Why would Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease?

Answers

Answer 1

The Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease because the drug inhibits the specific thymine kinase receptor, option E.

An enzyme called thymidine kinase, also known as 2'-deoxythymidine kinase or ATP-thymidine 5'-phosphotransferase, has the EC 2.7.1.21 code.[2][3] The majority of live cells contain it. It exists in mammalian cells in two different forms, TK1 and TK2.

Additionally, some viruses include the genetic code needed to produce viral thymidine kinases.  Since they are a vital component of the special reaction chain that introduces thymidine into the DNA, thymidine kinases play a crucial role in DNA synthesis and therefore in cell division. Thymidine is found in bodily fluids as a result of DNA from dead cells and from food degrading.

Many antiviral medications need thymidine kinase to work. In order to produce monoclonal antibodies, it is necessary to choose hybridoma cell lines.

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Complete question:

Why would Gleevec most probably cause remission of the disease?

A) It reverses the chromosomal translocation.

B) It eliminates the Ph' chromosome.

C) It removes Ph'-containing progenitor cells.

D) The drug inhibits the replication of the affected chromosome.

E) The drug inhibits the specific thymine kinase receptor.


Related Questions

describe the effects of widespread disposal of plastic waste in the ocean and the effects on the marine ecosystem (e.g., great pacific garbage patch).

Answers

The widespread disposal of plastic waste in the ocean has significant negative effects on the marine ecosystem. One of the most notable examples is the Great Pacific Garbage Patch, a vast area of floating plastic debris located in the North Pacific Ocean.

This accumulation of plastic waste harms marine animals through ingestion and entanglement, as well as disrupting the food chain and causing pollution in the water. Plastic waste breaks down into microplastics, which can be consumed by small organisms and then work their way up the food chain to larger organisms, including humans. The accumulation of plastic waste in the ocean also contributes to climate change by releasing greenhouse gases as the plastics decompose. Overall, the widespread disposal of plastic waste in the ocean has severe and long-lasting impacts on the health of the marine ecosystem and poses a threat to the entire planet.

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Question 77
The most accurate estimates of sewage flow are based on
a. quarterly water-meter readings
b. semiannual water-meter readings
c. annual water-meter readings
d. fixture units

Answers

The most accurate estimates of sewage flow are based on annual water-meter readings, option C.

Sewage flow rates vary greatly during the course of a day. This fluctuation must be accommodated by a sewage system. The morning and evening hours are when home sewage flow rates are highest in most cities. The middle of the night is when they are at their lowest. The amount of flow depends on the community's business or industrial activity, population density, and water usage.

Ordinarily, the community's typical water usage and sewage flow rate are similar. Short-term peak flow rates in a lateral sewer can be as much as four times the normal flow rate. Peak flow rates in a trunk sewer may be 2.5 times the average.

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the per-capita competitive effect on species f of species g, alphafg, is 0.8. based on this information alone, which is most likely to be true about species f and g? a. because (alpha)fg < 1, species f is the stronger competitor. b. individuals of species f are affected more strongly by competition with species g than by competition with members of their own species. c. an additional 100 individuals of species g will reduce the equilibrium population size of species f by 80, regardless of initial population sizes. d. a stable equilibrium between species f and g will occur if alphagf is also equal to 0.8.

Answers

The most likely statement to be true is option B. Since αfg is 0.8, it indicates that individuals of species F are affected more strongly by competition with species G than by competition with members of their own species.

Based on the information provided, the most likely true statement about species f and g is c. An additional 100 individuals of species g will reduce the equilibrium population size of species f by 80, regardless of initial population sizes. This is because the per-capita competitive effect of species g on species f is 0.8, meaning that for every individual of species g, the population of species f will decrease by 0.8. Therefore, adding 100 individuals of species g will result in a reduction of 80 individuals in species f's population, regardless of the initial population sizes. None of the other options can be concluded based on the given information.

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With unlinked genes, an equal number of parental and recombinant offspring are produced. With linked genes, are more or fewer parental's than recombinants produced?

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With linked genes, more parental offspring are produced than recombinant offspring. This is because linked genes are located close together on the same chromosome and tend to be inherited together.

