The area of grasses growing in shallow water, specifically in a salt marsh community, can vary depending on various factors, such as the size of the marsh, the species of grasses present, and the depth of the water.
Salt marshes are coastal wetlands inundated by saltwater brought in by tides. They are typically found in intertidal zones, where the water level rises and falls with the tide. Salt-tolerant grasses such as Spartina alterniflora and Spartina patens are commonly found in these areas.
The total area of grasses growing in shallow water within a salt marsh can be difficult to determine due to the marsh's irregular shape and the vegetation's patchy distribution. However, estimates of the vegetation cover area in salt marshes can be made using remote sensing techniques such as satellite imagery or aerial photography.
In conclusion, the area of grass growing in shallow water in a salt marsh community can vary widely depending on various factors, but can be estimated using remote sensing techniques.
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what is organism definition biology?
Which of the following observations provides the best evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory of the origin of Eukaryotes?
a) Most bacteria are much larger than mitochondria and chloroplasts.
b) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all have cell walls.
c) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts all have DNA and ribosomes.
d) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts cannot reproduce themselves.
e) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and chloroplasts are not surrounded by membranes.
(c) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and Chloroplasts all have DNA and ribosomes provides the best evidence for the Endosymbiotic theory of the origin of Eukaryotes.
The Endosymbiotic theory proposes that eukaryotic cells originated from A symbiotic relationship between two or more prokaryotic cells. Specifically, it suggests that the mitochondria and chloroplasts of Eukaryotic cells were once free-living bacteria that were engulfed by Larger host cells and eventually evolved into organelles.
The presence of DNA and ribosomes in both prokaryotes and Mitochondria/chloroplasts is a crucial piece of evidence in support of this Theory. This is because DNA and ribosomes are essential components of All living cells and are responsible for the synthesis of proteins, the Building blocks of life.
Therefore, c) Prokaryotes, mitochondria, and Chloroplasts provides the Best evidence for the Endosymbiotic Theory of the origin of Eukaryotes.
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in aerobic respiration, what process produces co2, atp, and electron carrier molecules?
In aerobic respiration, krebs process produces co2, ATP, and electron carrier molecules.
Aerobic respiration Mitochondrial structure houses the Krebs cycle. The electron transport chain uses the electrons and protons that are added to a variety of electron carriers by the processes of the Krebs cycle within the mitochondrial matrix to create ATP.Pyruvate, a compound with two three-kindly carbon atoms, is the first product of glycolysis and initiates the Krebs cycle. The Krebs cycle is also referred to as the tricarboxylic acid cycle because of this acidic molecule (TCA). These molecules are further decomposed into carbon dioxide via a number of processes. Molecules that are called electron carriers get energy from other molecules. To the electron transport chain, where it is used to produce ATP, these molecules convey the energy that has been stored.For more information on krebs cycle kindly visit to
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All organisms require an influx of substances from their habitat to meet their needs for chemical elements and energy.a. Trueb. False
A: True . All organisms require an influx of substances from their habitat to meet their needs for chemical elements and energy.
To provide themselves with the chemical components and energy they need, all living things depend on an influx of materials from their environment. These compounds are used by organisms to perform life-sustaining functions including growth, reproduction, and metabolism. Although various creatures and ecosystems require different materials and have varied methods for obtaining them, the underlying idea is the same for all living things. When every one of these is available in the appropriate quantities, a habitat is said to have an appropriate layout. Each environment that a creature inhabits is distinct from the others. Its natural habitat is inside this environment. Here, an organism may find everything it needs to exist, including food, water, refuge from the elements, and a location to reproduce its young. To be able to live, all species must be able to adapt to their environment.
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what is the role of trna during protein synthesis?
An enzyme called aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase binds amino acids to the matching tRNA molecules, which are essential steps in the production of proteins.
The aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzyme attaches the appropriate amino acid to its tRNA in the initial step of protein synthesis, and then transports it to the ribosome for the start codon.
The correct sequence of amino acids can then be used to create the protein because the ribosome can decode the genetic information found in mRNA during this step. The enzyme is necessary for the synthesis of proteins in general as well as for the production of proteins specifically.
Attaching the appropriate amino acid to its associated tRNA molecule is the function of aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase in the production of proteins.
