automatic stabilizers. a. True b. False QUESTION 5 Both the multiplier and the investment accelerator tend to make the aggregate-demand curve shift farther than the increase in government expenditures. a. True b. False

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The both can contribute to shifts in the aggregate-demand curve, they do not necessarily shift the curve farther than an increase in government expenditures alone.

Why we can the multiplier and the investment accelerator tend to make the aggregate-demand curve?

The are the answers to the five questions along with a brief explanation:

The multiplier is equal to [tex]MPC/(1 - MPC)[/tex].

True. The multiplier is calculated as the reciprocal of the marginal propensity to save (MPS), which is 1 minus the marginal propensity to consume [tex](MPC)[/tex]. Therefore, the formula for the multiplier is [tex]MPC/(1 - MPC)[/tex].

During recessions, the government tends to run a budget deficit.

True. During a recession, tax revenues tend to decrease and government spending on programs such as unemployment benefits and other safety nets tends to increase. As a result, the government may need to run a budget deficit to maintain economic stability.

Permanent tax cuts have a larger impact on consumption spending than temporary ones.

True. Permanent tax cuts provide individuals and businesses with greater certainty about their future income and spending, which can lead to a greater increase in consumption spending compared to temporary tax cuts that may only provide a short-term boost to spending.

Unemployment insurance and welfare programs work as automatic stabilizers.

True. Unemployment insurance and welfare programs provide support to individuals during economic downturns, which can help stabilize consumer spending and prevent a deeper recession.

Both the multiplier and the investment accelerator tend to make the aggregate-demand curve shift farther than the increase in government expenditures.

False. The multiplier effect refers to the impact of an increase in government expenditures on overall economic activity, while the investment accelerator refers to the impact of changes in investment on economic growth.

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ethics are a subset of business decisions that are subordinate to other considerations. true or false

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The statement is false. Ethics are not a subset of business decisions that are subordinate to other considerations. Ethics are an important part of business decisions and should be considered alongside other factors such as financial, legal, and social considerations.

Ethics refers to a set of moral principles and values that guide behavior and decision-making. In business, ethical considerations can include issues such as corporate social responsibility, environmental sustainability, fair labor practices, and transparency. These considerations are not subordinate to other business decisions but are rather an integral part of responsible and sustainable business practices.

Furthermore, unethical behavior can have significant consequences for businesses, including legal and financial penalties, damage to reputation, and loss of customer trust. Therefore, it is important for businesses to prioritize ethical considerations and incorporate them into their decision-making processes.

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an investment that costs $50,000 will return $15,000 operating cash flows per year for five years. determine the net present value of the investment if the required rate of return is 14 percent. should the investment be undertaken?

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Since the NPV is positive, the investment should be undertaken as it is expected to generate a return higher than the required rate of return.

To determine the net present value (NPV) of the investment, we need to discount the operating cash flows back to their present value using the required rate of return.

First, we need to calculate the present value factor (PVF) for each year using the formula[tex]PVF = 1 / (1 + r)^n[/tex], where r is the required rate of return and n is the number of years. In this case, r = 14% and n = 1-5 (for each year).

[tex]PVF for year 1: 1 / (1 + 0.14)^1 = 0.8772[/tex]
[tex]PVF for year 2: 1 / (1 + 0.14)^2 = 0.7695[/tex]

[tex]PVF for year 3: 1 / (1 + 0.14)^3 = 0.6750[/tex]
[tex]PVF for year 4: 1 / (1 + 0.14)^4 = 0.5921[/tex]
[tex]PVF for year 5: 1 / (1 + 0.14)^5 = 0.5194[/tex]

Next, we need to multiply each year's operating cash flow by its corresponding PVF and then sum those present values.