Unlinked genes and linked genes, we need to consider the production of parental and recombinant offspring.
With unlinked genes, an equal number of parental and recombinant offspring are produced. This is because unlinked genes are located on different chromosomes, and their assortment is independent during meiosis.
With linked genes, more parental offspring than recombinants are produced. Linked genes are located close together on the same chromosome, and they tend to be inherited together. Recombinant offspring result from crossing over events during meiosis, which can separate linked genes, but this occurs less frequently than the inheritance of the original parental gene combinations.
In summary, with linked genes, more parental offspring are produced compared to recombinant offspring.Therefore, the parental combination of alleles is more likely to be inherited intact, resulting in a higher number of parental offspring. However, recombinant offspring can still be produced through crossing over during meiosis, which separates linked genes and produces new combinations of alleles.

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which of the following is a likely benefit of creating artificial life in the laboratory? which of the following is a likely benefit of creating artificial life in the laboratory? we could potentially build organisms that could produce fuels for human use. we would learn how life on earth arose. we'll be able to bring extinct species back to life. we'll eliminate worries about bioterrorism.

Answers

One likely benefit of creating artificial life in the laboratory is that we could potentially build organisms that could produce fuels for human use.

However, it is important to note that this technology is still in its early stages and has many ethical and safety considerations to be addressed before it can be fully utilized. Additionally, creating artificial life in the laboratory may also help us learn how life on earth arose,

but it is unlikely that we would be able to bring extinct species back to life or eliminate worries about bioterrorism through this technology.


A likely benefit of creating artificial life in the laboratory is that we could potentially build organisms that could produce fuels for human use. This would contribute to sustainable energy solutions and reduce our reliance on nonrenewable resources on Earth.

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To make a protein, DNA first is replicated into RNA, and then RNA is transcribed into amino acids. TrueFalse

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False. To make a protein, DNA is first transcribed into RNA (specifically, messenger RNA or mRNA), and then mRNA is translated into a sequence of amino acids, which form the protein.

To make a protein, DNA is first transcribed into RNA, specifically messenger RNA (mRNA), and then mRNA is translated into a sequence of amino acids, which form the protein. The process of protein synthesis begins with transcription, which occurs in the nucleus of the cell. During transcription, RNA polymerase enzyme binds to a specific region of DNA called the promoter and separates the two strands of DNA. The enzyme then uses one of the DNA strands as a template to synthesize a complementary strand of RNA, resulting in the formation of a single-stranded mRNA molecule. The mRNA molecule is then transported out of the nucleus and into the cytoplasm, where it binds to a ribosome. The ribosome reads the mRNA sequence in groups of three nucleotides, called codons, and matches each codon with a specific amino acid. The ribosome then catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids, resulting in the synthesis of a polypeptide chain.

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Finch beaks are all made by the same gene, so why are there different shaped beaks?

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Yes, Finch beaks are all made by the same gene, so why are there different shaped beaks due to difference found in gene regulation.

A variety of environmental factors, including food availability and competition, as well as differences in gene regulation and expression, contribute to the shape of beak variations. A number of genes interact with one another and with developmental processes to produce a complex trait known as the beak shape.

Significant variations in the shape of the beak can result from even slight variations in the expression levels or timing of these genes. For various diets and feeding habits, different beak shapes are used. By specializing in various food sources and avoiding competition with one another, finches with various beak shapes are made possible.

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You find a novel organism with unique structure and begin to study its nervous system.

You find that Vm = -40 mV. Important ions in this system appear to be magnesium (Mg^2+) and Rubidium (Rb^+).

Ion: Rb^+
Intracellular Concentration (mM): 200
Extracellular Concentration (mM): 5

Ion: Mg^2+
Intracellular Concentration (mM): 50
Extracellular Concentration (mM): 400

For this system, the concentration gradient for magnesium favors [×] and the electrical gradient favors [y].

A) efflux; efflux
B) influx; efflux
C) influx; no effect
D) influx; influx
E) efflux; influx

Answers

The concentration gradient for magnesium favors efflux and the electrical gradient favors efflux. (A).

How to determine concentration gradient?

The intracellular concentration of magnesium is 50 mM, which is lower than the extracellular concentration of 400 mM. Therefore, the concentration gradient for magnesium favors the movement of magnesium ions out of the cell, i.e., efflux.