As it guarantees that the right amino acid is added to the expanding protein chain, this key stage in the process of protein synthesis is essential.
Codons are sets of three nucleotides that are read during the production of proteins from the mRNA molecule. A certain amino acid is associated with each codon. The codon is identified by the aminoacyl-tRNA synthetase enzyme, which then joins the matching amino acid to the tRNA molecule.
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QuestionThe sequence of nitrogenous bases in one strand of DNA are 3 ′TAC GCG ACG 5 ′. The complementary DNA strand should haveA5 ′AUG CGC TGC 3 ′B3 ′ATG CGC TGC 5 ′C5 ′UAC GCG ACG 3 ′D5 ′ATG CGC TGC 3 ′Medium
The DNA strand 5' ATCGAACGT 3' has a complimentary sequence of 3' TAGCTTGCA 5'. Hence, choice A is the best one.
Changes in the nucleotide sequence that lead to short proteins or chain termination codons are known as non sense mutations.
The stop codon produced by the real protein MAQCV, which is coded by the amino acids 5'-ATG GCT CAA TGC GTA-3' and 5'-ATG GCT CAA TGA GTA-3, will prevent the production of additional protein chains. The nitrogenous bases couple with complementary bases along the other strand of double-stranded DNA in double-stranded DNA. In instance, A always pairs with T and C always pairs with G. The double helix's two strands later split apart during DNA replication.
A DNA molecule contains complementary and antiparallel polynucleotide strands. Hence, 5' CCGGTGCAAT 3' is the proper complimentary sequence for the provided DNA sequence.
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which category of ethics fits best with stem cell research?
Embryonic stem cells category of ethics fits best with stem cell research.
Exploration with embryonic stem cells has come the great stopgap of scientists worldwide. still, because they deal with embryos, they've also come the subject of contestation. The discovery that mortal embryonic stem cells can be insulated and propagated in the laboratory, with the eventuality to develop in all apkins of the body is an important advance in drug. But it has raised ethical enterprises.
Scientists now know that stem cells are also present inadults.However, the limitations of transplantation could be overcome, as well as ethical problems, If there was a way to stimulate resident stem cells to replace cells that are dying. Stem cells are cells that have the capability to divide indeterminate ages into culture and give rise to several types of technical cells. They can come blood, bone, brain, muscle, skin, and other organs. Embryonic stem cells are undifferentiated cells that have the capability to form any adult cell.
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The sun helps plants transform carbon dioxide into a simple carbohydrate called:A. Glucose
B. Stomata
C. Mitochondria
D. energy
Answer:
A. glucose
Explanation:
Glucose is used by plants for energy and to make other substances like cellulose and starch
what is the role of signal transduction in cell signaling?
The transfer of chemical signals from an external to an internal region of a cell is known as signal transduction. For cells to respond appropriately, signals must be successfully transferred into the cell.
When an extracellular messenger binds to a cell surface receptor, a process known as signal transduction takes place that results in modifications to the cell's biochemistry, cell biology, & gene transcription that enable the cell to react to the information it has just been given.The cellular response is linked to the activation of a receptor by signal transduction. Endocrine signalling is the term for cell communication over a long distance. Each receptor protein as well as the signal it will receive have a unique signal transduction pathway that is diverse and tailored to them. Both protein modification as well as the phosphorylation pathway are involved.
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Which description applies to post-translational gene regulation? a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand protein modifications such as addition of a functional group, or structural changes such as folding processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins mRNA modifications such as additions of a 5' cap and 3' poly-A tail and removal of introns heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence
Protein modifications such as addition of a functional group or structural changes such as folding. The regulation of active protein levels is referred to as post-translational regulation.
There are several types. The process is carried out either through reversible processes (post-translational changes like phosphorylation or sequestration) or through irreversible events (proteolysis).
Post-translational modification can take many various forms, so we will only discuss a few of them here. Generally speaking, they entail the creation of a covalent bond connecting a particular chemical group to a particular amino acid side chain on the protein. These groups can include phosphate groups (phosphorylation), an acetate group (acetylation), the attachment of lipid/hydrophobic groups (lipid modification), or carbohydrates (glycosylation). These post-translational alterations are typically reversible; one enzyme adds the modifying group, and another enzyme can take it away.