PV of year 1 operating cash flow: $15,000 x 0.8772 = $13,158
PV of year 2 operating cash flow: $15,000 x 0.7695 = $11,543
PV of year 3 operating cash flow: $15,000 x 0.6750 = $10,125
PV of year 4 operating cash flow: $15,000 x 0.5921 = $8,881
PV of year 5 operating cash flow: $15,000 x 0.5194 = $7,791

Summing these present values gives us the NPV of the investment:

NPV = -$50,000 + $13,158 + $11,543 + $10,125 + $8,881 + $7,791 = $1,498



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on january 15 of the current year, a taxpayer inherited stock worth $25,000. the decedent had purchased the stock in june of the previous year for $20,000, and the shares were worth $23,000 at date of death. the executor of the estate did not elect to use the alternate valuation date. in march of the current year, the taxpayer sold the stock for $27,000. what amount and type of gain should be reported by the taxpayer in the year of the sale?

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The taxpayer should report a long-term capital gain of $2,000 in the year of the sale. An entity that is required to pay taxes is known as a taxpayer, such as a firm.


When a taxpayer inherits stock, the tax basis is typically the fair market value of the stock on the date of the decedent's death. In this case, the taxpayer inherited the stock on January 15 of the current year, when it was worth $23,000. This becomes the tax basis for the stock.
When the taxpayer sells the stock in March of the current year for $27,000, there is a capital gain. To calculate the gain, we need to subtract the tax basis from the sale price. $27,000 (sale price) - $23,000 (tax basis) = $4,000 gain.
However, because the taxpayer held the stock for less than one year (purchased in January and sold in March), it would typically be classified as a short-term capital gain. But because the decedent had purchased the stock more than a year before their death, the taxpayer can treat it as a long-term capital gain. Therefore, the taxpayer should report a long-term capital gain of $2,000 in the year of the sale.

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The nation's long-run unemployment rate in normal times (that is, the natural rate of unemployment) is equal to about a. 10% b. 5%c. 2% d. 15%

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Natural rate of unemployment has been estimated to be around 5%

Why natural natural rate of unemployment is 5%?

The nation's long-run unemployment rate in normal times (the natural rate of unemployment) is the rate of unemployment that occurs when the labor market is in equilibrium and there is no cyclical unemployment.

This means that it is the rate of unemployment that occurs when the economy is producing at its potential level of output, and there is no demand-deficient unemployment.

The natural rate of unemployment is determined by structural and frictional factors in the labor market.

Structural factors include changes in technology and the structure of the economy, while frictional factors refer to the time it takes for workers to find new jobs after they leave their previous jobs.

Historically, the natural rate of unemployment in the United States has been estimated to be around 5%.

This means that even in normal times, when the economy is operating at its full potential, there will still be some level of unemployment due to structural and frictional factors in the labor market.

Therefore, the correct answer is: b. 5%.

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What is nother name for the Pertrarchan sonnet?

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Another name for the Petrarchan sonnet is the Italian sonnet. The Petrarchan sonnet was named after the Italian poet Francesco Petrarca (Petrarch) who popularized this form of poetry in the 14th century.

The Petrarchan sonnet typically consists of 14 lines, with an octave (eight lines) and a sestet (six lines), and follows a specific rhyme scheme. The octave usually presents a problem or situation, and the sestet provides a resolution or conclusion. This sonnet form became popular in Italian literature and was later adopted by poets writing in other languages, including English.

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Applicants for a life and health agent or a property and casualty broker/agent license must complete (?) hours of approved instruction and (?) hours of Ethics and Code

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To become a life and health agent or a property and casualty broker/agent, applicants must complete a specific number of hours of approved instruction and a certain number of hours dedicated to Ethics and Code. The exact requirements vary depending on the jurisdiction.

Answer - Applicants for a life and health agent or a property and casualty broker/agent license must complete a certain number of hours of approved instruction and ethics training in order to become licensed. The specific number of hours required may vary depending on the state and licensing requirements. However, typically applicants must complete around 40-60 hours of approved instruction and around 3-5 hours of Ethics and Code training. It is important for applicants to check with their state's licensing department to determine the exact requirements and ensure they meet all necessary qualifications.

The agent who holds the Life and Accident and Health or Sickness license (Life and Accident and Health or Sickness Agent) or the Accident and Health or Sickness license will be authorized to sell 24-Hour Care Coverage. However, a licensee that only holds a Life license is not authorized to negotiate, transact, or sell 24-Hour Care Coverage.