The extracellular concentration of Rb^+ is 200 mM, which is higher than the intracellular concentration of 5 mM. Therefore, the concentration gradient for Rb^+ favors the movement of Rb^+ ions into the cell, i.e., influx. However, we are not asked about Rb^+ in this question. Since it only asks about the magnesium ion, so efflux; efflux.

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The _____________ separate adjacent vertebrae and they soften forces created by walking

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The intervertebral discs separate adjacent vertebrae and they soften forces created by walking.

based on your molecular weight predictions from computational analysis of the dhfr fusion proteins analyzed this semester, what would you estimate the molecular weight of the gst tag used to be? group of answer choices 50kd 24kd 21kd 26kd

Answers

Answer:

50kd..........................

in osteomyelitis, bacteria gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis. what factor makes this route the easiest for bacteria to gain access to this area?

Answers

Osteomyelitis is a condition that involves inflammation and infection of the bone and bone marrow. It is typically caused by bacterial infection, and the bacteria can gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis through various routes. However, there are several factors that make this particular route the easiest for bacteria to gain access to this area.

First, it is important to understand that the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis is a unique area that is particularly susceptible to infection. This is because the metaphysis is an area of the bone that is rich in blood vessels, which can provide a direct route for bacteria to enter the bone. Additionally, the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis is a potential space that is not completely enclosed by bone. This means that it is more accessible to bacteria than other areas of the bone.

One factor that makes this route easy for bacteria to gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis is trauma. Trauma can disrupt the skin and soft tissues around the bone, providing an entry point for bacteria. Additionally, fractures can cause damage to the bone itself, which can create a pathway for bacteria to enter the bone marrow.

Another factor that makes this route easy for bacteria to gain access to the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis is the presence of pre-existing conditions that weaken the immune system or compromise the integrity of the bone. For example, individuals with diabetes or other chronic illnesses may have weakened immune systems, which can make them more susceptible to infections. Additionally, individuals with bone tumors or other conditions that affect the structure of the bone may be more prone to bone infections.

Overall, the subperiosteal space in the metaphysis provides an easy route for bacteria to gain access to the bone and bone marrow. Trauma, pre-existing conditions, and the unique anatomy of the metaphysis all contribute to the susceptibility of this area to infection.

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What are the microscopic structural subunits of the liver?
Hepatic lobules
Hepatic lobes
Hepatic sinusoids
Hepatic nephrons

Answers

The microscopic structural subunits of the liver are hepatic lobules and hepatic sinusoids, the correct options are (a) and (c).

Hepatic lobules are hexagonal-shaped structures consisting of hepatocytes arranged in a radial pattern around a central vein. They are the basic functional units of the liver and perform many vital functions, including metabolism, detoxification, and bile secretion.

Hepatic sinusoids are small blood vessels located between the hepatocytes that receive blood from the hepatic artery and the portal vein. They play a critical role in the exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the hepatocytes, the correct options are (a) and (c).

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The complete question is:

What are the microscopic structural subunits of the liver?

a. Hepatic lobules

b. Hepatic lobes

c. Hepatic sinusoids

d. Hepatic nephrons

Parent 1
RRYY
Gametes
RY
1. What is the phenotype of parent 17.
2. What is the genotype of parent 17.
3. What is the phenotype of parent 27.
Parent 2
rryy
Gametes
RrYy
The F, generation are all RrYy.
4. What is the genotype of parent 27.
5. What is the phenotype of the F, offspring?.
6. What is the genotype of the F, offspring?.
7. What kind of cross does this figure describe?.

Answers

Answer:

bro send the pic of the question

Smaller worlds are more prone than large worlds to losing their atmosphere because they

Answers

The combination of weaker gravity, lower temperatures, weaker magnetic fields, and less internal heat make smaller worlds more prone to losing their atmospheres than larger worlds, making the study of atmospheric escape a crucial area of planetary science.

Smaller worlds such as asteroids, moons, and some planets, are more prone to losing their atmospheres than large worlds like Earth, due to several factors. First, smaller worlds have weaker gravity, which means they have less ability to hold onto their atmosphere. As a result, lighter gases such as hydrogen and helium can easily escape into space, leaving behind heavier gases like carbon dioxide and nitrogen.