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Review carefully the structure of ATP. In addition to being the "energy currency" for the cell, ATP is a monomer for which macromolecule?
a Lipid
b DNA
c Protein
d Carbohydrate
e RNA
ATP serves as the cell's "energy currency" and as a monomer for the DNA macromolecule (option b).
Because nucleotides are made up of the phosphate group, together with nitrogen bases and the sugar ribose, they serve as a crucial component in determining the structure of the DNA sequence as a biomolecule.
As a result of these findings, it is clear that the phosphate group, which is always present in nucleotides, serves as a fundamental component of DNA.
When a phosphate group is removed during the process known as hydrolysis, a high energy phosphate bond is broken, releasing energy and converting ATP into adenosine diphosphate (ADP). Energy is also released, just like when a phosphate is taken out of ADP to make adenosine monophosphate (AMP).
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rigor mortis definition
Rigor mortis is defines as the situation on which the body becomes difficult to bend or move after death.
Rigor mortis is considered as the postmortem change that results in stiffening of the body muscles because of the chemical changes that occurs in myofibrils. Rigor mortis is known as the third stage that leads to muscles hardness and stiffness, that often occurs as the shortage of adenosine triphosphate or ATP in muscle .
Also, rigor mortis can be categorized into four important stages these are autolysis, bloat, active decay, and skeletonization. Stages are also considered as the self-digestion that occurs after death.
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how long does one cell cycle last in fertilized clam eggs ?
The duration of the cell cycle in fertilized clam eggs can vary depending on several factors such as temperature, pH, nutrients, and the size of the egg.
However, in general, the cell cycle in fertilized clam eggs takes approximately 12-24 hours to complete. During this time, the fertilized egg undergoes a series of stages, including interphase, mitosis, and cytokinesis, which result in the formation of two daughter cells that are genetically identical to the parent cell.The cell cycle is a series of events that occur in eukaryotic cells, leading to the replication and division of a cell into two daughter cells. The cell cycle consists of two main phases: interphase and the mitotic phase.In interphase, the cell grows and replicates its DNA in preparation for cell division. Interphase is further divided into three stages: G1, S, and G2.During the G1 phase, the cell grows and synthesizes proteins necessary for DNA replication. In the S phase, the cell replicates its DNA, producing two identical copies of each chromosome. Finally, during the G2 phase, the cell grows and synthesizes proteins required for cell division.The mitotic phase consists of four stages: prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase. During prophase, the chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and the spindle apparatus forms. In metaphase, the chromosomes align at the center of the cell. During anaphase, the sister chromatids separate and move toward opposite poles of the cell.
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the genes which carry specific information about your hair color and eye color are in your ______.
Your phenotype contains the genes that specifically describe your eye color and hair color. One of the most obvious differences across groups and among humans is their hair color, which is a genetically and physiologically complicated trait.
By the chromosomes that are transferred to their child, hair color is inherited from both parents. The 46 chromosomes (23 from each parent) include genes, which are made up of DNA, that contain instructions on what characteristics a child will receive. The outcomes could surprise you.
A number of genes have been linked to eye color, including ASIP, IRF4, SLC24A4, SLC24A5, TPCN2, TYR, and TYRP1. These genes' effects probably combine with those of OCA2 and HERC2 to give different persons a range of eye hues.
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True or False. Once the epiphyseal plate fuses and forms an epiphyseal line, the long bone continues to grow in length but at a slower rate.
It is untrue that the long bone continues to lengthen, albeit slowly, after the epiphyseal plate fuses and forms an epiphyseal line.
An epiphyseal line is an epiphyseal plate that has to enhance bone. The process of it made from an epiphyseal plate is chosen epiphyseal seal. In adult persons, it marks the point of mixture 'tween the epiphysis and the principles.
The epiphyseal plate is a thin cartilaginous line situated as a bound betwixt the main long part of something domain and the terminal epiphysis domain. This piece of animate skeleton admits the tumor of cartilage. Hence, it is erect only in cartilage enduring development. In contrast, the epiphyseal line means that cartilage development has been blocked.
