Where does protein synthesis occur? lysosomes peroxisomes mitochondria ribosomes

Answers

Answer 1

Protein synthesis, the process of creating new proteins from amino acids, occurs in the ribosomes.

Ribosomes are organelles found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells that serve as the site of translation in which mRNA is decoded to produce a specific sequence of amino acids.

This process involves several steps, including initiation, elongation, and termination, which are all facilitated by ribosomal RNA and a variety of protein factors.

While lysosomes and peroxisomes are involved in the breakdown of various substances, and mitochondria are responsible for energy production, they do not have a role in protein synthesis.

Therefore, it is the ribosomes that are the essential organelles for protein synthesis in all living organisms.

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Related Questions

During protein formation, if an essential amino acid is missing, what can happen to the remaining amino acids?

Answers

Answer: If an essential amino acid is not available in the required quantities, protein synthesis will not occur, even if other amino acids are available in the required quantities.

Explanation: During protein synthesis, if one or more amino acids are missing or not present in the required proportions,  then the body can't initialize the process of protein production.  The remaining amino acids left unsynthesized are degraded, either excreted through urea or converted into fat or carbohydrate.

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what event initiates an adaptive immune response? group of answer choices the production of mhc class i or ii molecules the phagocytosis of a pathogen by a macrophage the interaction of a naive t cell with an antigen-presenting cell the expression of cytokines cd4 or cd8 the interaction of a b cell with a th cell

Answers

The interaction of a naive T cell with an antigen-presenting cell initiates an adaptive immune response. Therefore the correct option is option B.

When a pathogen enters the body, phagocytic cells such as macrophages engulf it, breaking it down into little pieces and presenting those fragments (antigens) on their surface utilising MHC molecules.

After then, the antigen-presenting cell connects with a T cell, which recognises the antigen as foreign and initiates an immunological response.

The contact between the T cell and the antigen-presenting cell is usually what triggers the adaptive immune response.

T cells grow and differentiate into effector cells that can directly fight the pathogen or drive other immune cells, such as B cells, to make antibodies once activated. Therefore the correct option is option B.

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Areas of the immune system located near orifices where lymphocytes congregate as they cleanse and filter the blood of foreign material are called

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Areas of the immune system located near orifices where lymphocytes congregate as they cleanse and filter the blood of foreign material are called mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

The immune system is composed of a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that work together to protect the body from foreign material, such as disease-causing organisms or toxins. Areas of the immune system located near orifices, such as the mouth, nose, and genitals, are called mucosal-associated lymphoid tissues (MALT).

These areas contain lymphocytes, a type of white blood cell that is specialized for recognizing and destroying foreign material. The lymphocytes in MALT help to cleanse and filter the blood, trapping any foreign material that may be present. This helps to keep the body healthy and free from disease.

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For glucose, the citric acid cycle turns _____ time (s).

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For glucose, the "citric-acid" cycle turns two times, and this cycle occurs in mitochondria.

For glucose, the "citric-acid" cycle, also known as the "Krebs-cycle" , turns two times. During each cycle, acetyl-CoA is combined with oxaloacetate to form citrate, which is then metabolized through a series of enzymatic reactions to produce ATP, NADH, FADH₂, and CO₂.

The cycle occurs in the mitochondria of eukaryotic cells and is an essential part of cellular respiration, which converts glucose into ATP, the primary energy source for the cell.

The two turns of the citric acid cycle produce a total of six molecules of NADH, two molecules of FADH₂, and two molecules of ATP, which are used in electron-transport-chain to produce more ATP.

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Each neurolemmocyte can mylenate _________ (one / many) axon(s) within the peripheral nervous system.

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Each neurolemmocyte Schwann cell can myelinate only one axon within the peripheral nervous system.

The nervous system is a complex network of cells, tissues, and organs that coordinates and controls the activities of the body. It consists of two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS).The CNS includes the brain and spinal cord, which are responsible for processing information and generating responses to stimuli. The PNS includes all the nerves that connect the CNS to the rest of the body, and is further divided into the somatic nervous system and the autonomic nervous system.