Second, smaller worlds have lower temperatures and weaker magnetic fields, which means that their atmospheres are more vulnerable to being stripped away by the solar wind, a stream of charged particles emitted by the sun. These particles can ionize the gas molecules in the atmosphere, giving them enough energy to escape the planet's gravity well.

Finally, smaller worlds tend to have less internal heat, which means that they may not have enough energy to drive a strong atmospheric circulation, leading to a buildup of gases in certain regions and a depletion in others.

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How does a test for protein work?(Biuret's Assay)

Answers

The absorbance of the solution is measured using a spectrophotometer at a wavelength of 540 nm. The intensity of the color is proportional to the amount of protein present in the sample.

The Biuret assay is a commonly used test to detect the presence of proteins in a sample. The assay is based on the ability of copper ions to form a complex with the peptide bonds in proteins, resulting in a color change that can be detected using a spectrophotometer.

Here's how the Biuret assay works: First, a small amount of the sample containing the protein of interest is added to a test tube or cuvette. Next, a solution of copper sulfate (CuSO4) is added to the sample. The copper ions in the solution react with the peptide bonds in the protein, forming a complex with a characteristic blue-violet color. Then, a solution of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) is added to the mixture. The NaOH solution increases the pH of the solution, which helps to stabilize the Cu-protein complex and intensify the color.

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3. When you are using an F-max test to evaluate the homogeneity of variance
assumption, you usually do not want to find a significant difference between the
variances. (True or false?)

Answers

The statement 'When you are using an F-max test to evaluate the homogeneity of variance assumption, you usually do not want to find a significant difference between the variances' is false because when using the F-max test you want to find a significant difference between the variances.

A significant difference between the variances suggests that the assumption of homogeneity of variance has been violated, and the data may not be suitable for certain statistical analyses, such as a t-test or ANOVA. Hence, the F-max test is intended to find a significant difference between the variances.

On the other hand, a non-significant difference between the variances suggests that the assumption of homogeneity of variance has been met, and the data can be analyzed with more confidence using parametric tests.

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Which of the following conditions would cause ventilation to increase?

A) An increase in blood carbon dioxide levels
B) An increase in total atmospheric pressure
C) An increase in blood pH
D) An increase in blood oxygen levels
E) An increase in both pH and oxygen levels in the blood

Answers

e would be the best answer

because individuals vary in their traits, compete for resources, and vary in their fitness, the final component of natural selection results. what is this final step?

Answers

The final step of natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals based on their fitness.

The process of natural selection involves individuals with varying traits competing for limited resources, which leads to the selection of those with higher fitness. The final component of natural selection is the differential survival and reproduction of individuals based on their fitness, which ultimately leads to the evolution of new traits and species over time.

In conclusion, natural selection is a complex process that involves various factors, including competition for resources, genetic variation, and fitness. The final step of natural selection is the selection of individuals with higher fitness, which is crucial for the evolution of new traits and species.

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Question 2
The term "radioactivity" was "coined" by
a. Wilheim Roentgen
b. Henri Becquerel
c. Henri Crookes
d. Marie and Pierre Curie

Answers

The term "radioactivity" was "coined" by Marie and Pierre Curie, the correct option is (d).

Radioactivity is the phenomenon where certain nuclei of atoms undergo spontaneous decay, emitting particles and/or electromagnetic radiation in the process. Marie and Pierre Curie made several groundbreaking discoveries in the field of radioactivity, including the discovery of two new elements, polonium, and radium, which were highly radioactive.

Marie Curie's contributions to the field of radioactivity were significant, and she was the first woman to be awarded a Nobel Prize in Physics for her work on radioactivity in 1903. She later won a second Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 1911 for her discovery and isolation of radium and polonium, the correct option is (d).

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The ________ division of the ANS is most active during vigorous exercise.A) sympathetic B) somaticC) parasympathetic D) autonomic

Answers

The sympathetic division of the ANS is most active during vigorous exercise (Option A).

What is vigorous exercise?

If  the heart rate monitor says you're working at 50 to 60% of your max heart rate, then the exercise is considered moderate. If the heart rate monitor shows that you're working at 70 to 85% of your heart rate then it's vigorous exercise. To find your maximum heart rate, subtract your age from 220.