Note: The Life and Accident and Health or Sickness licensee (Life and Accident and Health or Sickness Agent) or the Accident and Health or Sickness licensee must complete the 24-Hour Care Coverage CE requirements stated in Cal. Ins. Code section 1749.33 of the California Insurance Code. Specifically, any Life and Accident and Health or Sickness licensee (Life and Accident and Health or Sickness Agent) or Accident and Health or Sickness licensee who wishes to sell 24-Hour Care Coverage, as defined in Cal. Ins. Code section 1749.02, shall complete a course, program of instruction, or seminar of an approved CE provider on workers' compensation and general principles of employer liability, which shall be completed by examination approved by the Commissioner as part of the CE course, program of instruction, or seminar prior to selling this coverage. The required number of instruction hours shall be equal to but no greater than that required by the curriculum board for the prelicensing requirements of a Casualty Broker-Agent on these subjects. For resident licensees, this requirement shall be a part of, and not in addition to, the CE requirements stated in

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For a random sample of 100 students, the mean cost for textbooks during the first semester of college was found to be $369.75, and the sample standard deviation was $38.09. Assuming that the population is normally distributed, find the margin of error of a 90% confidence interval for the population mean The margin of error for a 90% confidence interval is (Round to two decimal places as needed.)

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The margin of error for a 90% confidence interval for the population mean is $6.32.

To find the margin of error for a 90% confidence interval for the population mean, you'll need to use the following terms: random sample, mean, sample standard deviation, and normally distributed population.

Given a random sample of 100 students, the mean cost for textbooks during the first semester of college is $369.75, and the sample standard deviation is $38.09. Since the population is normally distributed, we can use a t-distribution to calculate the margin of error.

For a 90% confidence interval, you'll need to find the critical t-value that corresponds to the desired confidence level. With a sample size of 100, the degrees of freedom are 100-1 = 99. Using a t-distribution table, the critical t-value for 99 degrees of freedom and a 90% confidence level is approximately 1.660.

Next, calculate the standard error by dividing the sample standard deviation by the square root of the sample size:

Standard Error = $38.09 / √100 = $38.09 / 10 = $3.809

Finally, multiply the critical t-value by the standard error to find the margin of error:

Margin of Error = 1.660 × $3.809 ≈ $6.32 (rounded to two decimal places)

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Odd-even pricing is used to ........ although overuse of this approach may mute its effect.

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Odd-even pricing is used to create a perception of value and increase sales, although overuse of this approach may mute its effect. Odd-even pricing refers to the practice of setting prices that end in odd numbers, such as $9.99 or $19.95, instead of rounding up to the nearest dollar.

Odd-even pricing is a common pricing strategy used by retailers to create a psychological effect on consumers. By pricing a product just below a round number, such as $10, the consumer perceives the product as cheaper than it actually is, even though the difference between $9.99 and $10 is only one penny. This perception of value can increase the likelihood of a purchase and ultimately increase sales.

However, overuse of this approach may mute its effect. Consumers are becoming increasingly aware of this pricing strategy and may begin to view it as manipulative or dishonest. If a retailer consistently uses odd-even pricing for all of its products, the consumer may start to feel misled and lose trust in the brand.

In addition, odd-even pricing may not be effective for all products or industries. For high-end luxury goods, odd-even pricing may actually decrease the perceived value of the product, as consumers expect luxury products to be priced with even numbers.

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(1) You are the manager of a firm that sells output at a price of $40 per unit. You are interested in hiring a new worker who will increase your firm's output by 2,000 units per year. Several other firms also are interested in hiring this worker. a. What is the highest annual salary you should be willing to pay this worker to come to your firm? b. What will determine whether or not you actually have to offer this much to the worker to induce him to join your firm?

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The worker has multiple attractive options or the other firms are offering higher salaries, you may need to offer a higher salary to secure the worker's employment.

a) As a manager, the highest annual salary you should be willing to pay the new worker is based on the additional revenue they would generate for your firm. Since the worker will increase your output by 2,000 units per year and each unit is sold for $40, the additional revenue generated would be 2,000 units * $40/unit = $80,000 per year. Therefore, the highest annual salary you should be willing to pay this worker is $80,000.

b) The actual salary you have to offer to the worker to induce them to join your firm will depend on factors such as the competing offers from other firms, the worker's preferences in terms of work environment, benefits, and growth opportunities, and your firm's reputation in the industry. If your firm can provide a better overall package compared to other firms, you may not have to offer the maximum salary to attract the worker.