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Question 1
What are two factors commonly used to determine soil permeability or ability of the soil to absorb wastewater?
a. soil pecolation test and slope of land
b. soil characteristics and slope of land
c. soil perc test and soil characteristics
d. soil characteristics and watershed

Answers

The two most frequent methods used to assess soil permeability—or the capacity of the soil to absorb wastewater—are soil pecolation testing and land slope.Thus, option a is correct.

When water can pass through a soil, it is considered to be permeable. These aspects are briefly described in this article. There are several variables that affect the permeability property of soils, including void ratio, particle size and shape, soil saturation, and others.

The soil's permeability is influenced by the amount of sand, silt, and clay present. Sandier soils allow for faster water flow than clay-based ones.

However, placing an absorption field in a sandy or gravelly soil is not advised because the septic tank effluent will not be thoroughly filtered, particularly if the soil is thin and has a high water table.

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Human cells that lack centrioles cannot: metabolize sugars. divide. move. synthesize proteins.

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The absence of centrioles primarily affects the cell's ability to divide. It is important functions in developing and maintaining tissues and organs in the body.

Centrioles are small, cylindrical organelles found in animal cells that are involved in cell division. They are responsible for organizing the microtubules that pull apart the chromosomes during cell division. Cells that lack centrioles cannot divide because the spindle fibers that pull the chromosomes apart cannot be formed properly. Human cells that lack centrioles also have difficulty forming cilia and flagella, which are hair-like structures that extend from the cell surface and are involved in movement.

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Question 45
A household hazardous waste management program draws much of its strength from informed and concerned citizens.
a. True b. False

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True. Programes for managing household hazardous waste heavily rely on the involvement and cooperation of informed and concerned individuals.

These initiatives seek to lessen the negative effects of hazardous waste on the environment and public health by educating households on how to properly dispose of items like batteries, pesticides, and cleaning supplies. The proper identification, separation, and disposal of these hazardous items depend greatly on informed citizens. They can aid in preventing environmental contamination and health risks by being aware of and concerned about the potential consequences connected to inappropriate disposal of hazardous waste. Household Hazardous Waste Management Programmes aim to empower citizens to make informed decisions and take proactive measures to safeguard themselves and the environment by utilising community outreach programmes and public awareness campaigns.

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What type of membrane provides lubrication to the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities?A. Mucous membrane.B. Serous membrane.C. Cutaneous membrane.D. Synovial membrane.

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The type of membrane that provides lubrication to the pleural, pericardial, and peritoneal cavities is the serous membrane. option(b)

The serous membrane is a thin layer of tissue that lines the internal cavities and organs of the body. It is composed of two layers: the parietal layer, which lines the walls of the cavity, and the visceral layer, which covers the organs. Between these two layers is a small amount of serous fluid, which acts as a lubricant, reducing friction between the two layers during movements.

The serous membrane plays an important role in protecting and cushioning the internal organs from damage due to friction or trauma.

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brown and goldstein discovered the mechanism of cholesterol uptake by studying fibroblasts from children with which disease? a. chronic fatigue syndrome b. familial hypercholesterolemia c. lupus erythematosis d. cystic fibrosis

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Brown and Goldstein discovered the mechanism of cholesterol uptake by studying fibroblasts from children with familial hypercholesterolemia (option b).

Brown and Goldstein discovered the mechanism of cholesterol uptake by studying fibroblasts from children with familialfamilial hypercholesterolemia.

A chromosomal 19 abnormality causes familial hypercholesterolemia. An autosomal dominant genetic condition known as familial hypercholesterolemia is caused by a mutation in the LDL receptor (LDLR) gene, which is more frequently the cause than the gene for its ligand, apolipoprotein B 100. (APOB).

LDLR, APOB, and PCSK9 gene mutations, which have an impact on how your body manages and eliminates cholesterol from your blood, can result in familial hypercholesterolemia (FH). One of these three genes has been shown to be mutated in about 60–80% of individuals with FH.

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Ocean acidification is a consequence of what other environmental problem?