The sympathetic division increases heart rate and the force of heart contractions and widens (dilates) the airways to make breathing easier. It causes the body to release stored energy. Muscular strength is increased. This division also causes palms to sweat, pupils to dilate, and hair to stand on end.

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Question 36 Marks: 1 Only sperm and nerve cells can apparently replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive.Choose one answer. a. True b. False

Answers

True. Only  sperm and nerve cells can replace themselves or recover, to some extent, from radiation exposure if the dose is not excessive. So, the correct answer is option a.

This is because sperm and nerve cells have higher concentrations of DNA repair enzymes and antioxidants, which aid in cell repair and radiation damage protection.

Sperm cells can be replaced more quickly than other cells because they have a greater rate of cell turnover. Conversely, nerve cells have a stronger capability for regeneration, which enables them to recover from radiation damage more quickly.

Additionally, nerve cells can more rapidly recover from radiation exposure due to their increased capacity to adapt to changes in their environment.

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Question 40
Lasso is the trademarks for
a. acrolein
b. atrazine
c. alachlor
d. duiron

Answers

Lasso is the trademarks for alachlor. Option C is correct.

Lasso is a trademark name for the herbicide alachlor. Alachlor is a widely used pre-emergent herbicide that is used to control weeds in agricultural crops, including corn, soybeans, peanuts, cotton, and sorghum. It is a selective herbicide, meaning it targets certain types of weeds while having minimal impact on desired crops.

Alachlor works by inhibiting weed seedling growth, preventing them from establishing and competing with crops for nutrients, water, and sunlight.

It's important to note that the use of pesticides, including herbicides like alachlor, is regulated by various government agencies to ensure their safe and responsible use.

Hence, C. is the correct option.

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QUESTION 14 Match the following: failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a condition known as cleft palate.

Answers

These very small bones are:

A. Maxillae each orbit. - Ethmoid bone

B. Lacrimal bones - Lacrimal bone

C. Sphenoid - Palatine bones

D. Temporal bones - Petrous part of temporal bone

This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear. - Temporal bone

This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault. - Sphenoid bone

The bones contain teeth. - Maxilla and mandible

This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity. - Ethmoid bone

The sella turcica is a portion of this bone. - Sphenoid bone

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Full Question: These very small bones are at the medial wall of A. Maxillae each orbit. B. Lacrimal bones Failure of these anterior bones to fuse causes a C. Sphenoid condition known as cleft palate. D. Temporal bones This bone houses the apparatus of the internal and middle ear. This bone is wing-shaped and extends behind the eyes and forms part of the floor of the cranial vault. The bones that contain teeth. This bone has a passageway into the nasal cavity. The sella turcica is a portion of this bone.

You have found a new mutant phenotype in fruit flies that you suspect is recessive and X-linked.What is the single, best cross you could make to confirm your predictions?

Answers

The best cross you could make to confirm your predictions is to cross a male fruit fly that displays the mutant phenotype with a wild-type female fruit fly. This will allow you to observe the inheritance pattern of the trait in the offspring.

To confirm your predictions that the new mutant phenotype in fruit flies is recessive and X-linked, the best single cross you could make is by crossing a heterozygous female (XmX+) with a wild-type male (X+Y).
1. Obtain a heterozygous female with the genotype XmX+, where Xm represents the mutant X chromosome and X+ represents the wild-type X chromosome.
2. Obtain a wild-type male with the genotype X+Y, where X+ represents the wild-type X chromosome and Y represents the male-specific Y chromosome.
3. Cross the heterozygous female (XmX+) with the wild-type male (X+Y).
4. Observe the offspring phenotypes and their ratio.
If the mutant phenotype is indeed recessive and X-linked, you should expect the following results:
If the mutant phenotype is indeed recessive and X-linked, you would expect to see the phenotype only in the male offspring, as they would inherit the mutant allele from their mother (who is a carrier) and the Y chromosome from their father. The female offspring, on the other hand, would inherit a wild-type X chromosome from both parents, masking the mutant allele. By analyzing the phenotype of the offspring, you can confirm whether the trait is indeed recessive and X-linked.
- 50% of the male offspring will have the mutant phenotype (XmY), as they inherit the mutant X chromosome from their mother and the Y chromosome from their father.
- 50% of the male offspring will have the wild-type phenotype (X+Y), as they inherit the wild-type X chromosome from their mother and the Y chromosome from their father.
- 100% of the female offspring will have the wild-type phenotype (either XmX+ or X+X+), as they will inherit at least one wild-type X chromosome from either parent.
The presence of the mutant phenotype only in male offspring, along with the expected ratio, would confirm that the new mutant phenotype is recessive and X-linked.