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The enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase is only found in cells which have this function or ability:
a) Ability to utilize glucose anaerobically.
b) Ability to replenish the levels of glucose in the blood.
c) Glycogen storage.
d) Ability to produce lactic acid as an end product of metabolism.
e) Glucose-6- phosphatase activity is found in almost all types of cells.
The correct answer is (b) Ability to replenish the levels of glucose in the blood.
Glucose-6-phosphatase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of glucose-6-phosphate to glucose and inorganic phosphate. This enzyme is mainly found in cells of the liver and kidney, which are involved in maintaining glucose homeostasis in the body.
The primary function of glucose-6-phosphatase is to convert glucose-6-phosphate, which is generated by the breakdown of glycogen, into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream. This process is known as gluconeogenesis and is an essential mechanism for maintaining normal blood glucose levels.
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how is blood routed through the digestive system?
Blood is an essential component of the digestive system, as it provides the nutrients and oxygen necessary for the digestive organs to function properly. The digestive system receives blood from two main sources: the systemic circulation and the splanchnic circulation.
The systemic circulation includes the heart and the arteries and veins that supply blood to the body's organs and tissues, including the digestive system. The digestive organs receive blood from the celiac artery, the superior mesenteric artery, and the inferior mesenteric artery, which are branches of the aorta. The veins that drain blood from the digestive system include the hepatic portal vein, which carries blood from the stomach, small intestine, and large intestine to the liver, and the superior and inferior mesenteric veins, which drain blood from the large intestine.
The splanchnic circulation refers to the blood vessels that supply the digestive organs directly. These vessels include the gastric arteries that supply blood to the stomach, the pancreaticoduodenal arteries that supply blood to the pancreas and duodenum, and the splenic artery that supplies blood to the spleen. The splanchnic circulation also includes the hepatic artery, which supplies blood to the liver, and the portal vein, which carries blood from the digestive organs to the liver.
In summary, blood is routed through the digestive system via a complex network of arteries, veins, and capillaries that provide oxygen and nutrients to the digestive organs and carry away waste products. The hepatic portal vein plays a crucial role in the digestive system by transporting nutrients from the small intestine to the liver, where they are processed and distributed to the rest of the body.
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cocci which divide along alternating planes may stick together to form _____.
Staphylococci is formed when cocci which divide along alternating planes may stick together.As cocci divide along opposing planes, staphylococci are created.
Dominae are cocci that split in three planes and remain in eight-person groups that resemble cubes; staphylococci are cocci that divide in numerous planes and form clusters that resemble grapes.
A genus of bacteria is called Staphylococcus (staph). There are over 30 different varieties. Most infections are caused by Staphylococcus aureus. Skin infections, the most prevalent staph type, are just one of the numerous forms of infections that staph bacteria can cause. Many types of infections can be brought on by staphylococci.
(1) Saureus generates localised abscesses in various places and superficial skin diseases (boils, styes).
(2) Saureus produces more severe skin infections as well as underlying infections including osteomyelitis and endocarditis (furunculosis).
Hence, "Staphylococci" is the rightresponse.
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how does the brain control anxiety
Answer:
The brain's limbic system, comprised of the hippocampus, amygdala, hypothalamus and thalamus, is responsible for the majority of emotional processing.
Explanation:
Sea urchins, starfish, sea cucumbers, sand dollars, are all invertebrate animals?
a. Echinoderms
b. phylum Echinodermata
c. arthropods d. mollusks
All of the animals mentioned, sea urchins, starfish, sea cucumbers, and sand dollars, are members of the phylum Echinodermata, which is a group of invertebrate animals.
The phylum Echinodermata includes a wide variety of marine invertebrates, such as starfish, sea urchins, sand dollars, and sea cucumbers. These animals are characterized by having a hard, spiny covering on the outside of their bodies, a water vascular system, and pentaradial symmetry. The water vascular system is a network of fluid-filled canals that help the animal move and sense its environment. These animals are able to regenerate lost body parts, and some species can even resorb and regenerate entire arms or other body parts. The phylum Echinodermata also includes some species of deep-sea creatures, such as sea lilies and feather stars.
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examples of natural selection
Answer:
For example, evolving long necks has enabled giraffes to feed on leaves that others can't reach, giving them a competitive advantage. Thanks to a better food source, those with longer necks were able to survive to reproduce and so pass on the characteristic to the succeeding generation.