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Ocean acidification is a consequence of increased carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in the atmosphere, which leads to the absorption of excess CO2 by the ocean.

This excess CO2 reacts with seawater to form carbonic acid, thereby decreasing the ocean's pH level and making it more acidic. This environmental problem is commonly known as climate change or global warming, caused by human activities such as burning fossil fuels, deforestation, and industrial processes. Ocean acidification is a consequence of increased carbon dioxide (CO2) emissions in the atmosphere, which leads to the absorption of excess CO2 by the ocean. This excess CO2 reacts with seawater to form carbonic acid, thereby decreasing the ocean's pH level and making it more acidic

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Which of the following are functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? More than one answer may be correct. reabsorb nutrients reabsorb water adjust the pH of the filtrate remove toxins filter waste from the blood reabsorb ions

Answers

The functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) include:

Reabsorb nutrients, Reabsorb water, Reabsorb ions and Filter waste from the blood.

The proximal convoluted tubule's (PCT) functions include:

Reabsorb nutrients: The PCT returns the bulk of the bloodstream's supply of glucose, amino acids, and other nutrients from the filtrate.Reabsorb water: In order to keep the body's fluid balance in check, the PCT reabsorbs a significant proportion of water from the filtrate.Remove waste from the blood: The PCT is essential in the removal of wastes from the body, including urea and creatinine, from the blood.Reabsorb ions: The PCT returns a variety of ions to the bloodstream, including sodium (Na+), potassium (K+), and chloride (Cl-).

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Complete Question:

Which of the following are functions of the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT)? More than one answer may be correct.

reabsorb nutrients reabsorb water adjust the pH of the filtrate remove toxins filter waste from the blood reabsorb ions

Question 23
Why are anit-coagulant type rodenticides coated with paraffin?
a. prevents rodents from smelling poison
b. slows down killing effect so rodents can die in nest
c. prevent decomposition of poison by rain moisture
d. increases toxicity of poison

Answers

Anti-coagulant type rodenticides are coated with paraffin to prevent decomposition of the poison by rain and moisture. The correct option is C.

Anti-coagulant rodenticides are a common type of rodenticide that work by preventing blood clotting in rodents, leading to internal bleeding and death. These rodenticides are typically made with warfarin, bromadiolone, or other similar compounds, and are often formulated as pellets or baits.

To protect the active ingredient in these rodenticides from moisture and rain, the pellets or baits are often coated with a layer of paraffin wax. This helps to prevent the poison from breaking down and losing its effectiveness before it can be consumed by rodents.

The correct option is C.

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How do astronomers account for the fact that all the planets orbit the Sun in the same direction and in nearly the same plane?

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The uniformity of planetary motion in our solar system is explained by the nebular hypothesis, which suggests that the planets formed from the same flattened disk of material that resulted from the collapse of the solar nebula.

Astronomers explain the uniformity of planetary motion in our solar system through the nebular hypothesis. According to this theory, the solar system formed from a rotating disk of gas and dust that surrounded the Sun, known as the solar nebula. As the nebula collapsed under its own gravity, it spun faster, and the centrifugal force flattened the disk into a plane.

The planets formed from the material in this disk, which explains why they orbit in the same direction as the rotation of the original nebula. Additionally, the planets' orbits are nearly coplanar because they formed from the same flattened disk of material, which explains why the planets orbit in nearly the same plane.

This explanation is supported by observations of other planetary systems, where planets have been found to orbit in similar planes. Therefore, the uniformity of planetary motion in our solar system is a result of the physical processes that occurred during the formation of the solar system itself.

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Cells have a mechanism for tagging and destroying proteins containing a C-terminal poly(Lys) sequence. What is the source of these proteins and why is destroying them helpful for the cell?

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The K48-linked polyubiquitin system helps to maintain cellular homeostasis by degrading misfolded or damaged proteins, preventing their accumulation and toxicity, and recycling their components for new protein synthesis.

The proteins containing a C-terminal poly(Lys) sequence, also known as K48-linked polyubiquitin chains, are often misfolded or damaged proteins that need to be degraded by the cell's quality control system.