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What are causes of RESPIRATORY acidosis? (1 category)

Answers

Answer: look at the picture

By picking up hydrogen ions, hemoglobin prevents the blood from becoming too _____.A, acidicB basicC thickD low in oxygen concentrationE red

Answers

By picking up hydrogen ions, hemoglobin prevents the blood from becoming acidic.

Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for carrying oxygen from the lungs to the tissues throughout the body.

It also helps to regulate the pH of the blood by picking up hydrogen ions (H+) and buffering the acidity of the blood. This is important because changes in blood pH can have harmful effects on the body's physiological processes.

When the body produces excess hydrogen ions, such as during intense exercise or metabolic processes, the blood can become too acidic, leading to a condition called acidosis. This can cause symptoms such as fatigue, confusion, and shortness of breath, and in severe cases, can be life-threatening.

Hemoglobin helps to prevent acidosis by picking up excess hydrogen ions and buffering the acidity of the blood, thus maintaining a stable pH.

Therefore, by picking up hydrogen ions, hemoglobin prevents the blood from becoming too acidic. If hemoglobin did not perform this buffering function, the blood could become too acidic, leading to a range of harmful effects on the body's physiological processes.

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Describe the texture of veggies cooked with baking soda. Why is this so?

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Veggies cooked with baking soda tend to have a soft, tender texture. Baking soda, also known as sodium bicarbonate, is an alkaline substance that can break down the cell walls of vegetables during cooking.

This causes the veggies to lose some of their natural firmness and become softer in texture. Baking soda can also help neutralize the natural acidity of certain vegetables, such as tomatoes, which can make them taste sweeter and less bitter.

However, overusing baking soda can lead to a mushy texture and a slightly soapy taste in the vegetables. Therefore, it is important to use baking soda sparingly and only in small amounts when cooking veggies.

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list at least five properties that dna polymerases and rna polymerases have in common. list at least three differences

Answers

DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases have the following common properties they are enzymes responsible for synthesizing nucleic acids. Differences between DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases, DNA polymerases can proofread and correct errors in DNA synthesis, while RNA polymerases cannot proofread RNA synthesis.

DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases have the following common properties:

1. They are enzymes responsible for synthesizing nucleic acids.
2. They require a template to synthesize new strands.
3. They use nucleotide triphosphates (NTPs) as substrates.
4. They require divalent metal ions, such as Mg2+, as cofactors for activity.
5. They move along the template in a 3' to 5' direction and synthesize a new strand in a 5' to 3' direction.

The following are the differences between DNA polymerases and RNA polymerases:

1. DNA polymerases can proofread and correct errors in DNA synthesis, while RNA polymerases cannot proofread RNA synthesis.
2. DNA polymerases require a primer to initiate synthesis, while RNA polymerases do not require a primer.
3. DNA polymerases can only synthesize new strands in a 5' to 3' direction, while RNA polymerases can synthesize in both 5' to 3' and 3' to 5' directions depending on the type of RNA being synthesized.

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Examples of external cues involved in stem cell differentiation include _____ (check all that apply)a. transcription factors in the cytoplasmb. cell signals received from nearby cellsc. environmental factors such as temperature

Answers

Examples of external cues involved in stem cell differentiation include b. cell signals received from nearby cells.


What is stem cell differentiation?
Stem cell differentiation is a complex process that involves various external cues. These cues can include signals from neighboring cells, which are received through cell signaling pathways. These pathways involve the binding of signaling molecules, such as growth factors, to receptors on the stem cell's surface.

This binding can activate various intracellular signaling cascades, which can ultimately lead to changes in gene expression and the differentiation of the stem cell into a specialized cell type. Transcription factors are also involved in this process, as they can bind to specific regions of DNA and regulate gene expression. Environmental factors such as temperature can also impact stem cell differentiation, but they are not considered to be external cues in the same way that cell signaling pathways are.