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You can borrow, repay, and reborrow from a home equity loan in the same way as you can from a home equity credit line.a. Trueb. False

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b. False. While both a home equity loan and a home equity credit line allow you to borrow money using your home's equity, their borrowing, repaying, and reborrowing processes differ. A home equity loan provides a lump sum, which you repay in fixed monthly installments. Once the loan is repaid, you cannot reborrow the funds. On the other hand, a home equity credit line operates more like a credit card, allowing you to borrow, repay, and reborrow funds as needed within your credit limit. With a home equity loan, you receive the money you are borrowing in a lump sum payment and you usually have a fixed interest rate. With a home equity line of credit (HELOC), you have the ability to borrow or draw money multiple times from an available maximum amount.

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According to the ______, parol evidence is admissible for the sake of clarification if it addresses prior dealings between the parties or usages of trade in the business they are in.

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According to the Uniform Commercial Code (UCC), parol evidence is admissible for the sake of clarification if it addresses prior dealings between the parties or usages of trade in the business they are in.

The UCC is a set of laws governing commercial transactions in the United States, and it provides rules for the interpretation and enforcement of contracts related to the sale of goods.

The UCC recognizes that parties to a contract may have established a course of dealing or usage of trade that should be taken into account when interpreting the terms of the contract.

Therefore, evidence of prior dealings or industry practices may be admissible to clarify the meaning of ambiguous terms or resolve disputes about the intent of the parties.

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Natalie wants to deposit $2,000 into a savings account at a 1.25 percent interest rate. The interest is compounded every six months. How much interest will she earn over two years?

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Answer:

Natalie will earn $50.31 in interest over two years assuming that the interest is compounded every 6 months.

Explanation:

Natalie will earn $50.31 in interest over two years, assuming that the interest is compounded every six months.

Here's how to calculate it:

- First, we need to figure out how many times the interest will be compounded over two years. Since the interest is compounded every six months, there will be four compounding periods per year, or a total of eight compounding periods over two years.

- Next, we can use the formula A = P(1 + r/n)^(nt) to calculate the amount of money Natalie will have in her account after two years, where:

- A is the amount of money in the account after two years

- P is the principal (the initial amount of money deposited)

- r is the annual interest rate (1.25%)

- n is the number of times the interest is compounded per year (4, since it's compounded every six months)

- t is the number of years (2)

Plugging in these values, we get:

A = 2000(1 + 0.0125/4)^(4*2)

= 2000(1.00625)^8

= 2100.31

- Finally, we can subtract the initial principal from the final amount to find the amount of interest earned:

Interest = A - P

= 2100.31 - 2000

= 100.31

Rounding to the nearest cent, Natalie will earn $50.31 in interest over two years.

Answer:

$4050.16

Explanation:

using the formula 2000(1+.0125/2)^2(2) to represent the 6 month period (A=P(1+r/n)^nt) you get 4050.15625 which rouned to the nearest tenth is 4050.16 to represent the change

Common barriers to creativity ordinarily do not include: A. Loose controls and generous budgets. B. Prejudgment of ideas. C. Restrictive policies, rules, rituals and procedures. D. Fear of failure.

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Common barriers to creativity do not include A. Loose controls and generous budgets.

Barriers to creativity refer to the various obstacles that hinder the ability of individuals to think creatively and come up with innovative ideas. Prejudgment of ideas, restrictive policies, rules, rituals, and procedures, and fear of failure are some of the most common barriers to creativity. Prejudgment of ideas occurs when individuals judge the worth of an idea before giving it due consideration. Restrictive policies, rules, rituals, and procedures can limit the ability of employees to experiment with new ideas, while fear of failure can prevent individuals from taking risks and exploring new possibilities. On the other hand, loose controls and generous budgets are not barriers to creativity but rather factors that may facilitate the creation of innovative ideas, as they provide employees with the freedom and resources they need to experiment with new approaches and ideas.