This system involves the tagging of these proteins with ubiquitin molecules, a small protein that marks them for destruction by the proteasome, a large protein complex that degrades proteins into smaller peptides. The K48-linked polyubiquitin chains act as a signal for the proteasome to recognize and degrade these proteins.

The presence of misfolded or damaged proteins in the cell can be harmful and can lead to various diseases if not properly removed. By degrading these proteins, the cell can prevent them from accumulating and causing cellular stress or toxicity.

Additionally, the degradation of these proteins allows the cell to recycle its components, including amino acids, for the synthesis of new proteins. Thus, the tagging and destruction of proteins containing a C-terminal poly(Lys) sequence is a crucial mechanism for maintaining cellular homeostasis and preventing the accumulation of harmful proteins.

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Osmosis can be defined as
A. active transport.
B. the diffusion of nonpolar molecules.
C. the diffusion of water.
D. the diffusion of a solute.

Answers

Answer: D. Diffusion of a solute as this is a form of passive transport

Explanation:

all of the following are examples of pollutants in the marine environment except: question 45 options: heavy metals such as mercury and silver. hydrocarbons. nitrate and phosphates. phytoplankton. sewage effluent.

Answers

The correct answer to your question is phytoplankton. All of the other options - heavy metals (like mercury and silver), hydrocarbons, nitrates and phosphates, and sewage effluent - are examples of pollutants in the marine environment.

Pollutants are substances that contaminate and harm ecosystems, including the marine environment. Heavy metals, such as mercury and silver, can accumulate in marine organisms and move up the food chain, affecting both aquatic life and humans who consume seafood. Hydrocarbons, which are often found in oil spills, can cause damage to marine life through direct contact, ingestion, or inhalation.
Nitrates and phosphates, typically found in agricultural and industrial runoff, contribute to eutrophication. This process occurs when excess nutrients lead to algal blooms, which in turn consume large amounts of oxygen, creating "dead zones" in the water where most marine life cannot survive. Sewage effluent, which often contains pathogens and excess nutrients, also contributes to eutrophication and poses health risks to marine organisms.
Phytoplankton, on the other hand, are not considered pollutants. These microscopic, photosynthetic organisms are a natural and essential part of the marine ecosystem. They serve as the base of the aquatic food web and play a vital role in producing oxygen and cycling nutrients. While excess nutrients from pollution can cause harmful algal blooms, phytoplankton themselves are not pollutants.

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Suggest how the cell cycle will be affected in cells that have become cancerous (2)

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A normal cell will undergo apoptosis if its DNA is damaged beyond repair. A cancer cell that has DNA damage that can't be fixed won't go through apoptosis and will keep growing.

Uncontrolled cell growth is cancer. Cancer can be caused by gene mutations that accelerate the rate of cell division or inhibit normal system controls like cell cycle arrest or programmed cell death. A mass of cancerous cells has the potential to grow into a tumor.

A typical cycle is followed by normal cells: They multiply, split, and then die. On the other hand, cancer cells do not follow this cycle. Rather than kicking the bucket, they increase and keep on recreating other strange cells. These cells have the ability to invade organs like the pancreas, liver, lungs, and breast.

Genes known as proto-oncogenes typically aid in cell growth and division for the production of new cells or for maintaining cell viability. A proto-oncogene can become turned on (activated) when it is not supposed to be, which is when it is referred to as an oncogene. This happens when a proto-oncogene mutates (changes) or has too many copies.

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protein receptors that bind intercellular chemical messengers can be found in what target cell locations?

Answers

Answer: -in the cell cytosol-in the nucleus-in the cell's plasma membrane

Explanation:

Sucrose Polyester is also called...

Answers

Sucrose polyester is also called as olestra.

It is a type of non-caloric fat substitute used in some low-fat and reduced-calorie food products. Olestra is made by esterifying sucrose (a type of sugar) with edible fatty acids, resulting in a molecule that is resistant to digestion by human enzymes, and thus passes through the digestive tract without being absorbed as calories.