Explanation:
What is the proper statement that describes how thyroxine and/or TRH levels are maintained?- Thyroxine stimulates the pituitary to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).- TSH-releasing hormone (TRH) inhibits the secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.- Thyroxine and TSH inhibit the secretion of TSH-releasing hormone (TRH).- TSH inhibits the secretion of thyroxine from the thyroid gland.
Option 1 is Correct. The correct phrase that describes how thyroxine and/or TRH levels are maintained is that thyroxine promotes pituitary secretion of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
Its levels are managed by unfavourable commentary. Thyroxine levels are detected and controlled in part by the hypothalamus and pituitary gland. Low blood thyroxine levels prompt the hypothalamus to release TRH, which in turn triggers the pituitary to generate TSH, causing the thyroid to release more thyroxine.
Via a complicated feedback loop, your body regulates the levels of the thyroid hormones (T3 and T4). Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH), which is released by your hypothalamus, causes your pituitary gland to release thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH), which in turn causes your thyroid to release T3 and T4.
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Correct Question:
What is the proper statement that describes how thyroxine and/or TRH levels are maintained?
1. Thyroxine stimulates the pituitary to secrete thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH).
2. TSH-releasing hormone (TRH) inhibits the secretion of thyroxine by the thyroid gland.
3. Thyroxine and TSH inhibit the secretion of TSH-releasing hormone (TRH).
4. TSH inhibits the secretion of thyroxine from the thyroid gland.
what is returning water, electrolytes, and nutrients to the bloodstream called?
The procedure that removes solutes and water from the filtrate and returns them to your bloodstream is known as tubular reabsorption.
The reabsorption of electrolytes, water, and preserving the acid-base balance are all crucial functions of the renal tubules. Reabsorption is the process of returning chemicals, ions, and water from the glomerular filtrate to the blood that the body needs to maintain homeostasis.
The right balance of water and electrolytes is maintained and controlled by the kidneys. High pressure blood enters a glomerulus. Via tiny holes in the glomerulus, a considerable portion of the blood's fluid component is filtered, leaving behind the majority of big molecules like proteins and blood cells.
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which of the answer choices is not considered to be a part of the endomembrane system?
a. plasma membrane
b. endoplasmic reticulum
c. lysosome
d. mitochondria
e. golgi
The answer choice that is not considered to be a part of the endomembrane system is mitochondria.
The endomembrane system is a network of membrane-bound organelles involved in the transport of molecules within the cell. It includes the plasma membrane, endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, and vesicles. These organelles are connected either directly or indirectly and work together to modify, package, and transport proteins and lipids.
Mitochondria, on the other hand, are not a part of the endomembrane system. They are organelles that generate energy for the cell through the process of cellular respiration. While mitochondria have a double membrane structure, they are not directly involved in the transport of molecules within the cell or in the modification of proteins and lipids.
Hence, the correct option is D.
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What is the comparison and contrast between mitosis and meiosis?
Mitosis creates two offspring cells having the same amount of chromosome as the parent cell, which is the primary distinction between it and meiosis.
Four daughter cells from meiosis each contain just half of its parent's chromosomes due to recombination. Meiosis creates cells which are genetically distinct from the parent and have half as much DNA as mitosis, which divides a single "parent" cell into two genetically identical "daughter" cells. The majority of body cells undergo mitosis on a regular basis, but many do so more frequently than others. Daughter cells produced during meiosis are haploid, whereas those produced during mitosis are diploid. Daughter cells produced during mitosis share the same genetic makeup. Genetic variety is present in the daughter cells that result during meiosis.
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how many cell types are applied to the biomaterial scaffold to create a blood vessel? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3
Two kinds of cell types are basically applied to the biomaterial scaffold in order to create a blood vessel.
The correct option is option B.
Based on their respective chemical composition, a number of biomaterials are used for the purpose of making 3D scaffolds and they are classified into ceramics metals, and glass-ceramics, natural as well as synthetic polymers, and also composites.
Biostable polymers which include the polyethylene terephthalate (PET) and expanded polytetrafluoroethylene (ePTFE) are the currently used standard biomaterials which are used for vascular grafts to create blood vessels in the clinical applications. Two cell types, which are the muscle cells and the endothelial cells are applied to biomaterial scaffold in order to create the blood vessels.