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maria is extremely talented at turning an unhappy customer into a satisfied customer and excels at resolving issues with coworkers effectively and efficiently. what kind of skills does maria have that an employer might find useful? technical literacy skills professionalism skills problem solving skills diversity awareness skills

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Maria possesses technical literacy skills, professionalism skills, and problem-solving abilities that an employer may find useful.

Which of the three fundamental literacy skills?

Literacy is characterized as knowledge and competence in a specific area. The 21st-century skills framework includes three Literacy Skills: Information Literacy, Media Literacy, and Technology Literacy.

What are the six basic components of literacy?

According to research, there really are six main elements that are crucial to achievements beginning reading. Because of their significance, these elements have been dubbed the "Big Six": oral language, phonemic awareness, phonics, vocabulary, fluency, and comprehension.

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Why would finance charges be applied to a customer with a credit card?
• if the customer did not use the car
• if the customer paid the entire bill
• if the customer did not pay off the entire bill
if the customer charged the maximum amount

Answers

Answer:

Finance charges are applied to a customer with a credit card if the customer did not pay off the entire bill. Here are the reasons why:

Credit cards allow customers to borrow money from the credit card company to make purchases.When a customer uses a credit card, they are essentially taking out a loan from the credit card company.The credit card company charges interest on the loan, which is known as a finance charge.If the customer pays off the entire bill by the due date, they will not be charged any finance charges.However, if the customer does not pay off the entire bill, the remaining balance will be subject to finance charges.Finance charges are typically calculated based on the average daily balance of the account over the billing cycle.The finance charges will continue to be applied until the customer pays off the entire balance.

Therefore, if the customer did not pay off the entire bill, finance charges will be applied, regardless of whether they used the card, paid the entire bill, or charged the maximum amount.

The Hedonic Wage and Risk of Injury Theory suggests that the more risk averse a worker is Select one: the worker will be strictly unwilling to take additional risk on the job a. b. the greater the wage required for taking on additional risks c. the worker will be absolutely unwilling to take on additional risks on the job d. the less the wage required for taking on additional risks 10:05 PM VI In cases where jobs and workers and homogeneous, Select one: there are moderate wage differentials a b there are absolutely no wage differentials C. there are considerable wage differentials d. cannot be determined

Answers

The Hedonic Wage and Risk of Injury Theory suggests that the more risk averse a worker is, b. the greater the wage required for taking on additional risks.

In cases where jobs and workers are homogeneous, c. there are considerable wage differentials.

The Hedonic Wage and Risk of Injury Theory suggests that the more risk averse a worker is, the greater the wage required for taking on additional risks. This means that workers who are more hesitant to take on dangerous tasks will need to be compensated with higher wages in order to incentivize them to take those risks.

In cases where jobs and workers are homogeneous, there are typically moderate wage differentials. This means that workers in similar jobs with similar qualifications and experience will generally earn similar wages, with some variation based on factors such as location, company size, and industry. However, there may still be some variation in wages due to differences in performance or other factors.

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allows the company or the worker to break the work relationship at any point in time, with or without any particular reason, as long as no law is violated. a.Employment-at-will b.Codes of conduct c.Workplace monitoring d.Orientation

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Allows the company or the worker to break the work relationship at any point in time, with or without any particular reason, as long as no law is violated  Employment-at-will . Option A

The term that describes the work relationship between a company and a worker that allows for either party to end the relationship at any point in time, with or without a specific reason, as long as no laws are violated, is employment-at-will.

This means that the employer does not need to provide a reason for terminating an employee, nor does the employee need to provide a reason for leaving the company. It is a common practice in the United States and is considered the default standard for most non-unionized employees.

Codes of conduct and workplace monitoring are not directly related to employment-at-will. Codes of conduct are a set of rules and guidelines that govern employee behavior, and workplace monitoring refers to the use of technology to monitor employee activities while at work.

Orientation, on the other hand, is a crucial part of the onboarding process for new employees. It includes familiarizing them with the company's policies, procedures, and expectations, as well as introducing them to their colleagues and their roles and responsibilities.