It has been used as a substitute for fat in certain snack foods, such as potato chips, to reduce the overall calorie content of the product. Olestra has been approved for use as a food ingredient in some countries, but it is subject to regulatory restrictions due to potential side effects, such as gastrointestinal discomfort and interference with the absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.

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What type of tissue makes up the epidermis of the skin?A. Dense connective tissue.B. Stratified squamous epithelium.C. Adipose tissue.D. Simple squamous epithelium.

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The type of tissue that makes up the epidermis of the skin is stratified squamous epithelium. option(b)

This type of tissue is composed of layers of flattened cells that provide protection against mechanical stress, dehydration, and the entry of pathogens. The cells in the outermost layer of the epidermis, called the stratum corneum, are dead and filled with a protein called keratin, which helps to prevent water loss and provides additional protection.

The cells in the lower layers of the epidermis are constantly dividing and producing new cells, which migrate to the surface and replace the dead cells that are shed.

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Hailey makes a claim that a giant redwood tree can be grown from a single celf. Do you agree?
Explain your reasoning.

Answers

Answer:

It may seem like a single cell can grow into a massive redwood tree, but that is not true. Growing an enormous redwood tree must start with a seed, not just a single cell. Despite this, the seed still comprises cells that will divide and specialize in creating the diverse tissues and structures of the tree. Here is a more accurate description of a giant redwood tree's growth.

A Sequoia sempervirens, more commonly known as a giant redwood tree, starts its life cycle as a seed, containing an embryo, a helping of nutrients, and a protective seed coat. Next, the root has cells that will eventually differentiate and multiply to form the various tissues and structures of the tree.

If the conditions are suitable, with the right amount of light, moisture, and temperature, the seed will germinate, and the embryo will grow within the source. In the beginning, we can see the embryonic root; then, the shoot appears, which comprises the embryonic stem and the leaves.

The development of the seedling is mainly determined by the cells in the apical meristems of the roots and shoots, which are the tips that control the growth. As the seedling grows, these cells divide and differentiate, forming the various tissues and structures of the tree, such as the trunk, branches, leaves, and root system.

With age, the tree will eventually become a giant redwood, growing to a maximum height of 379 feet (115 meters) and living for about 2,000 years or more.

To sum up, although it's not correct to suggest that a giant redwood tree can come from a single cell, the process begins with a seed containing an embryo with cells that will divide and differentiate to form the entire tree.

I hope this helps.

In their studies of the resting membrane potential of the squid giant axon, Hodgkin and Katz found that

Answers

In their studies of the resting membrane potential of the squid giant axon, Hodgkin and Katz found that increasing potassium outside the axon depolarizes the axon's potential.

This means that the electrical charge across the axon's membrane becomes less negative, making it more likely for an action potential to be triggered. They also found that sodium ions play a crucial role in the generation and propagation of action potentials. When sodium ions flow into the axon during an action potential, they cause a rapid depolarization, which triggers the opening of voltage-gated potassium channels that help repolarize the axon back to its resting state. These findings were groundbreaking and helped to establish the principles of neural communication that are still studied today.

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Which set contains the most closely related terms? A) megasporangium, megaspore, pollen, ovule
B) microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovary
C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule
D) microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

Answers

The set that contains the most closely related terms is C) megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule, as all four terms are directly related to the process of fertilization and reproduction in plants.

Megaspores are produced within the megasporangium and develop into female gametophytes, which contain the egg cell. The ovule is a structure that contains the female gametophyte and develops into the seed after fertilization. All of these are structures that play their roles in fertilization.

Therefore, the terms megasporangium, megaspore, egg, and ovule are all related to the female reproductive structures of plants, while the other options in the other sets contain terms related to the male reproductive structures of plants, such as pollen or microspores. Hence, the correct option is C.

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______ sequence is a consensus sequence (in prokaryotic mRNAs only) that signals the start of translation.(3)

Answers

Answer:

AUG

Explanation:

The sequence "AUG" is the start codon for translation and is also known as the initiation codon. It is a consensus sequence, meaning that it is the most commonly observed sequence at the beginning of protein-coding genes in prokaryotic mRNAs. When an AUG codon is encountered by the ribosome, it signals the start of protein synthesis and the ribosome begins to translate the mRNA sequence into a protein sequence. The start codon is recognized by a specific initiator tRNA molecule that carries the amino acid methionine, which is the first amino acid in many proteins.