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Communication competence is a performance-based index of an individual's abilities to effectively use communication behaviors in a given context.
true or false

Answers

The given statement "Communication competence is a performance-based index of an individual's abilities to effectively use communication behaviors in a given context" is true.

It is a performance-based index that assesses the effectiveness of an individual's communication skills, knowledge, and attitudes in achieving communication goals in a particular situation. Communication competence involves the ability to understand and interpret messages, encode and decode messages accurately, use appropriate language and nonverbal behaviors, listen actively, and respond appropriately to feedback.

Effective communication is essential in various settings, such as personal relationships, professional environments, and public speaking.

Therefore, developing communication competence is critical for individuals who want to communicate effectively and achieve their communication goals in different contexts.

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potentially hazardous foods are often A. non-acidic, dry and do not contain protein B. slightly acidic, moist and contain protein C. very acidic, moist and contain protein D. slightly acidic, dry and do not contain protein True or False: for a person to be considered to have committed a crime, some act is required to prove the actors willingness to commit harm telangiectasia is a permanent _____ of groups of superficial capillaries and venules.a.extravasationb.dilationc.excoriationd.necrosis in addition to accelerating deductions, the timing strategy of ______ income recognition is beneficial to many taxpayers. Lee y escoge la opcin correcta con el futuro de subjuntivo. Read and choose the correct option with the future subjunctive.El artculo 1 de la Ley Indgena 19.253 se resume as:El Estado reconoce que los indgenas de los tiempos precolombinos 1. ______ los nicos dueos de su tierra, el fundamento principal de su existencia y cultura.La sociedad en general 2. ________ el desarrollo de los indgenas. Sus culturas, familias y comunidades se 3. ________ en todo momento. Nadie 4. ________ sus tierras, sino que se mantendr su equilibrio ecolgico. 1. fueres 2. respetaran 3. protegieran 4. explotaren 1. furemos 2. respetare 3. proteges 4. explote 1. fueras 2. respetaremos 3. protegiere 4. explotarn 1. fueren 2. respetare 3. protegieren 4. explotare Consider the effect of an un-anticipated 1 basis point increase in the 5 year bond rate (xt) at time t, which persists at t+1, t+2, ... Assuming the 2 year bond rate (24) does not change, and no other shocks occur at any horizon, what is the most appropriate inference regarding the change in the 10 year bond rate ('t) in the long run (i.e., infinite horizon)? O a. The 10 year bond rate increases by 1.34 in the long-run. O b. The long-run change in the 10 year bond rate is between 1.2263 and 1.4537 with 95% confidence. OC. The 10 year bond rate is not significantly affected by the increase in the 5 year bond rate. Od. The effect cannot be computed because the data is not stationary. please answer these questions fast Question 72 Marks: 1 The type of water that makes it difficult to produce suds or to rinse laundry, dishes or food equipment isChoose one answer. a. soft water b. hard water c. spring water d. distilled water can someone tell me the answer to this? ASAP What large body of water helps form Georgia eastern border Apple's MacBook has a consistent market share and steady revenue. According to the BCG matrix, the MacBook is a _______ for the company. What type of schedule would be: a toddler being potty-trained receives a piece of candy anytime he uses his potty.a) fixed ratiob) variable ratioc) fixed intervald) variable intervale) continuous reinforcementf) intermittent reinforcement Name two nutrients that are recycled through an ecosystem according to your text. What are two (2) common sources of protein for the Quinault Tribe of the Pacific Northwest A study of the time spent shopping in a supermarket for a market basket of 20 specific items showed an approximately uniform distribution between 20 minutes and 40 minutes. What is the probability that the shopping time will be a. between 25 and 30 minutes? b. less than 35 minutes? c. What are the mean and standard deviation of the shopping time? Im doing my math homework and i need helpp a survey of middle school students asked participants how they get to school each morning. the results of the survey are summarized. students walk to school students ride in a car to school students take the bus to school students ride their bikes to school what type of data set was created using this survey?\ The figure shows ABD is 90, split by line BC. The measure of ABC is x and the measure of DBC is (3x + 10). What is the value of x? Enter your answer in the box. proximate causation is explain immediate cause of behavior in terms of stimuli, produces behaviors evolved through Darwinian fitnesstrue or false Intro to Java CODING assignmentPLEASE HELP