In conclusion, employment-at-will is a legal doctrine that allows companies and workers to break the work relationship at any point in time, without the need for a specific reason, as long as no laws are violated. It is a common practice in the United States and is not related to codes of conduct, workplace monitoring, or orientation. Option A is correct.

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Question 1 Recall the model of Medieval Economy
MtV = PtYt
Yt = ALt
Pt+1/Pt = (Lt/L)0
(a) Suppose I = 2, V = 1, Ā= 1, M = M = 6, 7 = 0.2 solve for steady state P,L and Y. (b) Suppose money supply increases, M = M = 12, all the other exogenous variables are the same as before. After tı years, the economy reached a new steady state. What is the new steady state PL and Y? (c) Calculate the levels of P, Y for periods t=-1 (the day before the change) and t = 0,1,2,3. (d) Use graphs draw the transition dynamics of Pt, Yt over time. (e) Which parameter is the key to determine tı (the convergence speed)? What would be the evolution of P and Y overtime if () = 1? Given that ( controls the level of price stickiness, briefly discuss the connection between monetary non-neutrality (the real effect of money) and price stickiness. (f) If instead money supply decreases, Ñ < M, directly illustrate the transition dynamics of P, Y on a graph.

Answers

(a) In the steady state, P = 1, L = 1.5, and Y = 1.5.

(b) In the new steady state, P = 2, L = 1.2, and Y = 1.2.

(c) For t = -1, P = 1, Y = 1.5. For t = 0, P = 1, Y = 1.5. For t = 1, P = 2, Y = 1.2. For t = 2, P = 2, Y = 1.2. For t = 3, P = 2, Y = 1.2.

(d) The transition dynamics of Pt and Yt over time can be illustrated with two graphs, where the horizontal axis represents time and the vertical axis represents the levels of Pt and Yt.

Initially, both Pt and Yt remain constant until t = 1 when the increase in money supply leads to an increase in prices and a decrease in output. The economy then adjusts towards the new steady state levels of Pt and Yt over time.

(e) The parameter that determines the convergence speed is α. If α = 1, the adjustment towards the new steady state levels of Pt and Yt will occur instantly.

The connection between price stickiness and monetary non-neutrality is that sticky prices can cause a delay in the adjustment of prices to changes in money supply, leading to changes in output in the short run.

(f) If money supply decreases, the transition dynamics of Pt and Yt would be the opposite of the case when money supply increases. Initially, both Pt and Yt would remain constant until t = 1 when the decrease in money supply leads to a decrease in prices and an increase in output.

The economy then adjusts towards the new steady state levels of Pt and Yt over time.

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When it appeared that conventional Open Market Operations wasnot sufficient, monetary policy officials felt it was necessary toadopt quantitative easing as part of the monetary policy mix duringthe 2008 real estate crisis in the US. Why? To support your argument(s) use the yield curve graph and show the before and after of the monetary policy initiatives. Show a Yield Graph

Answers

During the 2008 real estate crisis in the US, conventional Open Market Operations (OMO) were not sufficient to stimulate the economy.

The Federal Reserve responded by implementing a new policy tool known as quantitative easing (QE) in order to provide additional monetary stimulus. The main goal of QE was to lower long-term interest rates by purchasing large quantities of long-term assets such as government bonds and mortgage-backed securities.

The yield curve graph can help illustrate the impact of QE on interest rates. Before QE was implemented, the yield curve was upward sloping, with short-term interest rates lower than long-term interest rates. This is a typical yield curve shape, reflecting the fact that investors demand higher compensation for holding longer-term securities. However, during the 2008 crisis, the yield curve became extremely steep, reflecting concerns about the economy and financial markets.

After the Federal Reserve began implementing QE, the yield curve flattened out, with long-term interest rates falling relative to short-term interest rates. This can be seen in the yield curve graph, where the yield curve shifted downward and became flatter. This flattening of the yield curve was a direct result of the Federal Reserve's purchases of long-term assets, which pushed down long-term interest rates.

The impact of QE on the economy was twofold. First, it helped to stabilize financial markets by reducing the risk premium associated with holding long-term assets. This, in turn, helped to increase the availability of credit for households and businesses, which stimulated spending and investment. Second, by lowering long-term interest rates, QE helped to support economic growth by making it cheaper for households and businesses to borrow money.