Question 24
The most harmful effects of ionizing radiation on human fetal tissue is during:
a. Immediately after fertilization occurs
b. The second through sixth week of gestation
c. The 12th through 20th week of gestation
d. Just prior to delivery

Answers

The most harmful effects of ionizing radiation on human fetal tissue is during the second through sixth week of gestation. Option B is correct.

The developing fetus is most susceptible to the harmful effects of ionizing radiation during the second through sixth week of gestation, which is also known as the embryonic period. During this critical period of fetal development, the organs and tissues are forming rapidly, and the cells are dividing and differentiating.

Exposure to ionizing radiation, such as X-rays and other types of high-energy radiation, during pregnancy should be minimized and only done when absolutely necessary for medical reasons. It's important for pregnant women or those planning to become pregnant to inform their healthcare providers of their pregnancy status and to follow appropriate safety measures to avoid unnecessary exposure to ionizing radiation.

Hence, B. is the correct option.

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What advantages are provided to developing rural areas by using an anaerobic digester? (Site 1)

Answers

The advantages to the rural area as result of using an anaerobic digester is that they are a very sanitary method for the purpose of disposal of waste as well as a source of energy.

The advantages to the developing rural areas by building as well as using an anaerobic digester is that basically these anaerobic digesters which happen to offer both as a sanitary method of waste disposal as well as a source of energy which can significantly help in the control of disease.

These digesters can really help in the improvement of the rural sanitation, reduce labor, foe example, collection of the fuel wood, as well as reduction of the greenhouse gas emissions, increase agricultural productivity due to improvements in soil quality etc.

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The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious disease by:
determining the taxonomic relationships among microbes
developing techniques for isolating pathogens
identifying the sources of infectious agents
developing vaccines
developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections

Answers

The research of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all helped to reduce nosocomial infections, which helped to control infectious disease.

Which are the top 5 nosocomial infections?Nosocomial infections, also known as healthcare-associated infections (HAI), are an infection or illnesses that are acquired during the course of receiving medical care but were not present at the time of admission. Some of the most typical nosocomial infections include urinary tract infections, lung pneumonia, surgical site infections, bacteremia, gastrointestinal, and skin infections. Nosocomial infections are most frequently caused by bacteria. E. coli and staph are frequent microorganisms. Nosocomial infections, which arise as a result of a hospital stay or are caused by microbes and viruses acquired during hospitalization, can spread through a number of different channels, including contact, droplet, air, water, food, or disease vectors that carry and transmit infectious pathogens, such as blood.

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The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious diseases by developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections.

Controlling infectious diseases:

The work of Lister, Nightingale, and Semmelweis all contributed to controlling infectious diseases by developing techniques for isolating pathogens, identifying the sources of infectious agents, and developing methods for reducing nosocomial infections. They recognized that infectious diseases were caused by pathogens and that proper sanitation and hygiene were crucial in preventing the spread of these diseases.

Lister introduced antiseptic techniques to prevent infections during surgery, Nightingale emphasized the importance of cleanliness in hospitals, and Semmelweis demonstrated the significance of handwashing in preventing the transmission of infectious agents.

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Chimpanzees and gorillas share the trait of knuckle-walking, which humans do not generally have. Why do most scientists NOT classify chimpanzees and gorillas as each other's closest relatives?
A) The majority of genetic evidence places chimpanzees closest to humans, not to gorillas.
B) Fossil evidence suggests that knuckle-walking was present in ape ancestors and is not a uniquely derived trait for chimpanzees and gorillas.
C) Chimpanzees and humans share more unique features in common than either share with gorillas.
D) Fossil apes that are thought to be closest to humans show adaptations for knuckle-walking, implying that humans have secondarily lost the trait.
E) All of the above.