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Which complication may occur if the brain tumor obstructs the ventricles?
Hydrocephalus
If the ventricles are obstructed, the patient may develop hydrocephalus. This can be treated by use of a ventricular shunt.
If a brain tumor obstructs the ventricles, it can lead to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, causing a condition known as hydrocephalus.
What is hydrocephalus?
Hydrocephalus is a medical condition in which there is an excessive accumulation of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain. Cerebrospinal fluid is a clear, colorless fluid that surrounds the brain and spinal cord, providing cushioning and nourishment to these vital organs. Normally, CSF circulates through the brain and spinal cord, and is eventually absorbed into the bloodstream.In hydrocephalus, the accumulation of CSF can cause increased pressure within the brain, leading to symptoms such as headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Hydrocephalus can occur in individuals of all ages, but it is most common in infants and older adults.If a brain tumor obstructs the ventricles, it can lead to a buildup of cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) in the brain, causing a condition known as hydrocephalus. Hydrocephalus can increase pressure within the brain and cause symptoms such as headaches, nausea, vomiting, blurred vision, and difficulty with balance and coordination. Treatment typically involves the placement of a ventricular shunt, which is a surgical procedure that involves the insertion of a thin tube to drain excess fluid from the brain and redirect it to another part of the body, such as the abdominal cavity.
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What is the disorder of the pituitary gland?
The most frequent cause for pituitary gland diseases is pituitary tumours, commonly known as pituitary adenomas. Most of these tumors—more than 99 percent—are benign.
Acromegaly, Cushing's disease, diabetes nephrogenic, empty sella syndrome, hypopituitarism, and pituitary tumours are among the ailments of the pituitary gland. Pituitary tumours, the majority of which are benign, can result in pituitary issues.A disorder affecting the front (front) lobe of a pituitary gland known as hypopituitarism, also known as an overactive pituitary gland, typically results in a partial and complete loss of function of that lobe. Which hormones the gland is no longer producing will determine the symptoms. Acromegaly, Cushing's disease, diabetes nephrogenic, empty sella syndrome, hypopituitarism, and pituitary tumours are among the ailments of the pituitary gland. Pituitary tumours, the majority of which are benign, can result in pituitary issues.
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What laboratory test(s) is (are) most often ordered to screen for abnormalities of the hemostatic system?
A. platelet count
B. prothrombin time
C. activated partial thromboplastin time
D. more than one of the above
E. all of the above
Option E: all of the above are the laboratory tests most often order to screen for abnormalities of the hemostatic system.
Prothrombin time (PT), activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT), and thrombin time (TT) are some coagulation tests ordered by clinicians to test for the blood clotting in patients. The doctor may also order platelet test to test the platelet counts in your blood if you show symptoms of bleeding or low platelets in the blood.
Hemostasis is a physiological process maintained by the human body to regulate the loss of blood from blood vessels and capillaries after they are injured or hurt. The process is dependent on the interactions between coagulation cascade, platelets, and the endothelium of blood vessels. Thus, the clinicians order a number of blood tests to screen for the abnormalities of the hemostatic system.
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chap 2.3 biology;;
complete the following chart:
MONOMER
1 glucose
2 ________
3 ________
POLYMER
1 _______
2 protein
3 _______
EXAMPLE
1 ________
2 ________
3 DNA
FUNCTION
1 _________
2 _________
3 ________
MONOMER: 1 glucose 2 amino acid 3 nucleotide.
POLYMER: 1 glycogen 2 protein 3 DNA.
What is MONOMER?Monomer is a single molecule that can be connected to other molecules of the same type to form a polymer. Monomers are the basic building blocks of polymers, which are long chains of repeating monomer units. Examples of monomers include glucose, fatty acids, amino acids, and nucleic acids. Monomers are the essential components of all living organisms, as they are essential for the formation of complex molecules such as proteins and DNA. Monomers can also form synthetic polymers, which are used to make plastics, rubbers, and fabrics.
EXAMPLE
1 Sucrose
2 Polypeptide
3 DNA
FUNCTION
1 Energy source
2 Structural support
3 Genetic information
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