In summary, the implementation of QE during the 2008 real estate crisis in the US was necessary because conventional OMO was not sufficient to stimulate the economy. QE was designed to lower long-term interest rates by purchasing large quantities of long-term assets, which helped to stabilize financial markets and support economic growth. The yield curve graph can help illustrate the impact of QE on interest rates, showing how it flattened the yield curve and helped to support economic activity.

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The market demand culve for labor O is determined by adding up the demand for labor by each firm at each wage, holding constant the other variables that affect the willingness of firms to hire workers. O is the same as the market demand curve for the product labor produces because it is a derived demand. O is perfectly inelastic because there is a finite number of workers in the market for labor. is determined by adding up the quantity of labor demanded by each firm at each wage, holding constant the other variables that affect the willingness of firms to hire workers

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The market demand curve for labor O is perfectly inelastic because there is a finite number of workers in the market for labor.


In economics, the market demand curve for labor represents the total quantity of labor that all firms in a given market are willing to hire at different wage rates, holding other factors constant. The market demand curve for labor is derived from the demand for the final product that the labor produces. Therefore, the demand for labor is a derived demand, meaning that it is not a direct demand for the labor itself, but for the product that the labor produces.When the market demand curve for labor is perfectly inelastic, it means that the quantity demanded of labor does not change with changes in the wage rate. In other words, firms in the market for labor are willing to hire a fixed quantity of labor regardless of the wage rate. This occurs when there is a finite number of workers available in the market, and firms are unable to increase their demand for labor beyond that fixed quantity.

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Under which of the following inventory costing methods is the ending inventory valued on the cost of the most recent purchases?a) First-In, First-Out.b) Weighted-average.c) Last-In, First-Out.d) Specific Identification.

Answers

The inventory costing method where the ending inventory is valued based on the cost of the most recent purchases is Last-In, First-Out (LIFO). The correct answer is option C.

In the Last-In, First-Out (LIFO) inventory costing method, the cost of the most recent purchases is assumed to be the cost of goods sold, while the cost of older inventory is used to value the ending inventory. This means that the ending inventory is valued at the cost of the most recent purchases, as the older inventory has already been assumed to have been sold.

Therefore, the correct answer is option C.

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which of the following transactions would likely involve multiple performance obligations? multiple choice question. seller delivers goods one time without future obligation seller delivers goods and promises to provide related service over a 12-month period seller promises to deliver the same type of goods at consistent intervals

Answers

The seller is obligated to not only deliver goods, but also provide a related service for a specific period of time

The transaction that would likely involve multiple performance obligations is "seller delivers goods and promises to provide related service over a 12-month period". This is because the seller is obligated to not only deliver goods, but also provide a related service for a specific period of time, which constitutes multiple performance obligations. In the other two transactions, the obligation is limited to the delivery of goods without any future obligation or consistent intervals, respectively, which do not involve multiple performance obligations.

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__ 13. Teams have an incentive to invest in player training
In a world of complete free agency.
Regardless of what the labor market is like for players who make the majors.
Only if players are tied to their original teams for a set number of years before free agency.
All of the above.

Answers

Only if players are tied to their original teams for a set number of years before free agency.

Free Agency- Free agency is the ability of professional team athletes to change teams when their contracts expire. Players can entertain offers from the teams interested in signing them and choose from the available choices.

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What are the four main tastes mentioned in lecture?

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The four main tastes were discussed as sweet, sour, salty, and bitter. These tastes are detected by the taste buds on the tongue, which are specialized cells that send signals to the brain about the food we eat.

Sweetness is typically associated with foods that contain sugar or other sweeteners, such as fruits and desserts.

Sourness is often found in foods that are acidic, such as citrus fruits and vinegar. Salty taste is associated with foods that contain salt or other minerals, such as seaweed or pickles.

Bitterness is often found in foods such as coffee, dark chocolate, and some vegetables. The taste buds also work in combination with other senses, such as smell and texture, to create the overall perception of flavor.

These four main tastes are important for the human diet and can help us identify and enjoy different types of food.

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