Answers

Chimpanzees and gorillas share the trait of knuckle-walking, which humans do not generally have. Most scientists NOT classify chimpanzees and gorillas as each other's closest relatives E) All of the above.

The reason why most scientists do not classify chimpanzees and gorillas as each other's closest relatives is due to a combination of factors. Firstly, the majority of genetic evidence places chimpanzees closest to humans, not to gorillas, this suggests a closer evolutionary relationship between humans and chimpanzees than between chimpanzees and gorillas.  Secondly, fossil evidence suggests that knuckle-walking was present in ape ancestors and is not a uniquely derived trait for chimpanzees and gorillas, this means that knuckle-walking is not a defining characteristic that sets chimpanzees and gorillas apart from other apes.

Thirdly, chimpanzees and humans share more unique features in common than either share with gorillas, this implies a closer evolutionary relationship between humans and chimpanzees than between chimpanzees and gorillas. Finally, fossil apes that are thought to be closest to humans show adaptations for knuckle-walking, implying that humans have secondarily lost the trait, this further supports the idea that knuckle-walking is not a defining characteristic of chimpanzees and gorillas, but rather a trait that has been lost in some lineages. Chimpanzees and gorillas share the trait of knuckle-walking, which humans do not generally have. Most scientists NOT classify chimpanzees and gorillas as each other's closest relatives E) All of the above.

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A person who is fasting will have a ______ Basal Metabolic Rate compared to normal.a. lowerb. higherc. similar

Answers

The Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR) of someone who is fasting will be lower than usual. The metabolism and other physical processes are slowed down when the body is fasting in order to preserve energy. Option a is Correct.

The BMR is the amount of energy needed by the body to sustain vital physiological activities while at rest, and a lower BMR during fasting aids the body in preserving energy and adjusting to the decreased calorie intake.

The BMR of a typical guy is around 7,100 kJ per day, but the BMR of a typical lady is about 5,900 kJ per day. The rate of energy use is constant but changes during the day. Early in the morning is often when people use the least energy. Option a is Correct.

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Ch19: Under what conditions is a reaction spontaneous at all temperatures?1. H03. H04. H>0 and S Discuss the impact of global forces on theenvironment, and the practice of green(er) supply chains he coordinates of three corners of a square are (2, 0), (1, 0), and (1, 3). Use this information to complete the following tasks.Graph the three points given.Determine the coordinates of the fourth corner of the square.Draw the square.Determine the perimeter of the square. please help, dont understand When an exception occurs in MIPS, the processor first saves the address of the offending instruction in the _________. when disney flooded retail stores with products based on its movie frozen, this illustrated strategic brand alteration. rebranding. brand licensing. brand repositioning. brand scaling. What effect does dilution have on the total moles of solute in solution ? Aerobic activities, such as lifting weights or doing push-ups, use the energy stored in your muscles to supply the body with the fuel it needs. A TrueB False how does lennox describe the night, and what is macbeths response the breakwater in santa monica was destroyed by large storm waves in 1983 (it's el nino's fault!). what to you think happened to the bulge in the beach? I need help solving this question the graph below displays the amount of time to the nearest hour spent on homework per week for a sample of students. which measures of center and variability would be most appropriate to describe the given distribution? group of answer choices mean and standard deviation mean and iqr median and standard deviation median and iqr median and range "In the ratio 1:1 homozygotes to heterozygotes** In a cross between two heterozygotes (Aa), the next generation will be in the ratio 1:1 homozygotes (AA, aa) to heterozygotes (2 Aa)."true or false Is the following scenario best characterized as the concept of compliance or obedience?David is pouring himself a cup of coffee when his boss shows up and says, "Pour me a cup." David pours the cup of coffee and gives it to his boss. Suppose the output per effective worker is production function is y=10k1/2, where k equals the amount of capital per effective worker and the capital lasts an average of 10 years. Assume that the saving rate is 32 percent, the rate of growth of population is 4 percent and the rate of technological growth is 2 percent.a) Solve for the steady state levels of capital per effective worker, output per effective worker, investment per effective worker and consumption per effective worker.b) Calculate the growth rate of total capital income and the growth rate of total labor income at the steady state.(Hint: Capital and labor each earn a constant share of the economy's income ).c) Prove, at the steady state, (i) the capital-output ratio is constant;(ii) the real wage grows at the rate of 2 percent.d) Calculate all of the following at their Golden Rule levels: Capital per effective worker, output per effective worker, saving and investment per effective worker, and the consumption per effective worker.e) Whether the saving rate is too high or too low? Percent defects in services and purchased materials is typically a measure of supply chain performance for which core process? 61. Concerning retention of working papers, the Sarbanes-Oxley Act: A. Has no provisions. B. Requires permanent retention. C. Requires retention for at least 7 years. D. Requires retention for a period of 4 or less years. The measure of an angle is 17.9. What is the measure of its supplementary angle? A college cafeteria is looking for a new dessert to offer its 4,000 students. The table shows the preference of 225 students.Ice Cream Candy Cake Pie Cookies81 9 72 36 27Which statement is the best prediction about the number of cookies the college will need? The college will have about 480 students who prefer cookies. The college will have about 640 students who prefer cookies. The college will have about 1,280 students who prefer cookies. The college will have about 1,440 students who prefer cookies.Question 14A random sample of 100 middle schoolers were asked about their favorite sport. The following data was collected from the students.Sport Basketball Baseball Soccer TennisNumber of Students 17 12 27 44Which of the following graphs correctly displays the data? histogram with the title favorite sport and the x axis labeled sport and the y axis labeled number of students, with the first bar labeled basketball going to a value of 17, the second bar labeled baseball going to a value of 12, the third bar labeled soccer going to a value of 27, and the fourth bar labeled tennis going to a value of 44 histogram with the title favorite sport and the x axis labeled sport and the y axis labeled number of students, with the first bar labeled baseball going to a value of 17, the second bar labeled basketball going to a value of 12, the third bar labeled tennis going to a value of 27, and the fourth bar labeled soccer going to a value of 44 bar graph with the title favorite sport and the x axis labeled sport and the y axis labeled number of students, with the first bar labeled basketball going to a value of 17, the second bar labeled baseball going to a value of 12, the third bar labeled soccer going to a value of 27, and the fourth bar labeled tennis going to a value of 44 bar graph with the title favorite sport and the x axis labeled sport and the y axis labeled number of students, with the first bar labeled baseball going to a value of 17, the second bar labeled basketball going to a value of 12, the third bar labeled tennis going to a value of 27, and the fourth bar labeled soccer going to a value of 44Question 15The line plots represent data collected on the travel times to school from two groups of 15 students.A horizontal line starting at 0, with tick marks every two units up to 28. The line is labeled Minutes Traveled. There is one dot above 4, 6, 14, and 28. There are two dots above 10, 12, 18, and 22. There are three dots above 16. The graph is titled Bus 47 Travel Times.A horizontal line starting at 0, with tick marks every two units up to 28. The line is labeled Minutes Traveled. There is one dot above 8, 9, 18, 20, and 22. There are two dots above 6, 10, 12, 14, and 16. The graph is titled Bus 18 Travel Times.Compare the data and use the correct measure of center to determine which bus typically has the faster travel time. Round your answer to the nearest whole number, if necessary, and explain your answer. Bus 18, with a median of 13 Bus 47, with a median of 16 Bus 18, with a mean of 13 Bus 47, with a mean of 16 5. What is the expenditure multiplier effect? a. A small change in economic activity can ripple through the economy to create a larger effect b. A small change in economic activity has no effect on the larger economy C. A small change in economic activity leads to contractionary fiscal policy d. A small change in economic activity leads to larger aggregate supply shocks 6. The actual productive value of a nation's output is it's: a. Aggregate supply b. Real GDP C. Nominal GDP d. Aggregate demand 7. Adjusting national output with a deflator gives a measure of: a. Aggregate demand b. Aggregate supply C. Nominal GDP d. Real GDP I 8. Which of the following is used to calculate net exports? a. Exports--imports b. Exports + net tax C. Imports - Exports d. Exports + net tax-imports